The vocal folds are located within the
A) oropharynx.
B) larynx.
C) trachea.
D) nasopharynx.
E) bronchi.

Answer:

The correct option is: b. covering the superior turbinate.

Explanation:

The olfactory epithelium is a part of olfactory system that is responsible for the detection of odors. It is an epithellial tissue which is present in on the surface of the superior turbinate or superior conchae, and septum inside the nasal cavity.

This epithellial tissue consists of the following cells: supporting cells, basal cells, brush cells, and the olfactory sensory neurons.

Answer:

The correct answer is B:  

HR = 80% of age-predicted maximum is NOT a reason to stop maximal GXT.

Explanation:

Maximal graded exercise test allows physicians to evaluate patients ability to perform cardiovascular exercise (functional capacity), an also detect if there are any zones of ischemia in the muscle heart due to arteriosclerosis.

To do so, the patient would be asked to walk on a treadmill and speed and slope of the treadmill will be increased gradually during the test. EKG, heart rate, and blood pressure will be recorded and compared afterwards.

The heart rate target to make a proper evaluation is 85% of the maximal predicted heart rate.

Answer: E) A and B only

Explanation:

Hemoglobin can be define as red color protein which consists of iron group in the red blood cells. It carries oxygen to all the organs of the body and tissues and transports carbon dioxide from all the tissues and organs back to the lungs so that the carbon dioxide get expelled out of the body. It helps in transport of gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen). But does not help in clotting of blood.

Answer:

The respiratory and circulatory systems have always worked as a team to maintain the human body alive. In fact, life would not be possible if the two of them did not work in unison. As such, when the heart pumps blood from the right ventricle, it pushes this de-oxygenated blood towards the lungs for oxygenation and then the vessels that pass through the lungs return the newly oxygenated blood to the left atria, and then left ventricle, to be pumped into the system. In order to achieve this, the circulatory system counts with a pulmonary circulatory system and a systemic circulation. The first is formed by the pulmonary veins and arterties, while the second is formed by the aorta.

So given this explanation, the answers to the questions would be:

1. The vessels of the pulmonary circulation are the pulmonary arteries, whose role is to lead de-oxygenated blood from the right ventricle towards the two lungs for gas exchange, and the two pulmonary veins, who return from the lungs with the newly oxygenated blood to enter the left atria, from which blood passes to the left ventricle. From the ventricle blood is then pumped into the circulatory system.

2. Both the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins are part of the pulmonary circulation, while the aorta and vena cavas are the main vessels responsible for systemic circulation starting from the heart.

Answer:

The correct answer is E) cholecystokinin

Explanation:

cholecystokinin is a peptide hormone which is secreted by the duodenum of small intestine and stimulates the gall bladder to release bile into the small intestine. cholecystokinin give signals to gall bladder to contract which results in the secretion of stored bile from gall bladder into the small intestine through common bile duct.

cholecystokinin also stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes from pancreas. So cholecystokinin plays important role in digestion of food inside the small intestine by facilitating the secretions from gall bladder and pancreas into small intestine.

Answer:

The correct answer is D.

Explanation:

Osteo is a prefix, which is use to mean bone or bone related: osteogenesis, osteomyelitis, osteoporosis, etc.

-ecotmy is a suffix, refers to removal of something surgically: adenectomy, diverticulectomy, embolectomy, etc.

-ostomy is a suffix, refers to a surgical creation of an opening in an organ: gastrostomy, colostomy, etc.

Answer:

Nephrotic syndrome is a group of signs and symptoms due to kidney damage.  

It is characteristic:

- Proteinuria (>3,5 g per 1,73m2 body surface area per day)

- Hypoalbuminemia (<2,5 g/dl)

- Hyperlipidemia

- Edema (the first signs can be seen in the face)

The edema is caused due to the hypoalbuminemia. When oncotic pressure drops, fluid tends to accumulate in interstitial tissues, leaving intravascular space. In response to the dropped volume in intravascular space, the kidneys tends to retain water and sodium, this also contribute to edema developing.  

