The nephron uses counter-current exchange between the loop of Henle and peritubular capillary to reabsorb glucose back in to the blood and is why glucose should not be found in the urine.
a. True
b. False

Answer:

Explanation:

The proximal tubules forms the part of the nephron of the kidney. It lies between the bowman's capsule and the Henle loop. The distal tubule is a part of the nephron of the kidney present in between the Henle loop and the collecting tubule.

The renal arteries forms branches of afferent and efferent arterioles which typically leads to the formation of the pertibular capillaries. These pertibular capillaries actually supplies the blood to the distal convoluted tubules and the proximal tubules.  

Answer:

The answer to the question: What role does hydrostatic/filtration pressure have in the physiology of glomerular filtration, would be: this pressure from the blood against the mesh of the glomerulus is the one that ensures that there is a filtration rate at all. When this pressure drops, the kidneys will stop filtration altogether, and another series of steps will be taken to bring hydrostatic pressure in the blood back up.

Explanation:

The production of urine, and the filtration of the blood by the glomerulus is a process that depends, most of all, on the pressure that the blood comes with into the kidney´s filtering unit. When this pressure is appropriate, the glomerulus will filter out water, nitrous wastes, and other such filterable elements, so that they can be excreted in urine. However, when this pressure drops due to loss of blood volume, or an excessively high blood pressure, the kidneys themselves respond by stopping filtration and sending signals that will work to restore normal blood volume and correct hydrostatic pressure to the glomerulus. This is why hydrostatic pressure is so important in filtering of urine.

Answer:  D. Contractility of the heart muscle refers to the force of contraction that this muscle can exert.

Explanation:

The myocardial contractility is ability of the heart muscles to contract. This is achieved by the forces which develop between the contracting muscles caused by the filaments of actin and myosin.

The degree of binding of the muscle filaments dependents upon the calcium ion concentration. These actions are controlled in vivo by the sympathetic nervous system. It is driven by the release of the catecholamine, which is a process which determines the calcium ion concentration inside the cytosol of the muscles of the heart.  

The true statement is D, which states that contractility of the heart muscle refers to the force of contraction that the heart muscle can exert. Preload deals with the stretch of ventricles prior to contraction, and afterload is the resistance against which the heart pumps blood.

Among the statements provided regarding heart functionalities, D. Contractility of the heart muscle refers to the force of contraction that this muscle can exert is true. Contractility concerns the heart's power in pumping blood, directly influencing the stroke volume (SV). When discussing preload and afterload, it's essential to understand that preload is the extent to which the heart's ventricles are stretched at the end of diastole, directly before contraction. The greater the end-diastolic volume (EDV), the greater the preload, and this contributes to a more forceful contraction due to the Frank-Starling mechanism. Afterload is the pressure or resistance the heart must overcome to eject blood during systole, primarily determined by vascular resistance.

The statements provided in options A, B, and C are not accurate. The force the heart must overcome to pump blood is known as afterload, not stroke volume as suggested in statement A. Preload refers to the degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole, not the tension or pressure to pump blood (statement B). While preload and afterload are essential in cardiac dynamics, they are not the primary factors that cause the heart rate to change; they influence stroke volume (statement C).

Answer: d. all of abobe

Explanation: Hi, the answer is D.all of above.

There are many circumstances that can cause discolored teeth. Most of the time, the stains are “extrinsic,” affecting the tooth enamel alone.

An example of extrinsic discoloration is stains caused by foods or beverages. Black tea or coffee; wines, both red and white; and darkly colored foods such as beets or chocolate are prime culprits. Other foods likely to stain teeth are berries, popsicles, candies and pickles

Extrinsic stains on the teeth can be caused by food, wine, and tea, making 'all of the above' the correct answer. These substances are known for staining teeth, which underscores the need for thorough oral hygiene practices.

Extrinsic stains on the teeth can be caused by a variety of substances that we consume. These include food, wine, and tea. Each of these can contribute to discoloration on the tooth's surface, highlighting the importance of oral hygiene in preventing and managing extrinsic tooth stains.

Therefore, the correct answer to the question of what can cause extrinsic stains on the teeth is d. all of the above. Foods with intense colors, wines - especially red wine, and teas, which contain tannins, are well-known contributors to tooth staining. Brushing teeth regularly, flossing, and visiting the dentist can help manage these types of stains.

Answer:

Explanation:

The glucose molecule is broken down into three carbon sugar that is pyruvate and ATP which is an energy molecule. The ATP is required for activity of the muscles for conducting the moderate exercise.

