Answer: d. Both A and C are correct
Explanation:
Vomeronasal organ also known as Jacobson's organ. It forms the part of the olfactory system of reptiles, amphibians and mammals. It is a chemoreceptor. The patch of sensory cells within the nasal chamber detects the odor and it's associated chemical. It can detect the airborn odours and pheromones or scents.
The vomeronasal organ, or Jacobson's organ, is an olfactory structure sensitive to pheromones, connected to the nasal cavity, and implicated in the flehmen response in animals. Its functionality in humans remains a subject of debate among scientists.
Explanation:The vomeronasal organ (VNO), also known as Jacobson's organ, is a tubular, fluid-filled olfactory organ found in many vertebrates that is highly sensitive to pheromones. It sits adjacent to the nasal cavity and is connected to it by a duct. When molecules dissolve in the mucosa of the nasal cavity, they can enter the VNO where pheromone molecules bind with specialized receptors. This interaction often leads to a behavioral response known as the flehmen response in certain animals, such as cats, which involves a curling of the upper lip to facilitate the entry of pheromone molecules into the VNO.
While the VNO's role in humans is controversial, some scientists consider it to be functionally vestigial, yet others suggest it may have an unrecognized function, possibly related to the synchronization of menstrual cycles among women living closely together.
Which of the following is NOT a reason to stop a maximal GXT?
a. DBP measurement of 120 mmHg
b. HR = 80% of age-predicted maximum
c. SBP measurement of 270 mmHg
d. subject requests to stop
Answer:
The correct answer is B:
HR = 80% of age-predicted maximum is NOT a reason to stop maximal GXT.
Explanation:
Maximal graded exercise test allows physicians to evaluate patients ability to perform cardiovascular exercise (functional capacity), an also detect if there are any zones of ischemia in the muscle heart due to arteriosclerosis.
To do so, the patient would be asked to walk on a treadmill and speed and slope of the treadmill will be increased gradually during the test. EKG, heart rate, and blood pressure will be recorded and compared afterwards.
The heart rate target to make a proper evaluation is 85% of the maximal predicted heart rate.
Which o the following statements is not true about the respiratory mucosa?
a. The cilia can "taste" bitter toxins in the air.
b. The cilia respond to toxins by moving more rapidly to remove the toxin.
c. The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
d. All of the above statements are true about the respiratory mucosa.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Cilia are tiny hair-like projections or appendages on the surface of the outside of the cells, in respiratory tract cells not move on which cilia are present, however, these projections are helpful in moving debris like microorganisms like bacteria, dust, and toxins out of the lungs.
Cilia can sense bitter toxins or substances in the air and remove or expel it, these present on the epithelial cells in the human airway that taste bitter compounds remove it. Cilia moving more rapid in turn of toxin response. The exposure time has no effective role in expelling the toxin by cilia.
Thus, the correct answer is option C.
Answer:
The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
Explanation:
The longer a cilia is exposed to a toxin, the more effectively it moves to expel it.
The nurse is obtaining the vitals of a 76-year-old African
American male patient. The nurse notes that the BP of the right arm
is 187/98 and of the left arm is 201/76. What would cause the
difference in the right arm vs. the left. Is this Blood pressure
anticipated or unanticipated for the patient?
Answer:
In general, epidemiologically speaking, it is known that in African Americans the tendency is towards suffering hypertensive disease. So encountering pressures above 140/90 mmHg is not an uncommon thing, though not what should be. And blood pressures above that level are considered uncommonly high and need to be treated because this will affect the brain, and most particularly the kidneys. Hypertension is also very common in senior African Americans.
Given this introduction, the answers to the questions would be:
1. The cause for the great difference between the blood pressure of the right arm (187/98) and that of the left arm (201/76) is an advancement of the cardiovascular disease affecting the patient. It means that the arm where the higher number in the systolic pressure happened, is probably presenting with an obstruction of some kind, making the issue of higher blood pressure, even worse.
2. Although as said before, hypertension is an epidemiologic reality in African Americans, and especially in seniors, so it is expected that the patient will have an elevated BP, over the expected norm. However, the two pressures obtained on different arms indicates that there is something going on, as the elevation over the baseline for hypertensive patients has been overcome in systolic pressure by much more than 10 mmHg. This patient will need immediate intervention.
Answer:
the minute difference in systolic pressure in both arms is anticipated. However, the huge pressure difference in diastolic pressure in both arms is unanticipated.
Explanation:
If the difference in BP reading between both arms is more than 15 mm Hg and the difference is consistent, it indicates some issue. The pumping of blood from the heart to left arm has more pressure as compared to the right arm and it is normal if the difference in systolic pressure in both arms is less than 10 mm Hg. The diastolic pressure shall remain same in both arms because the blood is not pumped directly into the diastole. The diastolic BP tells about the arterial pressure and it should be low so that the heart does not have increase its pumping speed in order to compensate the diastolic pressure.