Answer:

The eustachian tube is a canal that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, which consists of the upper throat and the back of the nasal cavity. It controls the pressure within the middle ear, making it equal with the air pressure

The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx. Its function is crucial for normal hearing as it equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere.  Therefore, the correct answer would be C

The eustachian tube is a structure within the human body which plays a key role in the auditory system. It connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx, which is an area of the pharynx, located behind the nose and above the rear part of the throat. Option c, 'nasopharynx', is the correct answer to this question. This tube is used to equalize the pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere, which is essential for normal hearing.

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Answer:

The correct answer will be- fourteenth day of ovarian cycle.

Explanation:

The secondary oocyte is the cellular stage of the reproductive cells which can be easily distinguished as the cells are present at the metaphase-II of the cell division.

The secondary oocytes are gets matured in the pre-ovulatory phase after which they are released from the follicle on the fourteenth day of the cycle. This fourteenth-day phase is known as the ovulatory phase.

Thus, the fourteenth day of the ovarian cycle is the correct answer.

Answer:

The correct option is: C. Binge eating disorder

Explanation:

Binge eating disorder is a type of eating disorder which is characterized by  recurrent episodes of binge eating. This eating disorder includes food addiction and compulsive overeating. The common symptoms of this disorder includes uncontrollable and rapid eating, without feeling hungry, and feeling unhappy, depressed and guilty because of it.

Binge eating disorder is the most prevalent or the most common eating disorder.

Answer:

The best answer to the question: Recovery from a severe metabolic acidosis is most dependent on which of the following? would be, D: Arterial pH.

Explanation:

When a person reaches such a severe situation, as having metabolic acidosis, then it means that his body systems are not being able to use the mechanisms to restore the normal acid-base balance within it. Normally, a person needs to have an acid-base balance of 7.35 to 7.45. Drops below or above these numbers will result in acidosis or alkalosis and in severe problems. The way that the body can tell if there is something going on with the pH levels in the blood is through a series of chemoreceptors, especially in the neck, that constantly measures the amount of CO2 molecules in the blood and especially, the pH (acidity or alkalinity) given by the excessive presence, or absence, of acids in the blood. There is another ration that is important for the body, and it is the presence of bicarbonate ions, which will help balance out the amount of H+ ions produced by normal cell function, or increased cell function. In metabolic acidosis, the amount of H+ vs. bicarbonate ions is immense, H+ winning by far over bicarnonate, and a series of steps are taken by the body to restore the 20:1 ratio, and especially return the pH to its normal range. All mechanisms point towards that one measure: pH. Once the level of pH has been reached, we can tell a person is finally coming out of metabolic, or recovering from, metabolic acidosis.

Answer:

The correct answer to the question: Which of the following types of fluoride are typically used in the dental office, would be, D: All of the above.

Explanation:

When going to the dentist, for mouth care, it is normal for these professionals to use certain chemicals to ensure not just the removal of bacteria that can cause caries, but also to ensure the total health of the mouth cavity. According to the American Dental Association, the use of fluoride substances is allowed, but there are only a few choices available. As such, the types allowed are neutral sodium fluorides in foam, gels and varnish, as well as acidulated phosphate, also in gels and foams.

To help a person dealing with severe sensorineural or conductive hearing loss, medical interventions such as hearing aids and cochlear implants can be used.

To create a medical intervention for severe sensorineural or conductive hearing loss, different approaches can be used. For conductive hearing loss, hearing aids can be used to amplify sound vibrations, while for sensorineural hearing loss, cochlear implants can stimulate the nerves directly. Hearing aids press against the bone behind the ear to partially overcome conductive loss. Cochlear implants are widely accepted and work by stimulating the nerves in the cochlea. Over 100,000 implants are currently in use.

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Answer:

The correct answer will be option-A.

Explanation:

The cardiac cycle of the heart is divided into two phases: contraction (systole) and relaxation (diastole).

The atria and ventricles of the heart contract simultaneously in response to the impulse generated in the SA node. The contraction of the atria and ventricles push the blood or pumps the blood.

The atrial systole pumps blood to ventricles whereas the ventricular systole pumps blood to the body parts.

Thus, option-A is the correct answer.

Answer:

The structural and functional unit of the kidney is nephron. Each kidney consists of two parts a renal corpuscle which is the site for blood filtration and renal tubule in which filtrate enters and passes through.

Renal tubule is divided into PCT(proximal convoluted tubule), loop of Henle (nephron loop) and DCT(distal convoluted tubule).

