Answer:
somatic motor neuron hyperexcitability; inhibition
The neuronal circuitry to skeletal muscles involves neurons that stimulate contractions and those that inhibit contractions. The muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are involved in maintaining the proper muscle tonus (resting muscle tension); they work by signaling the CNS. Since tetanus involves SOMATIC MOTOR NEURON HYPEREXCITABILITY, the neurons involved in muscle contraction INHIBITION are affected.
Explanation:
Tetanus is a infection that is caused by a bacteria called Clostridium tetani. It occurs when open wounds in the body are not properly treated and they get infected. This wound can be caused by stepping on a nail or sharp object like broken bottle.
When tetanus enters an open wound present on the body, it attacks the neurons in the body, specifically the somatic motor neurons. Tetanus hinders the release of neurotransmitters and blocks the inhibitory properties of the muscles. These causes the muscles of the body to contract unhindered and uncontrollably resulting in spasms. This can also be referred to as neuronal hyperexcitabilty.
Answer:
1) Somatic motor neuron hyperexcitability 2) inhibition
Explanation:
Tetanus is infection caused by the toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium tetani. The tetanus injections are highly recommended whenever a person got injured like on bike accident because it entered the body by break in skin.
Tetanus toxin is transported to spinal cord by binding to presynaptic membrane of neuromuscular junction. Tetanus blocks the neurotransmitter ( GABA and glycine) release from inhibitory neuron which causes the continuous hyperexcitability of motor neuron. So The motor neurons keeps on exiting because inhibitory neurons are unable to release neurotransmitter and this conditions interferes with muscles relaxation.
It may cause fever, headache, breathing problem and bone fracture.
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique requires
Answer:
A partner
Explanation:
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique is a stretching technique that is aimed at rehabilitating or restoring back to health the proprioceptors present in the body also known as sensory organs of the muscles and tendons, bones and joints of the body
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique uses stretching techniques involving contraction and relaxation to achieve a maximum flexibility of the muscular system of the body.
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique is always done or carried out with a partner or a trainer.
Answer:
The proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique requires organic proprioceptors
Explanation:
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation techniques are therapeutic methods used in order to obtain specific responses of the neuromuscular system from the stimulation of organic proprioceptors.
Walking along a beach, you find a section of an adult gray whale's vertebral column with three vertebrae. You saw one of the vertebra in half, revealing a hard outer layer of _____ forming the wall, and a network of _____ with _____ in the center.
Answer:
Walking along a beach, you find a section of an adult gray whale's vertebral column with three vertebrae. You saw one of the vertebra in half, revealing a hard outer layer of compact bone forming the wall, and a network of spongy bone with trabeculae in the center.
Explanation:
The harder structures of a skeleton are made by the compact bone. Compact bones are dense and rigid. They are non-porous.Spongy bones are porous bones which are covered by the compact bones as they themselves are not hard. They are also known as cancellous bones.
Trabeculae are thin plates which give a spongy structure to the spongy bones. The trabeculae are present in the center of the spongy bones.
Habituation refers to the __________.
a. awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived.
b. decreasing responsiveness to a stimulus to which one is repeatedly exposed.
c. adjustment of current thinking to make sense of new information.
d. the tendency to gaze longer at face-like images.
Answer:
Habituation refers to the adjustment of current thinking to make sense of new information.
Explanation:
Final answer:
Habituation is the process where there is a decrease in response to a repeatedly presented stimulus, with no rewards or punishments associated with it, and is a form of learning that is long-lasting.
Explanation:
Habituation refers to the decreasing responsiveness to a stimulus to which one is repeatedly exposed. Therefore, the correct answer is (b). This form of learning is seen across various species and is not due to fatigue or sensory adaptation. An example of habituation can be observed when a dog stops responding to a repetitive sound after learning that it has no significant consequence. The process of habituation is long-lasting, and it is considered one of the simplest forms of learning, highlighting an organism's ability to filter out repetitive, inconsequential stimuli over time.