Answer:

The correct option is: A) the coronary arteries

Explanation:

Coronary circulation is a part of the systemic circulatory system that is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood and draining the deoxygenated blood from the heart muscles.

In this circulatory system, the blood vessels responsible for supplying blood to the heart muscle, myocardium, are called coronary arteries. Whereas, the cardiac veins are responsible for draining away the deoxygenated blood from the heart muscles.

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-C.

Explanation:

Blood pressure is the amount of force blood exerts against the walls of the vessel as it moves through it.

Blood always flows from high pressure to low pressure, in arteries the blood pressure is very high but as blood reaches the capillaries and finally the veins the pressure drops.

The reduced pressure during blood flow in veins as the flow is not under control of ventricular contraction but it depends on the constriction of the smooth muscle, skeletal muscle action and the respiratory movement.

Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.

As blood moves from arteries to veins, the pressure within these vessels decreases. This is due to the increased cross-sectional area in the capillary beds and the nature of veins being low-pressure vessels carrying deoxygenated blood back to the heart.

As blood travels from arteries to veins, the pressure within the blood vessels decreases. This is because arteries are high-pressure vessels that carry oxygenated blood (except in the pulmonary circuit) from the heart to the body. As this blood moves through the circulatory system transitioning from arteries to arterioles and then to capillaries (which indeed get progressively smaller), the pressure drops. This is largely due to the increased cross-sectional area in the capillary beds. The blood then travels back to the heart via venules, which merge to form veins. Veins are low-pressure vessels that carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart (again, except in the pulmonary circuit). Hence, the correct answer is C) pressure drops.

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Answer:

A - Urinary System

The system is A. urinary system.

Urinary system has the main function of producing, eliminating, and excreting the fluid wastage created by the kidney and also helps in maintaining the blood volume and blood pressure. The urinary system helps in maintaining chemicals and water balance in the body. Kidney acts as the primary organ for the urinary system.

Kidney filters the wastes and removes excessive water from the blood, thus creating urine. Ureters helps in carrying the urine from kidney to bladder.

Answer:

The best answer to the question: Evidence suggests that individudals who are overweight actually expend more calories than persons who are of normal weight, would be, A: True.

Explanation:

In recent research studies, especially carried out in Canada, it has been found out that the general belief that obese, or overweight, people, are couch potatoes and it is because of this that they are the way they are, may be wrong. Essentially, these studies followed groups of people and compared obese vs normal-weight people and found out two things: first, obese people move more in terms of steps, than normal-weight people, and two, and most amazingly, overweight people expend more calories than normal-weight people simply because their bodies, given their sheer size, have to use more energy to simply move. Thus, these studies showed that, although not by much, individuals with problems of weight do spend a bit more calories per activity, than normal-weight people.

Answer: c. Binge-eating disorder

Explanation:

Binge is a eating disorder in which the person consumes large quantities of food often quickly and till the point the person experience discomfort due to overeating. In this eating disorder the person looses control over itself against the overeating. This leads to the condition of obesity. Other problems such as experience of shame, distress, guilt and purging to avoid the binge eating.  

Binge-eating disorder is the eating disorder associated with obesity. It is characterized by episodes of compulsive overeating without compensatory behaviors.

The eating disorder that is associated with obesity is binge-eating disorder. Binge-eating disorder is characterized by episodes of compulsive overeating, where a person consumes an excessive amount of food in a short period of time, but does not engage in compensatory behaviors like purging. This can lead to weight gain and obesity. Individuals with binge-eating disorder often experience feelings of guilt, shame, and loss of control over their eating behaviors.

Answer:

The best answer to the question: Which of the following is true regarding the general exercise prescription recommendations for weight loss, would be, D: Resistance training is a recommended supplemental component of an aerobic exercise program for those wanting to lose or maintain weight.

Explanation:

In general terms, the process of weight loss and weight maintenance is a pretty complex one because not all bodies respond in the same way, especially when it comes to training. However, in general terms, although frequency, and heart rate ranges, are important, probably the most important thing is the mixture of resistance training and aerobic exercise, in a specific range of time, to maximize the body´s capabilities of fat consumption and metabolism.

Final answer:

d) Resistance training is an important supplemental component of an aerobic exercise program for weight loss and maintenance, with recommendations suggesting at least 150 to 300 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity weekly and muscle-strengthening activities twice a week.