Function of nephron  

1. Renal corpuscle: It is made up of two component glomerulus(tuft of capillaries) and bowman's capsule. Glomerulus is having pores in its membrane called fenestrae through which blood is filtered into the bowmen's capsule.

2. PCT: The function of PCT is mostly to reabsorb the materials from filtrate by active and passive transport. Absorption of glucose, amino acids, hormones, vitamins, and ions takes place in this segment.

3. Henle loop:  It contains ascending and descending loop. The descending loop is permeable to water and ascending loop is permeable to ions. So reabsorption of water and ions like sodium takes place in this region.

4. DCT: Here reabsorption of ions takes place and it is mostly impermeable to water and it opens into collecting duct.

The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron, composed of the Renal Corpuscle, Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted Tubule, and the Collecting Duct. Each part has its specific functions in filtration, reabsorption and regulating the pH balance of urine.

The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron. Each kidney has several millions of these tiny filtration units. The nephron is composed of various parts, namely: the Renal Corpuscle (Bowman's Capsule and Glomerulus), Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted Tubule, and the Collecting Duct.

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Answer:

The best answer for the statement: Drugs that are most effective at treating overactive bladder increase:___ activity, would be: anticholinergic activity

Explanation:

Overactive bladder (OAB) is a condition in which, due to disordered firing of the nerves in the bladder walls, and also constant stimulation by ACH (acetylcholine), the neurotransmitter of the central nervous system that activates smooth and skeletal muscles, a person may constantly feel the need to urinate, even if the bladder has not filled to full capacity. It can become a really difficult condition to treat, but before using medication, there are a lot of  non-pharmacological treatments that are used in preference to actual chemical substances. However, when these therapies do not work, doctors will prescribe anti-cholinergic medication, which block muscarinic receptors in the muscle walls of the bladder, and thus prevent these walls from reacting to ACH. The end result is to reduce the sense of urination urgency and increase bladder retention and capacity.

Drugs for overactive bladder increase parasympathetic activity which is achieved by acting as antimuscarinics or beta-3 adrenergic agonists. These mechanisms relax the bladder muscles and help control an overactive bladder.

Drugs that are most effective at treating overactive bladder function primarily by increasing parasympathetic activity. This action is achieved by the drug acting as antimuscarinics, inhibiting the activity of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors in the bladder. This causes relaxation of the bladder muscle. An example of such a drug is oxybutynin. It is important to note this effect as overactivity of the bladder is often due to an overactive parasympathetic nervous system.

However, some drugs called beta-3 adrenergic agonists such as mirabegron can also effectively treat overactive bladder by relaxing the bladder muscle to prevent sudden, involuntary contractions. They work by stimulating the beta-3 adrenergic receptors in the bladder. This in turn increases the bladder's capacity to hold urine, reduces the frequency of urination, and helps to control an overactive bladder.

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Answer:

The correct answer is option B.  Without androgen secretion by the fetal testes

Explanation:

Androgen secretion by the fetal testis is important for male external genitalia development or sexual differentiation. Testosterone especially has a major role in the development of the testes, prostate and other cells and tissue responsible for the development of the reproductive organs and external genitalia.

Androgen mainly testosterone is metabolized and DHT is required for androgen-induced development of the external genitalia.

Thus, the correct answer is option B. Without androgen secretion by the fetal testes.

Answer: Plaque

Explanation:

A plaque is squashy film (substance) that generally forms on our teeth, comprised of numerous millions of bacteria. These bacteria are very effective and it can cause the tooth to decay, gum disease and several other types of dental problems. They are needed to be eliminated everyday by brushing teeth and cleaning it.

It occurs all over the mouth, but it usually gets concentrated in and around the deeper and narrower molar openings.

It forms when the food particles remained attached to the teeth and gums, and causes a stinky smell.

Answer:

Anti-diuretic hormone or ADH is a hormone which helps in reabsorption of water, maintaining blood volume, blood pressure and homeostasis in the body.

Aldosterone is the hormone which helps in the reabsorption of the electrolyte in the tubules of the kidney.

Aldosterone acts by opening the ion channels which allow the re-absorption of electrolytes like Na⁺ ions, Cl⁻ ions whereas  ADH acts by opening the aquaporin-2 channels in the collecting duct which allow the absorption of water molecules from the solution.