After watching the squirrels at the local park for several days, Sergei asks his science teacher the following question: "Do more squirrels live in maple trees or oak trees in the city park?”
Is Sergei's question a scientific question? Why or why not?
Answer:
Sergei's question is a scientific question because it is based on observations and could be answered through an investigation. His question may lead to a testable hypothesis.
Answer:
Sample Response: Sergei's question is a scientific question because it is based on observations and could be answered through an investigation. His question has a narrow focus, addresses a gap in his knowledge, and may lead to a hypothesis that can be tested.
The four pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood to this chamber. What is this chamber?
The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the four pulmonary veins.
Explanation:The chamber that receives oxygenated blood from the four pulmonary veins is the left atrium.
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Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors a. act to stabilize the mood swings of those with bipolar disorder b. were the first antidepressants to be developed c. may lead to sexual problems d. are more effective than tricyclic antidepressants
Answer:
B
Explanation:
SSRI stands for Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor. SSRI antidepressants are a type of antidepressant that work by increasing levels of serotonin within the brain.
(a) Describe the importance of phenotypic variation in louse body color among individuals in a population of lice.
Answer:
In parasitic insects such as lice, the melanism is an evolutionary strategy of adaptive significance
Explanation:
In lice, different body colors represent an adaptive advantage because this feature should enable them to host on different hair colors and be undetected by the host. Therefore, different colors confer to this species the capacity to survive in different types of environments (i.e., hair colors)
The importance of phenotypic variations withinside the louse frame shade at on amongst people in a population of lice is the variety in phenotypes that exists in a population.
What is the phenotypic variation?Phenotypic variation is essential as it became letting them mixed in with the pigeon’s feathers. In parasitic bugs together with lice, melanism is the evolutionary method of adaptive significance. In Lice, constitute an adaptive gain due to the fact this option ought to permit them to host on unique hair colors and be undetected via way of means of the host.
Therefore, unique colors confer to this species the capability to live to tell the tale in unique styles of environments. (ex. hair colors)
Phenotypes are the developments or traits of organisms that we are able to observe, together with size, shade at on, form capabilities, behaviors, etc. Not all phenotypes can truly be seen.
For example-humans are available in all shapes and sizes: height, weight, and frame shapes are phenotypes that vary Hair, eye, shade at on, and the potential to roll your tongue is variable phenotypes. All organisms could have phenotype variations.
Therefore, the phenotypic variation is essential in the louse frame shade at on.
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Describe how
Changes to genes can affect the traits of organisms
Changes to genes, such as mutations, can alter the sequence of DNA, leading to variations in proteins produced, ultimately impacting the traits of organisms.
Changes to genes, whether through mutations, genetic recombination, or other genetic mechanisms, can profoundly impact the traits of organisms. Genes are segments of DNA that encode instructions for the synthesis of proteins, which are the building blocks of cells and the functional molecules that carry out biological processes.
Mutations, which are alterations in the DNA sequence, are a primary driver of genetic variation. Mutations can occur spontaneously due to errors in DNA replication, exposure to mutagenic agents such as radiation or certain chemicals, or through natural processes like transposon activity. These changes can result in different forms of alleles, the alternative versions of a gene, which may lead to variations in traits.
Mutations can have various effects on genes and subsequently on organismal traits. Some mutations may be silent, meaning they do not alter the amino acid sequence of the resulting protein and therefore have no discernible effect on phenotype. Other mutations, however, can lead to changes in protein structure or function, which may impact the organism's traits in diverse ways. For instance, a mutation may enhance or diminish the activity of an enzyme, affecting metabolic pathways and physiological processes.
Genetic recombination, which occurs during sexual reproduction, is another mechanism that contributes to genetic diversity. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material through crossing over, resulting in the shuffling of alleles between chromosomes. This process generates new combinations of alleles, leading to offspring with novel genetic compositions and potentially unique traits.
