Answers
Option(C)- Oxidation of NADH to NAD+H
Explanation:In glycolysis at the step between formation of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde from glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, NAD+H is reduced to form NADH(where NAD stands for nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide) which means a hydrogen atom is added in NAD forming NADH.This enters in elecron transport chain (etc) in mitochondrial membrane which ultimately helps in production of ATP.Hence all other options are true except option C.Result: Therefore option C is the correct answer.
Final answer:
The incorrect step in the sequence of glycolysis from glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 3-phosphoglycerate is the oxidation of NADH to NAD+, as this step actually involves the reduction of NAD+ to NADH.
Explanation:
The steps of glycolysis in which glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is converted to 3-phosphoglycerate include several biochemical reactions. Among them, oxidation where NAD+ is reduced to NADH, the phosphorylation adding a phosphate group (Pi) to form 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate, and the ATP synthesis during substrate-level phosphorylation when the high-energy phosphate group from 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate is transferred to ADP to form ATP. Furthermore, the enzyme Phosphoglycerate Mutase catalyzes the conversion of 3-phosphoglycerate into 2-phosphoglycerate, which is a later step in glycolysis.
The correct option in the context of this question would state an incorrect association within this sequence of reactions. As such, option C, 'Oxidation of NADH to NAD+' is incorrect because during this step of glycolysis, NAD+ is actually reduced to NADH, not oxidized.
Related Questions
Peter Grant - the evolutionary biologist who has studied finches on Daphne Major (an island in the Galapagos) for several decades - collected data on birds' beak sizes, weight, diet and mating behavior to test his hypotheses. This kind of data is an example of:A. taxonomyB. artificial selectionC. empirical evidenceD. non-factual informationE. a belief
Answers
Answer:
C. empirical evidence
Explanation:
Empirical evidence is a type of knowledge obtained through sensory experience, that is, through the process of observation and experimentation. Empirical evidence is often used during the application of the scientific method to test a hypothesis. In the example in question, Peter Grant obtained empirical evidence about birds' biology to verify that his assumptions about their evolution were correct.
Consider the cladogram representing most of the major categories of animals. Consider the point B in the cladogram. What characteristic might be used to separate the animals, beginning with the pigeon and moving to human, from the other animals?
A) contain jaws
B) endoskeleton with backbone
C) fur or hair
D) tetrapod
Answers
Answer: C. Fur is Hair
Explanation: i got it right
A man with normal vision and a colorblind woman have children together. We can expect that _________ of their sons and _________ of their daughters will be colorblind.
A. half none
B. none half
C. all half
D. half all
E. all none
Answers
A woman heterozygous for A blood marries a man heterozygous for B blood.
What is the probability that they will produce offspring with AB blood?
a)0%
b)25%
c)50%
d)75%
Answers
Answer:
b) 25% is the right answer
Explanation:
A woman heterozygous for A blood group with genotype = Iᵃi
A man heterozygous for A with genotype = Iᵇi
so after cross between Iᵃ i x Iᵇ i
alleles man woman
Iᵃ i
Iᵇ IᵃIᵇ Iᵇi
i Iᵃi ii
so the offspring will be
25 % AB IᵃIᵇ 25 % A Iᵃi
25 % B Iᵇi 25 % O ii
The probability that a woman heterozygous for A blood and a man heterozygous for B blood will produce offspring with AB blood type is 25%.
Explanation:The subject of this question is genetics and it deals with the inheritance of blood types. For a woman heterozygous for blood type A (IAi) and a man heterozygous for B blood (IBi), their possible gametes (sperm and eggs) are IA, i and IB, i respectively. When we cross these possibilities, we get four possible combinations of genotypes in their offspring: IAIB (which is type AB Blood), IAi (Type A blood), IBi (Type B blood) and ii (Type O blood). Each of these outcomes has a 25% chance of occurring, because they are equally likely due to the principles of Mendelian genetics. Therefore the chance they will produce offspring with AB blood is 25%.