These hormone helps forms the concentrated urine as the electrolyte and water get re-absorbed.

Answer:

Explanation:

The epiglottis is the flap in the throat which allows the entry of the food inside the windpipe and the lungs. This flap is composed of elastic cartilage that actually covers the mucous membrane. It is attached to the entrance of the larynx. It is situated and projected upwards typically can be seen behind the tongue as well as the hyoid bone that typically point dorsally. It's function is to seal off the windpipe during the process of eating of food, so as to prevent the inhalation of food.

Answer:

In general, epidemiologically speaking, it is known that in African Americans the tendency is towards suffering hypertensive disease. So encountering pressures above 140/90 mmHg is not an uncommon thing, though not what should be. And blood pressures above that level are considered uncommonly high and need to be treated because this will affect the brain, and most particularly the kidneys. Hypertension is also very common in senior African Americans.

Given this introduction, the answers to the questions would be:

1. The cause for the great difference between the blood pressure of the right arm (187/98) and that of the left arm (201/76) is an advancement of the cardiovascular disease affecting the patient. It means that the arm where the higher number in the systolic pressure happened, is probably presenting with an obstruction of some kind, making the issue of higher blood pressure, even worse.

2. Although as said before, hypertension is an epidemiologic reality in African Americans, and especially in seniors, so it is expected that the patient will have an elevated BP, over the expected norm. However, the two pressures obtained on different arms indicates that there is something going on, as the elevation over the baseline for hypertensive patients has been overcome in systolic pressure by much more than 10 mmHg. This patient will need immediate intervention.

Answer:

the minute difference in systolic pressure in both arms is anticipated. However, the huge pressure difference in diastolic pressure in both arms is unanticipated.

Explanation:

If the difference in BP reading between both arms is more than 15 mm Hg and the difference is consistent, it indicates some issue. The pumping of blood from the heart to left arm has more pressure as compared to the right arm and it is normal if the difference in systolic pressure in both arms is less than 10 mm Hg. The diastolic pressure shall remain same in both arms because the blood is not pumped directly into the diastole. The diastolic BP tells about the arterial pressure and it should be low so that the heart does not have increase its pumping speed in order to compensate the diastolic pressure.  

The African-American patient does not any unanticipated increase in systolic pressure in both arms as the left arm systolic pressure is usually higher. However, the difference in diastolic pressure in both arms has a difference of more than 20 mm Hg which is alarming. This might be a sign of some blocked artery or peripheral artery disease, diabetes, kidney disease or some heart defect.

Answer: Bile

Explanation:

Kidney stones can be defined as substances which is formed by the accumulation of different substances to form a stone.

The chemical nature of the stone depends on the chemical imbalance that is found inside urine.

There are almost 5 common types of stone which is made of calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, cystine, uric acid and struvite.

Hence, the correct answer is option D

Final answer:

The substances that commonly compose kidney stones include calcium, uric acid, and cystine, but not bile. Bile is a digestive fluid that does not form kidney stones.

Explanation:

Kidney Stones Composition

Kidney stones are commonly composed of substances found in the urine that become highly concentrated. The major types of kidney stones include:

Calcium oxalate stones: They are the most common type, often associated with low-calcium diets.

Uric acid stones: These form in people with conditions like gout, which result in high uric acid levels.

Cystine stones: Related to cystinuria, a condition where cystine is accumulated in the urine.

However, kidney stones are not composed of bile. Bile is a digestive liquid produced by the liver, not a substance that forms kidney stones.

The correct answer to the student's question is d) Bile.

Answer:

The correct answer choices to the question: Which air passageways do not have cartilage and can collapse:___, would be: the bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveoli.

Explanation:

From the third branching of the bronchi, onwards towards the lungs, the cartilage that covers these structures are lost, as their purpose is to allow the flawless flow of air into the lungs, and the expulsion of CO2 from them. Because air pressure, and different pressure gradients ensure that the exchange of oxygen and CO2 takes place within the lungs, this can only be ensured with expansion of the lungs, chest cavity and of course the alveoli and alveolar ducts, where most of the exchange takes place. This is why cartilage is not a part of any of these three structures.