The African-American patient does not any unanticipated increase in systolic pressure in both arms as the left arm systolic pressure is usually higher. However, the difference in diastolic pressure in both arms has a difference of more than 20 mm Hg which is alarming. This might be a sign of some blocked artery or peripheral artery disease, diabetes, kidney disease or some heart defect.
Immunizations are less effective in malnourished children because immunizations are actually more effective because of the small body size. their blood circulation is too slow. their immune systems are compromised. their body tissues are growing too slowly.
Answer:
Immune systems of malnourished children are compromised.
Explanation:
Immunizations in malnourished kids are less powerful on the grounds that their immune system is frail and can not react ordinarily to the procedure of inoculation.
Administrating immunizations to such kids can't enact their immune systems on the grounds that frail response are acquired and are not ready to deliver sufficient antibodies against pathogens or antigens.
Malnourished children have less effective immunizations due to weakened immune systems caused by malnutrition, influencing the immune response to vaccines.
Explanation:Immunizations are less effective in malnourished children because their immune systems are compromised. Malnutrition, particularly inadequate protein intake, can lead to decreased activity of the complement system, malfunction of phagocytes, and reduced production of antibodies and cytokines. Conditions like undernutrition weaken children's immune responses, making them more prone to infections and reducing the effectiveness of immunizations.
Which of the following is the most common eating disorder?
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Bulimia nervosa
c. Binge-eating disorder
d. Pica
Answer:
The correct option is: C. Binge eating disorder
Explanation:
Binge eating disorder is a type of eating disorder which is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating. This eating disorder includes food addiction and compulsive overeating. The common symptoms of this disorder includes uncontrollable and rapid eating, without feeling hungry, and feeling unhappy, depressed and guilty because of it.
Binge eating disorder is the most prevalent or the most common eating disorder.
Male external genitalia do not develop
A. In the presence of an X chromosome.
B. Without androgen secretion by the fetal testes
C. Without prior regression of the Mullerian ducts
D. If Wolffian ducts develop.
E. In the absence of estrogen in the fetus.
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. Without androgen secretion by the fetal testes
Explanation:
Androgen secretion by the fetal testis is important for male external genitalia development or sexual differentiation. Testosterone especially has a major role in the development of the testes, prostate and other cells and tissue responsible for the development of the reproductive organs and external genitalia.
Androgen mainly testosterone is metabolized and DHT is required for androgen-induced development of the external genitalia.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. Without androgen secretion by the fetal testes.
To stop arterial bleeding, pressure must be applied between the damaged artery and the heart.
a. True
b. False
Answer: Option A. True
Explanation:
Arterial bleeding is a blood flow in an artery in which blood exits the wound in spurts with the heartbeat.
To stop arterial bleeding, direct pressure is applied between the damaged artery and the heart.
Placing the pressure on the wound helps in narrowing the blood vessels manually that results to stem blood flow and stops arterial bleeding.
There are several primary tools used for direct pressure including pressure bandages, commercial tourniquets, and hemostatic dressings.
Hence, the given statement is true.
The correct answer is True.
Explanation
In the case of arterial bleeding, it is important to provide first aid to prevent the person from bleeding to death.
The procedure that we can perform while the help arrives is to forcefully exert pressure on the wound and try to raise it above the height of the heart (if it is an upper limb). However, when we see that this procedure does not have any effect and the blood continues to flow, we must put pressure in the middle area between the artery or wound and the heart, in this way bleeding should stop due to the force applied to the artery. So, the correct answer is True.
Boyle's law states that gas volume is
A) directly proportional to pressure.
B) inversely proportional to pressure.
C) inversely proportional to temperature.
D) directly proportional to temperature.
E) both A and B
Answer:
The correct answer is option 'b': inversely proportional to pressure.
Explanation:
According to Boyle's Law we have
For a gas at an constant temperature Pressure of the gas varies inversely with the volume occupied by the gas.
Mathematically we can state that
At constant temperature
[tex]Pressure\alpha \frac{1}{Volume}[/tex]
Thus from the given options, option 'b' is correct
Boyle's Law, a fundamental concept in chemistry, states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure assuming constant temperature and gas quantity. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.
In the study of gases, Boyle's Law is a fundamental notion that defines the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas. This law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure, provided the temperature and quantity of gas remain constant. Hence, option B is the correct choice. It implies that when the pressure of gas goes up, its volume goes down and vice versa. For instance, if you try to compress a gas into a smaller space, you increase its pressure.