The effects of changes to genes on organismal traits can be influenced by various factors, including gene interactions, environmental conditions, and genetic drift. Additionally, the nature of the gene and the specific mutation or recombination event can determine the extent of phenotypic variation. In some cases, changes to genes may confer advantages, increasing an organism's fitness in its environment and leading to evolutionary adaptation. Conversely, deleterious mutations may result in decreased fitness or even lethality, affecting the survival and reproductive success of individuals.
Overall, changes to genes play a fundamental role in shaping the diversity of traits observed within and among species, driving evolution and contributing to the complexity and adaptability of life on Earth.
Complete Question:
Describe how Changes to genes can affect the traits of organisms
The ________ routes air and food into their proper channels and plays a role in speech.
Answer:
Larynx
Explanation:
The Larynx is an organ of the body located at the anterior of the neck. It is also called the glottis or the voice box. The larynx is the air passageway or structure that connects to the trachea, it directs air into the lung and hence aids breathing. This organ is responsible for sound production, breathing and helps to prevent pulmonary aspiration. The larynx comprises of the vocal folds which plays an important role in speech and singing; in making of sounds the larynx muscle regulate the tension and the length of the vocal folds in order to tune the tone and the voice pitches.
Answer:
Larynx
Explanation:
Larynx is also called voice box.
It is an organ that is in tube like shape which is long and about 2.5cm. it is located above the wind pipe or trachea in the neck and food pipe. It houses the vocal folds and manipulate pitch and volume.
It is responsible for breathing, it route air and food in proper direction and protect the trachea against food aspiration.
5. The measurement of the amount of friction a surface will generate is called the
of friction'.
j
Answer:
g bmbb.
mom b km
bmIb
m v vbb n bbk
8 m
c
Explanation:
lv..l
mm. n
bl
np
gbm.m.
.
..jxbt98 b. vvCheck all the characteristics below that describe
elements
one type of atom
a pure substance
more than one type of atom
chemically combined elements
Answer:
The Answer your looking for is A and B
A-one type of atom
B- a pure substance
Explanation:
__________
_____________
The characteristics below that describe elements are: one type of atom and a pure substance. The correct options are A and B.
What is an element?An element is a kind of atom that contain a specific amount of protons in its nuclei, and they can be a pure species. Chemical elements can be divided any further.
It is clear that the elements are pure substances, and they are one type of atom.
Thus, options A and B are correct regarding the characteristics of elements.
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Which of the following is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food, digestion, or absorption? a) large intestine b) the oral cavity c) the small intestine d) the esophagus
Answer: My answer is the esophagus
Explanation: The esophagus is basically a fibromuscular tube that helps food get from the pharynx all the way into the stomach. I hope this could help a bit!
We have that for the Question, it can be said that the esophagus is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food
the esophagus
Option D
From the question we are told
Which of the following is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food, digestion, or absorption?
a) large intestine
b) the oral cavity
c) the small intestine
d) the esophagus
Generally
A brielf summary of digestion will be
The oral cavity breaks down food to bits It moves through the esophagusAnd is further broken down and absorbs in the large intestine and the small intestineTherefore
the esophagus is least involved in the mechanical breakdown of food
Option D
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You have just finished a really long workout at the gym. You are sweating quite a bit and feel thirsty. You have lost a lot of water and some ions while sweating. In response to decreased Na+ in body fluids (Na+ depletion), your kidneys will _____ renin secretion. decrease increase stop
Answer:
increase
Explanation:
As water and ions are lost through exercise, overall blood volume can decrease. To maintain adequate blood volume and blood pressure, renin is secreted to help in the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. This will cause vessels to constrict and sodium and water to be retained by the kidneys.
Final answer:
The kidneys will increase renin secretion in response to decreased Na⁺ in body fluids. This is due to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which restores Na⁺ balance and blood pressure by increasing aldosterone release, leading to reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys.