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Which of the following is a consequence of acid deposition? Group of answer choices A) It increases the likelihood of low-lying ground fogs. B) It results in offshore eutrophication, damaging coral reefs. C) It creates rainwater that can damage skin cells or cause cancers. D) It leaches important minerals from soils. E) It is increasing the rate of global warming.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D
Explanation:
Acid deposition is the process by which the acid formed in the atmosphere falls off with the rain and gets deposited in the lithosphere.
The deposition of the acid in the soil causes many adverse effects on the living organisms especially plants as deposition of acid leads to the reactions which result in the release of the elements from their compounds via a process known as "leaching".
The leaching of the elements leads to the decrease in the fertility of the soil and thus productivity of the plants or crops.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
Answer:
Option (D)
Explanation:
The acid rain is usually defined as a type of precipitation which is comprised of acids such as sulfuric and nitric acids and is harmful to the living organism.
It directly affects the soil because the nutrient particles present in the soil such as phosphorus, nitrogen, and aluminum are washed away during acid rain. The acid rain adds the hydrogen ions to the soil and reacts with the nutrients present in the soil and thereby removes it and it eventually flows to the streams and rivers. This process of eroding soil particles is often known as leaching.
Thus, Acid rain leads to the leaching of important soil minerals.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
A very common type of red–green colorblindness in humans is caused by a mutation in a gene located on the X chromosome. Knowing that the mutant allele is recessive to the wild type, what is the probability that the son of a woman whose father is colorblind is going to also be colorblind
Answers
Answer:
50%
Explanation:
According to the given information, the allele for the red-green colorblindness is inherited in an X linked recessive manner. Let's assume that the allele X^c is responsible for red-green colorblindness. The woman is normal but had a colorblind father (X^cY). Fathers give their X chromosomes to the daughters while their Y chromosome is transmitted to their sons. The sons get their X chromosomes from the mother.
The colorblind father has transmitted the X-linked allele for the red-green colorblindness to his daughter. Therefore, the genotype of the woman is X^cX. The woman would produce two types of eggs: 50 % with X^C and 50% with X. Therefore, 50% of sons of this woman would get X linked allele for the red-green colorblindness and would be affected by the disorder while the rest 50% of her sons will be normal.
Answer:
Males would be more affected because they inherit only one X chromosome. Women would have to inherit two recessive genes to develop the trait, while men would have to inherit only one.
Explanation:
The flower color of the Four-o'clock plant is determined by alleles of genes that demonstrate incomplete dominance. Heterozygotes have an intermediate phenotype of pink flowers while homozygous individuals have either red or white flowers. A plant with red flowers and a plant with red flowers are crossed. If 500 offspring were produced, what number of the F1 offspring would have pink flowers?
Answers
In a cross between two homozygous red Four-O'clock plants, all offspring would also be homozygous red. No pink flowered offspring a result of incomplete dominance, would be produced because there are no white alleles present in the parents.
Explanation:The question is about the inheritance pattern known as incomplete dominance in the Four-o'clock plant. In the case of the heterozygote self-cross, the genotypic ratio is 1CRCR:2 CRCW:1 CWCW, which equates to 1:2:1 for red:pink:white. If a homozygous red plant (CRCR) is crossed with another homozygous red plant (CRCR), all the offspring would be homozygous red (CRCR) because there are no alleles for white flowers (CWCW) in the parents. Therefore, no pink flowers (heterozygous CRCW), which derive from one red and one white allele, could be produced in this cross.
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In a cross between two plants with red flowers, all F1 offspring would have red flowers due to incomplete dominance, resulting in no individuals with pink flowers among the 500 offspring produced.
In incomplete dominance, heterozygotes exhibit an intermediate phenotype between the homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive phenotypes.
In this case, crossing two plants with red flowers (homozygous dominant) would produce offspring with only red flowers. Therefore, no F1 offspring would have pink flowers.
Since both parent plants have red flowers, they would contribute the dominant allele for red flower color to all of their offspring. Consequently, all 500 F1 offspring would inherit the dominant allele for red flowers, resulting in no individuals with pink flowers.