Learn more about Boyle's Law here:
https://brainly.com/question/2862004
#SPJ6
The lower border of the cavity of the larynx is formed by the:
a. epiglottis.
b. cricoid cartilage.
c. glottis.
d. thyroid cartilage.
Answer: b. cricoid cartilage.
Explanation:
The larynx cavity extends from the triangle shaped inlet that is called as the epiglottis which opens to the circular outlet that is called as circoid cartilage at the lower border. The circoid cartilage forms continuity with that of the lumen of the trachea. The mucous membrane which provides the lining to the larynx forms two pairs of the lateral folds that opens inward inside the cavity.
Olfactory epithelium is found:
a. lining the nasopharynx.
b. covering the superior turbinate.
c. lining the paranasal sinuses
d. in all of the above.
Answer:
The correct option is: b. covering the superior turbinate.
Explanation:
The olfactory epithelium is a part of olfactory system that is responsible for the detection of odors. It is an epithellial tissue which is present in on the surface of the superior turbinate or superior conchae, and septum inside the nasal cavity.
This epithellial tissue consists of the following cells: supporting cells, basal cells, brush cells, and the olfactory sensory neurons.
The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the:
a. trachea.
b. nose.
c. nasopharynx.
d. oropharynx.
Answer:
The eustachian tube is a canal that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, which consists of the upper throat and the back of the nasal cavity. It controls the pressure within the middle ear, making it equal with the air pressure
The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx. Its function is crucial for normal hearing as it equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere. Therefore, the correct answer would be C
Explanation:The eustachian tube is a structure within the human body which plays a key role in the auditory system. It connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx, which is an area of the pharynx, located behind the nose and above the rear part of the throat. Option c, 'nasopharynx', is the correct answer to this question. This tube is used to equalize the pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere, which is essential for normal hearing.
Learn more about Eustachian Tube here:https://brainly.com/question/31720337
#SPJ6
The function of hemoglobin is to
A) carry oxygen.
B) carry carbon dioxide.
C) aid in the process of blood clotting.
D) A, B, and C
E) A and B only
Answer: E) A and B only
Explanation:
Hemoglobin can be define as red color protein which consists of iron group in the red blood cells. It carries oxygen to all the organs of the body and tissues and transports carbon dioxide from all the tissues and organs back to the lungs so that the carbon dioxide get expelled out of the body. It helps in transport of gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen). But does not help in clotting of blood.
Under resting conditions, the SA node fires at an intrinsic rhythmical rate of 80 to 85 beats per minute.
a. True
b. False
Answer: b. False
Explanation:
The SA node is a natural pacemaker. It consists of a cluster of cells that are situated to the walls of the right atrium of the heart. The electrical impulses produce at that place. It is also called as sinus node. The cells of the pacemaker posses their own intrinsic rhythm, so as to maintain the continuous pumping of the heart. In the rest, the SA node causes the heart to beat at a rate of 50-100 beats per minute. During activity the heart rate rises over 100 beats per minute.
The tricuspid valve is between the left atrium and ventricle and is under the most pressure to block backflow of flood during ventricular systole.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The previous sentence is false.
Explanation:
The tricuspid valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle. Also,The valve which is under the most pressure to block blacflow of blood during ventricular systole is the mitral valve. Mitral valve is the one which is located between the left atrium and left ventricle.
The heart works with two processes: diastole and systole. Systole occurs when the heart contract himself to expulse blood to the vessels, and when the heart relaxes while it fulfills of blood is called diastole. During the systole process the tricuspid valve needs to be closed to allow the increase of pressures inside the heart cameras and then allow the expulse of blood. But, during diastole, tricuspid valve needs to be open to allow the correct filling of right side of the heart.
Parietal cells secrete
A) enteropeptidase.
B) gastrin.
C) hydrochloric acid.
D) mucus.
E) pepsinogen.
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Parietal cells secrete:___, would be, C: Hydrocloric acid (HCI).
Explanation:
Parietal cells are epithelial cells that can be found in the gastric glands both at the linings of both the fundus and cardia portions of the stomach. These cells are responsible in the process of digestion and absorption of nutrients, for the production of two chemical substances: intrinsic factor, necessary for the correct absorption of vitamin B12 later on in the ileum and also HCI, or hydrocloric acid. This acid will lower the pH of the stomach´s contents to enable correct and proper enzymatic work on proteins, most importantly. Its presence also stimulates the singaling by neurons to other organs of the GI tract to produce the necessary enzymes for proper digestion and absorption of the different nutrients.
______________ in the urine is an early sign of nephropathy.
Answer:
protein
Explanation:
The left ventricle pumps blood to the
A) right ventricle.
B) right atrium.
C) pulmonary circuit.
D) aorta.
E) lungs.