Explanation:
In response to decreased Na⁺ in body fluids (Na⁺ depletion), your kidneys will increase renin secretion. This is because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) which is crucial for regulating blood pressure and fluid balance. When there is a decrease in blood volume, blood pressure, or specifically, Na⁺ levels, the kidneys release more renin. This leads to the formation of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor that also stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands.
Aldosterone plays a key role in directing the kidneys to reabsorb sodium, which in turn causes water to be reabsorbed, thus increasing blood volume and blood pressure. The responses to aldosterone help to restore Na⁺ balance and normalize blood pressure.
Which ecosystem would scientists consider to be the most stable?
A :a coral reef that is fished by native people several times a day
B : atropical rainforest that is being cut down to make room for farmland
C : a temperate forest where all the tree trunks have been damaged by beetles.
D :a savanna that retains the same number of species even when a drought occurs
Answer:
B : atropical rainforest that is being cut down to make room for farmland
Explanation:
Identify the transformations of energy that take place in the diagram. Assume the girl in the diagram eats the corn to gain the energy to ride the bike.
chemical energy
to kinetic energy
gravitational potential
energy to kinetic
energy
radiant energy
to chemical energy
kinetic energy to
gravitational
potential energy
Answer: 1 gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy, 2 kinetic energy to gravitational potential energy ,3 chemical energy to kinetic energy ,4
radiant energy to chemical energy
Explanation:
for the diagram on plato read left to right
The transformation of energy that takes place is in the following sequence:
1. radiant energy to chemical energy.
2. chemical energy to kinetic energy.
3. kinetic energy to gravitational potential energy.
4. gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy.
What is the transformation of energy?Transformation of energy is the transfer of energy from one form to another form. There are different types of energy are present, they are just transformed from one type to another.
Here, the sun's energy is transformed into chemical energy for food, then bicycling converts that food's energy into kinetic and so on.
The picture is attached below:
Thus, the sequence of transformation of energy is:
1. radiant energy to chemical energy.
2. chemical energy to kinetic energy.
3. kinetic energy to gravitational potential energy.
4. gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy.
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A computer crossmatch requires that an ABO phenotype be performed on the current specimen and a second phenotype must be performed or available for confirmation of the blood type. The recipient must be negative for clinically significant antibodies both with current sample and historically.
True / False.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
A computer cross match checks the compatibility of the final ABO in selecting units instead of serologic procedures.
The recipient must not have antibodies or history of it.
Barcodes are used in providing other safety measures. The computer provides the signal to show if the recipient is eligible or not for a computer cross match.
A computer cross match is a computerised way of analysing the compatibility of a donor's cell type with that of the serum or plasma type of the person receiving it. This process is aimed at ensuring that blood sample used for transfusion is compatible with that of the person meant to receive it.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Crossmatch or compatibility testing is basically performed to check the compatibility of donor blood (RBCs) to the recipient to prevent the transfusion reaction and to maximize the in-vivo survival of transfused RBCs.
Computer cross match is to counter check the donor blood sample phenotype and recipient phenotype along with any previous transfusion history with antibodies (recipient must not have antibodies against the phenotype of donor blood).
Another feature of computer crossmatch is bar coding. Bar codes detects the recipients eligibility or ineligibility for computer crossmatch by tagging or flag.
In a population of bison,the birth rate over one year is fourteen.No bison immigrate into the population that year. Twenty bison die during the harsh winter, and ten more leave the population in search of more food.What has occurred in this population over one year?The size of the population has increased.The size of he population has decreased.The size of the population has remained the same.
( 1 ) The size of the population has increased.
( 2 ) The size of the population has decreased.
( 3 )The size of the population has remained the same.
Answer:
The population has decreased. (2)
Explanation:
if the birth rate is 14 and no bison immigrate into the population and the death rate and emigration rate add up to 30, then the population has decreased a total of 16 bison
Answer: B
Explanation:
Just confirming!
Before leaving the nucleus, the pre-mRNA transcript formed through transcription undergoes a series of enzyme-regulated modifications. Part of the process is illustrated below. Without this modification, why would mRNA be translated into a nonfunctional protein?