How can a tumor suppressor gene lose its function? Check all that apply
a. Duplication
b. Aneuploidy leading to loss of the tumor suppressor gene
c. Aberrant DNA methylation
d. Gene mutation
Answers
Explanation:
Antioncogenes also called as tumor suppressor genes. The cell proliferation is controlled negatively by tumor suppressor genes. Antioncogenes maintains the replication and division process of cell. The antioncogenes prevent uncontrollable growth of cell. The mutation in the gene can lead to cancer.
The gene mutation can cause tumor suppressor gene to lose its function. The mutation in the tumor suppressor genes will code for certain proteins with loss of function in tumor suppression.
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Which of the following is true when describing the permissive effect of a hormone?a) a permissive hormone can cancel out the effect of another hormoneb) this means that two hormones have a greater effect than just onec) the hormone can act alone when having an effect on a tissued) is usually the result of a second hormone's exposure on target cells
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is d) is usually the result of a second hormone's exposure on target cells
Explanation:
Permissiveness is described as the situation in which one hormone is not able to exert its full effect on the target cell and it requires the presence of another hormone to exert its full potential on the target cell.
Therefore the permissive effect is usually the result of the secondary hormone's presence or exposure on target cells. For example, thyroid hormone increases the effect of epinephrine on target cells by increasing its receptors on the target cell.
Without thyroid hormone, the epinephrine can not exert full effect on its target cell. Therefore the right answer is d.
Hormones mediate changes in target cells by binding to specific hormone receptors. The number of receptors that respond to a hormone determines the cell's sensitivity to that hormone. In the context of permissive effect, one hormone enhances the effect of another hormone.
Explanation:Hormones mediate changes in target cells by binding to specific hormone receptors. In this way, even though hormones circulate throughout the body and come into contact with many different cell types, they only affect cells that possess the necessary receptors. Receptors for a specific hormone may be found on many different cells or may be limited to a small number of specialized cells.
The number of receptors that respond to a hormone determines the cell's sensitivity to that hormone, and the resulting cellular response. Additionally, the number of receptors that respond to a hormone can change over time, resulting in increased or decreased cell sensitivity. In up-regulation, the number of receptors increases in response to rising hormone levels, making the cell more sensitive to the hormone and allowing for more cellular activity. When the number of receptors decreases in response to rising hormone levels, called down-regulation, cellular activity is reduced.
In the context of permissive effect, when one hormone has a permissive effect on another hormone, it means that the presence of the permissive hormone enhances the effect of the other hormone. It allows the other hormone to have a greater effect than it would have on its own. This is an example of the interaction between different hormones and their receptors in target cells.
In a flock of birds one individual first gives a call when a predator appears. This call is quickly repeated by all members of the flock and soon the entire flock is calling at this predator. This activity seems to deter the predator. When this barrage of calls is given the predator always flies away. This is a possible example of ______
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer will be- flock defense
Explanation:
A flock is a group of same species of animals usually observed in the birds during migration.
The flock increases their fitness of survival by avoiding predators in which the one individual of the group gives a call in response to the predator.
The same predator call is repeated by every member of the flock which threatens the predator and the predator goes away. This flock response is considered as the defense response to predator and thus the mechanism is known as flock defense.
Thus, flock defense is the correct answer.
Suppose that a certain gene functions to enforce a checkpoint on the cell cycle. A mutation causing the loss of this gene's function would be most likely to cause a person to
A. develop an extra limb
B. have cancer immediately
C. be more likely to have cancer at some point in his/her life
D. lose the capability to produce gametes
E. be extra protected from ever getting cancer
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is C. be more likely to have cancer at some point in his/her life.
Explanation:
Cell cycle checkpoints are controlled by different proteins which are coded by different genes. They are important in cell cycle regulation and stops cell cycle immediately if they find any problem in the cell like mutation.
The cell cycle will not be continued if the problem does not solve and cell death will occur which prevents cancer by preventing the mutation to spread into new cells.
Therefore if a mutation occurs in certain genes that enforce a checkpoint on the cell cycle then the mutated gene will pass in new cells and the mutated cells will grow uncontrollably due to no checkpoints so the person will probably have cancer at some point in his or her life.