Explanation:

It is true that resistance training is a recommended supplemental component of an aerobic exercise program for individuals aiming to lose or maintain their weight. Combining resistance training with aerobic activity can be beneficial for weight management because while aerobic exercises help burn calories, resistance training helps to preserve and build muscle mass, which can increase metabolic rate. For effective weight loss and management, adults should aim for at least 150 to 300 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity or 75 to 150 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity per week, ideally spread throughout the week. Muscle-strengthening activities should be performed on two or more days per week. For those requiring weight loss or attempting to prevent weight regain, more than 300 minutes of weekly moderate-intensity activity may be necessary, especially if not reducing caloric intake.

Answer:

 The high nutrient and low GL (Glycemic load) food are one of the best and perfect diet food for the diabetics patient. Many conventional type of the diabetes diets helps for prevention the diabetes.

The diabetes diets must include many type of grains and meat, these are the major source of calorie for the diabetes patient. Non starch vegetables, fruits, nuts are the major food diet for the diabetes.

Sugar and refined gains are basically harmful for the diabetes patients and for preventing the diabetics.

Answer:

d. alveoli

Explanation:

Alveoli -

It is an important and crucial part of the respiratory system , the main function of alveoli is the exchange of gases ,

The structure of Alveoli is a balloon shaped air sacs , which are present in the terminating end of the bronchial branches  .

The thickness of alveoli is only one cell thick , whihc allows the exchange of gases .

Gas exchange, the lungs' main and vital function, takes place in the D. alveoli.

Gas exchange in the lungs occurs in the alveoli. Air travels through the trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles before reaching the alveoli. The alveoli are in close contact with capillaries for efficient gas exchange.

When we breathe in, air travels from the pharynx to the trachea, which then divides into the primary bronchi. The primary bronchi further branch into secondary bronchi, and eventually into smaller passages called bronchioles. At the end of the bronchioles are structures called alveolar ducts which lead to alveolar sacs. Each alveolar sac contains many alveoli, which are tiny air sacs where gas exchange occurs. The walls of the alveoli are in direct contact with capillaries, allowing oxygen to diffuse into the blood and carbon dioxide to diffuse out to be exhaled.

Answer:

The best answer to the question: Hypersecretion of cortisol can cause:___, would be, D: Addison´s disease.

Explanation:

Addison´s disease is a condition that affects the adrenal glands and it is characterized by the low production of cortisol and probably aldosterone, by the adrenal glands. This disease is believed to happen for several possible reasons, two of which, are: immune attacks to the adrenal glands, in developed countries, and tuberculosis, in underdeveloped ones. However, there can also be other reasons for why the adrenal glands would not produce enough cortisol. The absence of cortisol will impact almost all systems of the body, and when the production is very low, it can cause what is known as adrenal crises. Addison´s disease will be treated with corticosteroids such as hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone.

Answer:

The best answer to the question: The epicardium:____, would be, A: Covers the surface of the heart.

Explanation:

The heart is an organ whose function is absolutely vital to the entire body. Because of its vitality, and also its vulnerability and fragility, this organ is thus highly protected by mostly the chest cavity with its bone strcutures, its fat content and most of all, by layers of different types that cover both the all-important myocardium (the layers responsible for the contraction of the heart) and the endocardium (the layer that covers the chambers and inner parts of the main blood vessels). Going from the inside out, after the myocardium, the heart is covered with a double layer, one serous and the other fibrous, which are separated by a cavity filled with fluid. The first, and serous layer, is the one that protects the myocardium, produces the pericardial fluid which protects the heart from sudden impact and sudden changes in the chest cavity and contains the coronary vessels. This layer is known as the epicardium. The pericardium is the outtermost fibrous layer, after the epicardium, and it is the one that anchors the heart to the chest wall, and other organs.

Answer:

Explanation:

The performance improvement programs are observed, monitored, also the result based activities in which the employees are expected to perform better under this program.

The 4 reasons for the evaluation of the performance improvement evaluation are as follows:

1. The plan provides a detail feedback, that helps in recognizing the performance.

2. Cause employs to remain engaged in the set goals.

3. It emphasis for thanking the employees for performing their goals.

4.  It allows the check in of the overall progress of goals and duties which can help in scrutinize the program.  

The questions that should be answered in Performance improvement evaluation process  are as follows:

1. To give an idea to the employee to improve the performance in the future.

2. To address and justifies the termination policy for the staff employees. 3. It identifies the reason for poor performance.

3. To justify the warning actions against any employ.  

4. To justify the termination of the staff from the employment.

Answer:

The correct answer is b. All of these conditions can be caused by sexually transmitted infections.

Explanation:

Inflammation of urethra is called urethritis which is mostly caused by bacterial infection. Neisseria gonorrhea and is the most common bacterial cause of urethritis. It is mostly transmitted sexually.