Explanation:
Before leaving the nucleus, the pre-mRNA transcript formed through transcription undergoes a series of enzyme-regulated modifications which includes: 5'capping,splicing,3' cleavage(polyadenylation) and RNA editing
5' capping is the first modification event in the pre mRNA that occurs after 20-30 nucleotide addition,in capping a 7 methyl guanosine(cap) is added to the 5' end of pre-mRNASplicing is the second modification event of pre-mRNA occurs in nucleus just after transcription but before the RNA moves to the cytoplasmIn RNA splicing non coding regions of pre-mRNA called introns are removed and coding regions called exons are religated If this modification does not occur then introns will be copied from DNA that will interrupt the genetic codeMost of mature eukaryotic mRNA have 50-250 adenine residue at the 3'end called Poly A tailThese nucleotides are not encoded by the genome but are added after transcription,process is called polyadenylationPolyadenylation is both template and primer independent process catalysed by polyadenylate polymerase and protects mRNA from exonuclease at 3'end RNA editing is defined as the change of nucleotide sequence of RNA which is carried out in two different ways: site specific base modification and insertional or deletion type of RNA editing
Answer:
Introns are regions of pre-mRNA copied from DNA that interrupt the genetic code.Explanation:
1. DNA is first transcribed into pre-mRNA, then this pre-mRNA further go series of modification, like 5' capping, 3' polyadenylation and RNA splicing.
2. Through splicing, introns are removed and exons are joined together to form a mature RNA known as mRNA.
3. If without these modifications, RNA is translated, it would encode non-functional protein because all the codons in the pre-mRNA would translated and introns would code a non-functional protein.
When an odorant binds to an olfactory receptor, a cascade event triggers a cellular response, and the organism is able to detect smells. Use the diagram of this process to respond:
A diagram representing the initial cellular response when an odorant molecule binds to a receptor protein. The diagram shows the sequence of events from 1 - the odorant molecule binds to the receptor protein, 2 - the active adenylate cyclase occurs, 3 - the cAMP released opens the active Na+ and Ca2+ channel, 4 - the Ca 2+ ions enter the cell, 5 - the Ca 2+ opens the Cl- channel, 6 - the Ca2+ allows the Na+ to leave via the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger.
© 2012 FLVS
Using the information in the diagram, what is the primary reason the cascade event is occurring in the cell?
ATP is available to provide energy.
There is a greater concentration of calcium ion inside the cell.
There is only one type of receptor protein.
The receptor protein is specific for the odorant molecule.
Answer:
The receptor protein is specific for the oderant molecule
Final answer:
The cascade event is primarily triggered because the receptor protein on the olfactory cell is specific to the odorant molecule. This specificity initiates a signaling cascade involving cAMP and the opening of ion channels, culminating in a cellular response for smell detection.
Explanation:
The primary reason the cascade event is occurring in the cell is because the receptor protein is specific for the odorant molecule. This specificity ensures that when an odorant binds to its corresponding olfactory receptor, a series of intracellular events is triggered, starting with the activation of a G-protein and leading to the production of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) as a second messenger. The cAMP then opens sodium and calcium channels, allowing the influx of calcium ions which further open chloride channels and initiate the sodium/calcium exchange process. This cascade results in a cellular response that enables the organism to detect smells.
The process involves several important steps, each amplifying the signal to cause a significant cellular response from a single molecule of odorant. This includes the activation of protein kinases and other intracellular pathways that lead to physiological responses such as the generation of an action potential.
A nursing student is learning about newborn congenital defects. The defect with symptoms that include a shiny scalp, dilated scalp veins, a bulging anterior fontanelle, and eyes pushed downward with the sclerae visible above the irises is which defect?
Answer:
The correct answer is hydrocephalus.
Explanation:
The accumulation of fluid within the cavities deep inside the brain is termed as hydrocephalus. This fluid build-up enhances the size of the ventricles and imparts pressure on the brain. This condition eventually makes the head appear larger than normal with broadening cranial sutures. With the enlargement of the head, the distinction of suture lines takes place, creating the spaces through the scalp.