A drug that prevents assembly of the mitotic spindle would cause the cell cycle to stall just after
A. chromosome condensation
B. attachment of the spindle to the chromosomes
C. all the chromosomes have lined up in the middle of the cell
D. the separation of sister chromatids
E. cytokinesis
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
Colchicine is the drug that prevents the assembly of the mitotic spindles which halts or stops the cell cycle.
The colchicine acts by inhibiting the microtubule polymerization thus mitotic spindles which takes place after the condensation of the chromosomes during prophase and pre-metaphase.
This acts as checkpoint which can halt the cell cycle at the phase of chromosome condensation.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Populations evolve for many reasons. Suppose there is a population of plants that have either purple flowers or white flowers, and the allele for purple flowers is dominant. This means that plants with two purple alleles have purple flowers. Plants with one purple allele and one white allele also have purple flowers. Only plants with two white alleles have white flowers.For each event or condition described below, answer the following questions.a. Which mechanism of evolution is at work?b. How does this event affect the population's gene pool? c. Do the frequencies of the two alleles change, and if so, how?
Answers
Answer:
n/l
Explanation:
Natural selection through directional selection was the driving force behind evolution. The parents of the purple flowers were capable of withstanding the selective pressure.
What is natural selection?Natural selection is the process by which living organism populations adapt and change. Individuals in a population are basically the naturally variable, which implies they differ in some ways.
The driving force behind evolution was natural selection via directional selection. The purple flowers' parents were able to withstand the selective pressure.
Because of dominance in expression with each successive generation in both homozygote and heterozygote states, and thus higher frequency of expression compared to white flowers, the gene pool of purple flowers will be large.
The frequency of an allele is determined by the allele's rate of expression in the population.
Thus, dominant purple flowers have a higher frequency of expression than recessive white flowers, which can only express themselves in the homozygote recessive state.
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Which of the following is a correct statement?
Select one:
a. If you want to make a cDNA library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the mRNA from.
b. If you want to make a genomic library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the DNA from.
c. If you want to make a cDNA library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the DNA from.
d. If you want to make a genomic library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the mRNA from.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B
Explanation:
cDNA library or complementary library is the DNA library constructed from the mRNA which is isolated from the specific tissue.
The genomic library is constructed from the genome sequence of the organism by cutting the gene of interest or the whole genome with a restriction endonuclease and then inserting it into the vectors.
Since the genomic library includes the whole genome which is same in every cell and tissue whereas the cDNA library contains the coding genes expressed in the specific tissue only therefore, Option-B is the correct answer.
The correct answer is 'if you want to make a genomic library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the DNA from' because genomic DNA is constant across different tissues. However, for a cDNA library, tissue type matters as different tissues express different genes.
Explanation:The correct statement among these options is b. If you want to make a genomic library, it doesn't matter which tissue you isolate the DNA from. The reason for this is that genomic DNA is the complete DNA sequence of an organism, which means it is identical in all cells (except reproductive cells and some immune cells).
On the other hand, the cDNA library represents a collection of only the mRNA sequences that were active in the cell at the moment of extraction. Therefore, for the creation of a cDNA library, it does matter which tissue the mRNA is isolated from because different tissues express different genes.
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Which of the following statements about PCR is/are FALSE? There may be more than one correct answer.
A) PCR reactions contain DNA template, primers, deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates, and heat- resistant DNA polymerase
B) Each PCR cycle includes three steps: denaturation, annealing, and extension
C) After each PCR cycle, the amount of DNA increases in a linear manner
D) One limitation of PCR is that it requires prior knowledge of the sequence to be amplified
E) PCR is a very sensitive technique and can amplify target sequences present in extremely low copy number
F) The single-stranded DNA primers must anneal to opposite strands of template DNA at distant sites, with their 5′ ends directed toward each other
Answers
Answer: The answer is C
Explanation:
After each PCR cycle, the amount of DNA does not increase in a linear manner
Final answer:
The false statements about PCR are C) DNA increases linearly after each cycle, and F) primers must anneal at distant sites with 5' ends facing. In PCR, DNA increases exponentially, and primers anneal close to the target with 3' ends facing.