Answer:

The pharynx is a very important anatomical part of the human body because it is the common roadway for both food and fluids, and also for air. Because of this, and the importance that air and food do not go to the same place, mainly the lungs, the pharynx has a structure of skeletal and smooth muscle, as well as accessory anatomical features that will enable it to work as it should. Also, another anatomical structure derives from the pharynx, with the intention of becoming the tube for air passage; the larynx.

Putting the passage of food aside, and bearing in mind that the pharynx is the first airway, or upper airway, passage, continued lower down by the laryn, the answer to the question above would be thus:

Place the components of the pharynx in the order in which air flows through them during inspirations:

1. Nasopharinx: This structure is the one that is attached to the nasal cavity and it is separated from the mouth, or oral cavity by the soft palate. It is here that air passage begins as it descends towards the lungs.

2. Oropharinx: this is the part of the pharynx where both air and foodstuffs can mix. However, it is also important for air passage and it is the next step towards the lungs.

3. Laringopharynx: this is the structure where the pharynx gives rise to the laringeal tract, which will be the one that connects pharynx with trachea. the Laringopharynx has structures that will close whenever food is passing, so that nothing, except air, can enter the airways. And it will remain open for air passage to the larynx.

Answer:

The correct answer is D.

Explanation:

During cardiac cycle, when the left ventricle is full, mitral valve closes to prevent blood to flow backwards into the atrium while the ventricle contracts. This is the end of diastole and the beginning of systole.

The left ventricle contracts and blood flows through aortic valve into the aorta and to de body. The closure of aortic valve establishes systole end.

Answer: b) Lipogenesis

Explanation:

The postabsorptive state reaction is a reaction which occurs in the state of fasting. In this postabsorptive state the digestive tract remains empty as a result of this the breakdown of the body reserves takes place.

All except the lipogenesis is not the postabsorptive state reaction. This is because of the fact that lipogenesis involves the synthesis of the fatty acids and lipids from typically the carbohydrates and other substances.

Lipogenesis is not a postabsorptive state reaction; it occurs during the absorptive state when the body is converting excess energy into fat for storage.

The question asks which of the following is not a postabsorptive state reaction. During the postabsorptive state, the body primarily focuses on providing energy by breaking down stored reserves, such as glycogenolysis (the breakdown of liver glycogen), and gluconeogenesis using lactic acid or amino acids to create new glucose molecules. Therefore, options a), c), and d) are reactions that occur during the postabsorptive state. However, lipogenesis (option b) is the process of synthesizing fats from acetyl CoA, which primarily occurs during the absorptive state, when the body is storing excess energy. So, b) Lipogenesis is the correct choice as it is not a postabsorptive state reaction.

Answer:

The correct answer is: Hemodialysis

Explanation:

Hemodialysis is a technique or a process used for the purification of blood, in case of a kidney failure. In this technique, a hemodialysis machine and special filter, called the dialyzer, is used for blood purification. The dialyzer is also known as the artificial kidney.

The process of hemodialysis involves the diffusion of solute particles across the semipermeable membrane.

Answer: D-) has current coverage under a health insurance plan.

Explanation:

The health insurance plan is the plan which covers the whole or a part of the medical expenses that are required to be used for the purpose of treatment, diagnosis and maintenance of health in every aspect of age.

The person who is under the coverage of the health insurance plan is eligible for benefits in the case of medical emergency.

Answer:

D. The pacemaker.

Explanation:

The electrical signal starts in the sinoatrial (SA) node.

The SA node is also known as the heart’s natural pacemaker. It's located in the right atrium at the entrance of the superior vena cava.

The impulse starts in the sinus node (SA) then the electrical activity propagate and stimulate the myocardium, causing its contraction, this forces blood into the ventricles.

Answer:

The correct answer to the question: Energy for contraction of myocardial cells comes primarily from:___, would be, A: aerobic respiration in the mitochondria.

Explanation:

In order for the heart muscles (myocardium) to contract, there are a series of elements that need to be present. One of them, and most vital, is calcium, which will activate the connection of myosin and actin, the filaments in cardiomyocytes, the very units of muscular tissues in the heart. However, even if calcium were present, without ATP, the molecule of energy that will allow the process to happen, then contractions would not be possible. There simply would not be energy to allow the chemical reactions. The one organelle within the cell that is responsible to ensure there is ATP available, is the mitochondria. This production of ATP by mitochondria, happens through the process of aerobic respiration. This is why the answer is A.