The skull increases in size, the anterior fontanelle bulges and becomes tense, and the dilation of veins takes place. In certain conditions, with more increase in pressure, the eyes seem to get pushed slightly downward and the sclerae appear over the irises.
What are the three domains of life?
Plantae, Animalia, and Fungi
class, kingdom, and phylum
Eubacteria, family, and Eukarya
Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
The three domains of life are Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. These cater to different types of life forms based on their cell structure and environments. Bacteria and Archaea are prokaryotes, while Eukarya includes animals, plants, and fungi.
Explanation:The three domains of life are Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. These domains are a way of grouping life on Earth and are above the Kingdom level in taxonomic ranking. Bacteria and Archaea include various prokaryotic microorganisms, but Archaea are often found in extreme environments. Eukarya consists of organisms whose cells have a nucleus enclosed within membranes, including animals, plants, and fungi, among others.
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Below is the double-stranded DNA sequence of part of a hypothetical yeast genome. Within this sequence is a small gene, PICO8, that codes for an 8 amino-acid peptide (assume traditional start codon). Transcription of PICO8 starts at the Transcription Start Site (TSS) after the promoter and proceeds in the direction of the arrow. Transcription stops at the end of the transcription terminator.
5' - CTATAAAGAGCCATGCATATCTAGATAGTAGGCTCTGAGAATTTATCTCACT - 3
3 - GATATTTCTCGGTACGTATAGATCTATCATCCGAGACTCTTAA ATAGAGTGA - 5
promoter terminator
Which strand of DNA is the CODING strand? (TOP OF BOTTOM?) Select only ONE answer choice.
A. Top
B. Bottom
C. Either can serve as the codong strand
D. There isn't enough information to determine which is the coding strand
Answer:
D. There isn't enough information to determine which is the coding strand
Explanation:
In this protein, it would be necessary to observe a start codon (ATG) and one-stop codon (either TAA, TAG, or TGA) which should be separated by six (6) intern codons. It is not observable this nucleotide sequence in any of both DNA strands.
Transcription and Translation are the two steps of the central dogma, in which genetic information from the DNA is converted into the RNA, then a long chain of polypeptides.
The correct answer is:
Option A. Top
In the given sequence of the hypothetical yeast genome, the PlCO8 gene codes for a small peptide chain of 8 amino acids.
The transcription starts from the traditional start site, in which the nucleotides in the template strand are converted into the corresponding base pair in the mRNA.
In the given sequences of nucleotides, the coding strands will be the strand that runs in the direction of 5'-3'.
The codes from the coding strand are then transcribed into the mRNA, followed by the translation.
Therefore, option A is correct.
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Pathogenic bacteria that succeed in penetrating the wall of the large intestine into the blood circulation are removed or destroyed by
Explanation:
Polarized intestinal epithelial cells (IEC), as well as the resident microflora, provide a barrier that guards against microbial invasionThe necessity for the epithelium to maintain an intact barrier between lumen bacteria and the lamina propria is exemplified by the consequences after the barrier function is alteredImpairment of the barrier function of the intestinal epithelium may be a predominant mechanism in the pathogenesis of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)is paint a solution
Answer:
A paint is either colloid suspension or colloid. In the paint, the pigment is dispersed in the solvent solution but they are not dissolved in it. In oil paints, the hydrocarbon oil is the binding medium which is dissolved in a solution. In Water-based paints the solvent is water.
Explanation:
The suspension is a mixture of two substances where one is dispersed in the other. Particles in suspension can be seen with the naked eyes.
Colloids are a homogeneous mixture of two or more components where particles are not visible to the naked eyes.
No, paint is not a solution.
What is a solution?A solution refers to a combination of two or more substances that form a mixture. This occurs when one substance is dissolved in another with the dissolved substance known as the solute and the substance that dissolves it called the solvent. In a solution the solute particles are evenly spread throughout the solvent.