Explanation:
The student has asked which statements about Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) are false. The false statements are:
C) After each PCR cycle, the amount of DNA increases in a linear manner
F) The single-stranded DNA primers must anneal to opposite strands of template DNA at distant sites, with their 5′ ends directed toward each other
Statement C is false because the amount of DNA increases exponentially after each PCR cycle, not linearly. Each cycle doubles the amount of DNA being amplified. Statement F is also incorrect; the primers anneal to opposite strands of the template DNA at specific sites close to the target sequence, and they are oriented with their 3′ ends facing each other, not their 5′ ends.
PCR involves a cyclic process of denaturation, annealing, and extension which results in the exponential increase of the DNA target sequence. Heat-resistant DNA polymerase, such as Taq polymerase, is used for its ability to withstand the high temperatures needed for denaturation.
Which of the following is a true statement?
Mucus protects the stomach lining from digestive secretions.
Protease breaks down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.
Lipase breaks down proteins in the small intestine.
Pepsin is an antibacterial agent that kills some bacteria.
Answers
Mucus protects the stomach lining from digestive secretions
When constructing a Punnett square, _____________ go on the outside of the square, and _______________ go inside the square.
A. diploid gametes, haploid offspring
B. diploid offspring, diploid parents
C. haploid gametes, diploid offspring
D. haploid offspring, diploid gametes
E. haploid offspring, haploid parents
Answers
Answer:
haploid gametes, diploid offspring
Explanation:
Gametes that produces offprings are usually hapliod (n) e.g the sperm cell or the egg cell. In the Punnet Square, When these two hapliod gametes fuses together, they produce a diploid offspring carrying the traits of both of the gametes.
At what point in the citric acid cycle do the methyl carbon from acetyl-CoA and the carbonyl carbon from oxaloacetate become chemically equivalent? Please reference specific steps in the citric acid cycle and draw structures of the intermediate in which the carbons are equivalent and the preceding molecule – labeling the inequivalent carbons.
Answers
Answer: at the formation of CITRATE
Explanation: details of the answer is in the attachments.
Citrate is a 6 Carbon compound formed from the reaction of methyl cabon of acetyl coAof(2c) and cabonyl carbon of oxaloacatate(4c).
The intermediate compound formed is CITRYL CoA.
People with beriberi, a disease caused by thiamine deficiency, have elevated levels of blood pyruvate and a -ketoglutarate, especially after consuming a meal rich in glucose. How are these effects related to a deficiency of thiamine?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Thiamine pyrophosphate is a thiamine derivative and acts a coenzyme for various enzymes including pyruvate dehydrogenase and α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. These are involved in catabolism of pyruvate and α-ketoglutarate, respectively.
1. What chemicals make up the sides-or backbone, of the DNA molecule
Answers
Answer:
1. Deoxyribose sugar
2. Phosphate molecules
Explanation:
The back bone of DNA is made up pf two molecules.
1. Deoxyribose sugar
2. Phosphate molecules
deoxyribose is a 5 carbon sugar molecule while phosphate is inorganic salt .
Final answer:
The backbone of the DNA molecule is composed of a sugar-phosphate chain, formed by the alternating units of phosphate groups and a five-carbon sugar called deoxyribose.
Explanation:
The sides or backbone of the DNA molecule are made up of alternating units of phosphate groups and a five-carbon sugar known as deoxyribose. These two components are bonded together through a type of chemical reaction known as dehydration synthesis, which forms a covalent bond between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the deoxyribose sugar of the next, resulting in a long polymer chain. This sugar-phosphate backbone forms the structural framework of DNA to which the nitrogen-containing bases are attached. The structure of DNA is a double helix, where these backbones twist around each other with the complementary nucleotide bases pointing inwards, held together by hydrogen bonds.
Fred Griffith studied two strains of Streptococcus pneumonia,one that causes a lethal infection when injected into mice, and a second that is harmless.He observed that pathogenic bacteria that have been killed by heating can no longer cause an infection. But when these heat-killed bacteria are mixed with live, harmless bacteria, this mixture is capable of infecting and killing a mouse. What did Griffith conclude from this experiment?