Prostatitis is the condition in which prostate gland swells due to sexually transmitted bacterial infection like Neisseria gonorrhea or Chlamydia.

Epididymis is a hollow tube that carries the sperm from the testes. When this tube swells due to bacterial infection mostly from Neisseria gonorrhea or Chlamydia then the condition is called epididymitis. Orchiditis is the swelling of testes due to epididymitis.

Thus, all can be transmitted sexually so the correct answer is b. All of these conditions can be caused by sexually transmitted infections.

Answer:

The best answer to the question: Which of the following statements is true, would be, D: the 16 cell stage through 100 cell stage is called the Zygote.

Explanation:

The topic of human fertilization, the process by which an oocyte and sperm join together to form a new human being, is pretty complex. The first thing that must be kept in mind about this process is: first, it is only the oocyte that has been arrested in Meiosis II, which will be completed once fertilization occurs; the sperm is a mature gamete, and has completed its Meiosis stages by the time it fertilizes the egg. Second, Meiosis I is completed in the oocyte, it is Meiosis II, which is completed upon fertilization. Sperm is produced on a daily basis by a man´s testes after puberty and eyaculation can come from both testes at the same time, or from one of them. However, the one statement that is true, is the last one: a zygote is the first name that the newly formed human being receives as its cells begin to replicate through mitosis, while it travels towards the endometrium, where it will implant. At this stage, the mitotic divisions will render between 16 to around more than 100 cells.

Answer:

epiglottis

Explanation:

The epiglottis is a cartilaginous structure located in the throat, behind the tongue that allows the passage of air into the trachea, it behaves like a hatch that opens every time that an individual breathes, but closes when the individual eats, avoiding the passage of food from the pharynx into the airways.

Answer:

C. Prevents the development of female internal reproductive organs in an XY male.

Explanation:

Antimüllerian hormone, also known as Mullerian inhibiting hormone, is a protein responsible for preventing the formation of Müllerian ducts in a male embryo (XY). Müllerian ducts, also known as paramesonephric ducts, are structures that are present in the embryo and give rise to female internal genitals if they are a girl or remain in their vestigial form if they are a boy. This vestigial form, which is formed in boys, is caused by the presence of antimullerian hormone.

Answer:

The answer to the question: Another name for urinary tract infection is:___, would be: cystitis.

Explanation:

Urinary tract infections (UTIs), are also known as cystitis. These infections are most commonly caused by colonization of the urinary tract by bacteria from the GI tract due to wrong hygiene procedures, certain sexual activities, among other reasons, and sometimes, they can be repetitive and very difficult to treat. Cystitis, or unrinary tract infections are most common in women, given the closeness to the anus, and also, because of the use of tight clothing, and certain pads that enhance heat, humidity and also access from the anus to the urethra. Once the bacteria are inside the urethra, they ascend, invade and colonize mostly the urethra and bladder, and thus cause this form of infection. A more complicated form is a renal infection, in which, the bacteria that originally colonized the lower urinary tract, ascend so far as to reach the kidneys themselves.

Answer:

Folate is bused to treat vitamin B12  deficiency.

Vitamin B12  deficiency causes anemia that affects neurological system and higher level of folate helps in preventing anemia by preventing deterioration of brain cells.

In B12 deficiency, folate cycle get disrupted that affects regeneration of methylene-tetrahydrofolate which is  required for the synthesis of thymidine for DNA replication. Folate is trapped as methylfolate and causes folate deficiency which demands for the supply of folic acid.Folic acid is recommended to a B12-deficient patient, as it allows the reduction of folic acid to dihydrofolate and  further to tetrahydrofolate which removes the blockage of folate. this helps in the masking of brain cells to get deteriorate due to deficiency of B12.  

Like this Folate can mask vitamin B12 Deficiency.

High folate levels can mask vitamin B12 deficiency by compensating for B12's role in the methionine synthesis pathway, reducing homocysteine levels but not preventing neurological damage from B12 deficiency.

Folate supplementation can mask a vitamin B12 deficiency because both vitamins are crucial in the methionine synthesis pathway. Folate participates in the conversion of homocysteine to methionine, a process which also requires vitamin B12 as a cofactor. When folate levels are high, the body can compensate for a lack of B12 and reduce the associated high levels of homocysteine, thus masking the hematological symptoms of B12 deficiency, which can lead to megaloblastic anemia. However, this masking effect does not alleviate the potential neurological damage caused by B12 deficiency. Adequate intake of both vitamins is vital; B12 sources include liver, egg, meat, and fish, while folate is found in foods like liver, eggs, and leafy vegetables.