Paint however is a mix of pigments, resins and solvents. In paint the pigments are not uniformly spread throughout the solvent. Instead they are suspended within it which means that they are surrounded by molecules but not fully dissolved.
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The main job of erythrocytes, or red blood cells, is to
transport what to supply to cells?
Answer:
Oxygen
Explanation:
Answer:
oxygen
Explanation:
The main job of red blood cells, or erythrocytes, is to carry oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues and carbon dioxide as a waste product, away from the tissues and back to the lungs. Hemoglobin (Hgb) is an important protein in the red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to all parts of our body.
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What evidence BEST supports the presence of atmospheric oxygen 2.7 billion years ago?
A) organic material in meteorites
B) layered iron rust in rocks
C) fossils found in stomatolites
D) carbon 14 in plants
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Answer:
D) carbon 14 in plants
Explanation:
Plants fix atmospheric carbon during photosynthesis, so the level of 14C in plants and animals when they die approximately equals the level of 14C in the atmosphere at that time. However, it decreases thereafter from radioactive decay, allowing the date of death or fixation to be estimated.
A desert ecosystem shows many examples of interactions between biotic and abiotic parts. Describe two biotic and two abiotic parts of the desert ecosystem. Choose one biotic and one abiotic part of the desert ecosystem, and explain the interaction between the two parts.
Answer:
Biotic Cacti, snakes, cayote, rats
Abiotic Sand, earth, water, caves
Explanation:
Snakes which are biotic live some caves (abiotic)
A desert ecosystem shows many examples of interactions between biotic and abiotic parts and the Biotic components are Cacti, snakes, cayote, rats and the abiotic components are sand, earth, water, caves.
What is abiotic factor?As we know that our environment is madeup of two components biotic component and abiotic component and the factors which are living are known as biotic components and the factors which are not living are known as abiotic components.So, the non living components are known as abiotic factors and these are sunlight, air etc.
Biodiversity has been consist of all the different kinds of the life living in a particular area like the variety of the animals, plants, fungi and microorganisms like bacteria and virus that plays a the major role in the framing of natural world usually three levels of biodiversity are observed and these are genetic species, and ecosystem diversity.
Therefore, A desert ecosystem shows many examples of interactions between biotic and abiotic parts and the Biotic components are Cacti, snakes, cayote, rats and the abiotic components are sand, earth, water, caves.
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Mycorrhizae:
A. are vital for the survival of lichens
B. are vital for the survival of many plants
C. increase the absorptive ability of roots.
D. are used in the production of wine, beer, and bread
E. are vital for the survival of many plants AND increase the absorptive ability of roots.
Answer:the correct answer would be c
Explanation:I just did it
The lionfish is a venomous fish found primarily in the Red Sea and the Indian Ocean. In the 1990s, lionfish were accidentally released into the Atlantic Ocean, where they found abundant resources and favorable environmental conditions. Which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in the lionfish having a major impact on the communities into which they were introduced?
A. With no natural predators, the lionfish population will become very large
B. Some native species of invertebrates will develop a resistance to lionfish venom
C. Random mating will allow the lionfish population to reach Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
D. A virus that specifically infects lionfish will become more prevalent
The Red Sea and the Indian Ocean are the main habitats for the venomous lionfish.
Thus, Lionfish were unintentionally discharged into the Atlantic Ocean in the 1990s, where they discovered an abundance of resources and a conducive environment.
If there are no natural predators, the population of lionfish will soar.
After being introduced to a favourable setting where the lack of predators and the presence of other advantageous conditions will enable their growth to accelerate exponentially.
Thus, The Red Sea and the Indian Ocean are the main habitats for the venomous lionfish.
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The is the sac-like structure that holds the testes is called
Answer:
The scrotum
Explanation: It is a loose sac which contains the 2 testes. Both the testes are attached to a cord-like structure called spermatic cord which contains testicular artery, vein, nerve and also vas deferens tube which takes sperms from the testes into the penile urethra.