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer will be- There is some molecule which could have transformed the avirulent bacterial strains to become virulent and called it a transforming principle.
Explanation:
Griffith performed the experiment on two strains of Streptococcus pneumonia in which one strain is avirulent called R strain and another virulent strain called S strain.
When Griffith killed the S bacteria (virulent) by heat and added it in the R strain Petri dishes and then injected the bacteria to mice, the mice killed. This amazed him as to how the avirulent bacteria killed the mice ?
He concluded that there was some principle which transformed the avirulent bacteria to virulent bacteria and thus called the principle as transforming principle.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) Malaria was a major problem in the early history of hominins but is no longer a major pathogen of humans.
(B) Scientists are engaged in an evolutionary arms race with disease-causing organisms.
(C) Use of antibiotics in farm animals contributes to the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
(D) Global travel spreads pathogens more quickly than ever before.
(E) Most strains of Plasmodium falciparum are resistant to chloroquine.
Answers
Answer: Option A is false.
Malaria is a disease of human being.
Explanation:
Scientist suggested human beings might have caught malaria from chimpanzees and African gorilla.
Malaria is a life threatening disease caused by plasmodium falciparum, plasmodium vivax and other plaamodium species transmitted through the bites of female anopheles mosquito's that has lead to deaths of many people in past years. It is still a major pathogen of humans. According to world health organisation (WHO) in 2017, nearly half of the world was at risk of malaria. There was an estimated 219 cases in 87 countries of the world and an estimated deaths of 435000 of people in 2017.
Malaria can be cure and prevented
It can be cure by the administration of antimalarial drug which is arthemisin Based. It is important you consult your doctor for proper treatment.
Malarial can be prevented by using mosquito nets, using mosquito sprays in rooms to kill mosquito's, using mosquito repellants and keeping our environment tidy from the growth of mosquitoes.
Global travel spreading pathogens more quickly than ever before is False.
Global travel involves the movement of people from one place to another.
This has occurred from time immemorial and vaccination has helped reduce
its spread.
Vaccination and several tests results for contagious diseases are usually
done so as to prevent this occurrence which is why the spread of pathogens
being on the increase is false.
In this scenario also, malaria isn't spread through physical contact as it's not
contagious or communicable but through the vectors i.e mosquito.
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A child was in a diving accident. When brought into the emergency room, the doctor used sharp and blunt objects to determine if there was any sensation on the bottom of the foot and the lateral aspect of their palm. The child stated they could not feel the stimulus in either area. What nerves were most likely damaged?
Answers
Answer:
S1 and S3
Explanation:
The spine is composed of 33 vertebrae and has 31 pairs of nerves that are distributed throughout the body in an organized manner. Each nerve that leaves the spine is responsible for imparting sensitivity and strength to a particular area of the body, so whenever there is a compression or cut of a nerve, a particular area of the body is compromised.
When a person has a feeling of numbness in the foot, as shown in the above question, it is more likely that there is a change in the spine, specifically in the nerves S1 and S3. This is because nerve S1 is responsible for eversion of the foot, while nerve S3 is responsible for the intrinsic muscles of the foot.
Why is the net production of ATP from palmitate 106 ATP and not 108 ATP?
A. because conversion of palmitate to palmitoyl-CoA consumes the equivalent of 2 ATP
B. because the overall reaction for conversion of palmitoyl-CoA to has 106 ATP on the products side of the reaction
C. because each NADH produces about 2.5 ATP, and each FADH2 produces about 1.5 ATP
D. because 2 ATP are lost due to the production of by β oxidation inside a mitochondrion
Answers
Answer:
D. because 2 ATP are lost due to the production of by β oxidation inside a mitochondrion
Explanation:Two ATPs were borrowed from the Nets 4 ATPs produced in glycolysis, for the substrate level phosphorylation in the initial stage of glycolysis for pyruvate productions.