Answer: E. All of the above are correct/true.

Explanation:

The homeostasis is the process of maintenance of the internal environment of the body in constant and stable state as compared to the outer environment.  

The homeostatic control mechanism has three interdependent components that are receptor, a control center, effector and sensor. For receptor it can be said that it is the sensing component of the body that monitors as well as responds to the changes in the environment. The receptor can be in the form of thermoreceptors, chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors which have different associated functions.  

The control center is the center which exhibit a feedback system that distinguishes the value of the system to the normal range for a particular stimulus. If the value deviates from the set point, then the control center is responsible for activating the effector.

The effector is a part of feedback system it causes a change and return the value to the normal range.

The sensor is also called as the receptor. It is also the part of the feedback system. It's function is to monitor the physiological value. This is the value which is reported to the control center.

Answer:

E

Explanation:all of the above

Answer:

The best answer to the question: When the corpus luteum degenerates:___, would be, E: All of the above.

Explanation:

The process of human female reproduction is a very complex one. But center in it is the corpus luteum, a structure that develops from a follicle in the ovaries and which will be responsible for producing estrogens and progesterones to maintain pregnany in case there is egg fertilization, or, the dismantling of everything by decaying and thus stopping the outpour of these  gonadal steroids. When fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum, by producing estrogen and progestorone, inhibits the further production of LH and FSH, and thus the entire process for a successful pregnancy takes place. But when this does not occur, LH and FSH increase again, progesterone, most especially, decreases, and as a result, the endometrium, which had been prepared for implantation, sloughs off. This is why the answer is E.

Answer: c. bleeding, attachment loss, sulcus depth of >4 mm

Explanation:

Periodontitis is a serious infection of gum. It causes the damage of soft tissues and also destroy the bones that support the teeth.

This disease can cause loosening of teeth. But it is commonly preventable. It is because of poor hygiene of mouth. It results in bleeding of gums. It also results in decrease in depth of sulcus to 4mm.

Answer:

The dermis is the second layer of the skin that protects the human body from stress and strain. It is found between the epidermis and the hypodermis or the subcutaneous tissues.

The dermis layer is composed of two layers: papillary dermis and reticular dermis.

The reticular dermis is the thick layer of the dermis, composed of the dense irregular connective tissues. It contains of elastic protein fibers that makes the skin stretchable and elastic (able to rebound).

Therefore, the reticular dermis makes the skin stretchable and elastic (able to rebound).

Answer:

Hematuria is the presence of blood in he urine. Blood can get into the urine because an infection or as it is usual, kidney stones. It could be annormal but not necessary.

Answer:

The best answer to the question: Culturing bacteria from the oral cavity in a dish in the laboratory is an example of what type of study? Would be, B: In vitro.

Explanation:

When talking about culturing of either bacteria or another type of microorganisms, it is important to know what is the purpose of this culturing, in order to select the best study methods. In the case of oral cavity bacteria, the best way to stdy them is through something called a closed system, or, the use of a petri dish and agar as a medium, with nutrients to make the bacteria present in the dental biofilm, to grow in a controlled manner. In this system, all variables are controlled and the purposes are very clear, which makes the use of this closed system much more efficient than more open ones, such as in vivo studies. This closed system of research for mouth bacteria is an example of in vitro studies, where inside a petri dish, with nutritious agar, and controlled variables, or a test tube, these bacteria are encouraged to grow, but it makes it easy for the scientist to predict exactly what will happen and what the outcome might be.

Culturing bacteria in a dish in the laboratory is an example of an in vitro study, which signifies experiments conducted in a controlled environment outside of a living organism.

Culturing bacteria from the oral cavity in a dish in the laboratory is an example of an in vitro study. The term in vitro is Latin for 'in glass', referring to the glassware traditionally used in the laboratory setting. These types of studies are performed outside of a living organism, in a controlled environment like a petri dish or test tube. This is in contrast to in vivo studies, which are performed inside a living organism, and in situ studies, which are conducted in the original location where the subject or condition occurs.

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Answer:

The Trachea

Explanation:

The oral cavity aids in the transport of air when may be obstruction in the nasal cavity.

The Rib cage aids in the movements of respiratory inspiration and expiration  through the intercostal muscles and other estructures.

The Diaphragm aids in the regulation of the respiratory movements and the input and output of air into the lungs.

The Trachea is actually a main passage of air to the bronchi and then to the lungs, so it is not an accessory structure, it is a main structure needed for the process of respiration.