Therefore, the total ATPs would have been 108ATPs, produced as net ATPs, during kerb’s cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. But because 2ATPs has been spent in substrate phosphorylation then the ATPs produces is 106ATPs
the tailless trait in the mouse results from an allele of an gene on chromosomes 17. a cross of tailless x tailless mice produces tailess and wildtype offspring in a ratio of 2 tailess: 1 wildtype. all tailess offspring from this cross when mated with wildtype produce a 1:1 ratio of tailess to wildtype. is the allele for the tailess trait dominant or recessive?
Answers
Answer:
Dominant
Explanation:
Please see the attachment
The human genome comprises just over 3.1 billion base pairs. Assuming average nucleosome spacing throughout the genome, how many molecules of histone H2A are present in the chromatin of one somatic human cell after DNA replication but before cell division?
a. 6.2 million
b. 124 million
c. 32 million
d. 3.1 milion
e. 62 million
Answers
The number of histone H2A molecules in the chromatin of one somatic human cell after DNA replication but before cell division is approximately 21.23 million.
Explanation:The human genome is composed of 3.1 billion base pairs. The spacing between nucleosomes is on average 146 base pairs. After DNA replication, the number of histone H2A molecules in the chromatin of one somatic human cell can be calculated by dividing the total number of base pairs by the nucleosome spacing. Therefore, the number of histone H2A molecules in one somatic human cell after DNA replication but before cell division is approximately 21.23 million, which is not one of the given options.
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Why is a cap added to mRNA, but not to tRNA or rRNA?A-Transfer RNA and rRNA exhibit complex structures with double stranded regions. The three-dimensional shapes of these molecules keep the 5\' end of the RNA away from the enzymes that process the cap.B-Transcription and processing of mRNA occur in the nucleus, where cap binding proteins are found. These proteins, which add and modify the cap, are not found in the cytoplasm, where tRNA and rRNA are transcribed and processed.C-Each of the three types of RNA are transcribed by different RNA polymerases. Only RNA polymerase II, involved in mRNA synthesis, contains a domain capable of interacting with enzymes that form the cap.D-Only mRNA contains introns. Capping occurs simultaneously with intron removal because the same enzymes and proteins involved in both of these processes must bind to RNA at the same time.
Answers
Answer:
The correct option is C ' Each of the three types of RNA are transcribed by different RNA polymerases. Only RNA polymerase II, involved in mRNA synthesis, contains a domain capable of interacting with enzymes that form the cap.'
Explanation:
All the different type of RNA's undergo the process of transcription. However, their transcription is carried on by different types of RNA polymerases.
The transcription of the mRNA is carried by RNA polymerase II. The process of capping is essential so that the mRNA is stopped from degradation.
The rRNA is transcribed by RNA polymerase I which cannot add a cap tothe RNA.
The tRNA is transcribed by the RNA polymerase II, but the domain is different which cannot undergo the process of capping.
List and briefly describe four components of innate immunity (include one barrier defense and three internal defenses)
Answers
Final answer:
Innate immunity consists of barrier defenses like the skin, and internal defenses such as the inflammatory response, natural killer cells, and phagocytes. These components work together to provide immediate defense against pathogens.
Explanation:
Innate immunity includes both barrier and internal defenses against pathogens. The following are four components of the innate immune system:
Barrier defenses: The skin and mucous membranes act as the body's first line of defense, providing a physical barrier that prevents the entry of pathogens.Inflammatory response: When a pathogen penetrates barrier defenses, mast cells and basophils release histamines, which increases blood flow and immune cell access to the affected area, creating inflammation.Natural killer cells: These cells are a type of lymphocyte that detects and destroys cells infected by viruses and tumor cells without the need for prior activation by specific antigens.Phagocytes: Cells like macrophages engulf and digest pathogens and debris. They are an essential component of the innate immune response.These components work together to provide immediate, nonspecific responses to various pathogens and prepare the body for more specific adaptive immune responses.
During the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis, we would expect what compound(s) to be produced? A) glucose B) ATP and NADPH C) water and NADPH D) glucose and oxygen
Answers
Answer:D
Explanation:After water combined with CO2, it give glucose n oxygen
Answer:
D
Explanation:
The carbon to produce carbohydrates in the second stage of photosynthesis comes from
Answers
Answer:
Front the atmosphere that's from environment