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
During cardiac cycle, when the left ventricle is full, mitral valve closes to prevent blood to flow backwards into the atrium while the ventricle contracts. This is the end of diastole and the beginning of systole.
The left ventricle contracts and blood flows through aortic valve into the aorta and to de body. The closure of aortic valve establishes systole end.
Name and describe the functional unit of the kidney. Summarize the functions of each part.
Answer:
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is nephron. Each kidney consists of two parts a renal corpuscle which is the site for blood filtration and renal tubule in which filtrate enters and passes through.
Renal tubule is divided into PCT(proximal convoluted tubule), loop of Henle (nephron loop) and DCT(distal convoluted tubule).
Function of nephron
1. Renal corpuscle: It is made up of two component glomerulus(tuft of capillaries) and bowman's capsule. Glomerulus is having pores in its membrane called fenestrae through which blood is filtered into the bowmen's capsule.
2. PCT: The function of PCT is mostly to reabsorb the materials from filtrate by active and passive transport. Absorption of glucose, amino acids, hormones, vitamins, and ions takes place in this segment.
3. Henle loop: It contains ascending and descending loop. The descending loop is permeable to water and ascending loop is permeable to ions. So reabsorption of water and ions like sodium takes place in this region.
4. DCT: Here reabsorption of ions takes place and it is mostly impermeable to water and it opens into collecting duct.
The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron, composed of the Renal Corpuscle, Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted Tubule, and the Collecting Duct. Each part has its specific functions in filtration, reabsorption and regulating the pH balance of urine.
Explanation:The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron. Each kidney has several millions of these tiny filtration units. The nephron is composed of various parts, namely: the Renal Corpuscle (Bowman's Capsule and Glomerulus), Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted Tubule, and the Collecting Duct.
Renal Corpuscle: It is the initial blood-filtering component of a nephron. It consists of two parts: Bowman's Capsule and the Glomerulus. The latter is a network of tiny blood capillaries that perform the initial filtration of blood.Proximal Convoluted Tubule: It absorbs glucose, sodium ions, and other essential nutrients that are suspended in the fluid passing through it.Loop of Henle: Here, a large amount of water and sodium ions are reabsorbed into the blood.Distal Convoluted Tubule: It regulates the pH of urine by either secreting hydrogen ions into it or absorbing bicarbonate from it.Collecting Duct: It reabsorbs water from the urine, concentrating it and maintaining the balance of body fluids.Learn more about Nephron here:https://brainly.com/question/34373044
#SPJ6
What impact would low blood pressure have on kidneys? What symptoms might you expect with a decrease in kidney functions?
Answer:
Continuous low pressure can affect the kidneys and other vital parts of the body. It can cause kidney failure and other diseases related to the kidney.
Strokes are one of the most common factor for the low blood pressure. This is so because there is an inadequate blood supply to the organs of the body.
This is because the flow rate is not enough to reach the organs. The decrease in the kidney failure is related to difficulty in urination, swelling in the feet and legs.
These are some common symptoms of kidney dysfunction.
A patient eligible for benefits is one who:
A-) has received services from the physician
B-) is not covered under the insurance plan.
C-) has family members who are covered under the insurance
plan.
D-) has current coverage under a health insurance plan.
E-) none of the above.
Answer: D-) has current coverage under a health insurance plan.
Explanation:
The health insurance plan is the plan which covers the whole or a part of the medical expenses that are required to be used for the purpose of treatment, diagnosis and maintenance of health in every aspect of age.
The person who is under the coverage of the health insurance plan is eligible for benefits in the case of medical emergency.
Which of the following is true of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx?
a. Their origin is the hyoid bone.
b. They move the larynx as a whole.
c. They serve in voice production.
d. Both A and B are correct.
Answer:
The correct option is: c. They serve in voice production
Explanation:
Larynx is the organ responsible for protecting the trachea, sound production, manipulating the volume and the pitch, and is also involved in breathing.
The two types of muscles present in the larynx are the intrinsic muscles and extrinsic muscles.
The intrinsic muscles are further divided into: Phonatory muscles and Respiratory muscles. The respiratory muscles assist in breathing by moving apart the vocal cords and the phonatory muscles are responsible for producing sound by moving the vocal cords together.
The intrinsic muscles of the larynx serve in voice production by controlling the tension and position of the vocal cords, thereby not primarily moving the larynx as a whole or originating from the hyoid bone.
Explanation:The intrinsic muscles of the larynx are vital for various functions of the larynx, which includes swallowing, breathing, and most importantly voice production. Option c is the correct answer as the main function of intrinsic muscles is to control the tension and position of the vocal cords, playing a crucial role in voice production. Therefore, they do not primarily move the larynx as a whole or originate from the hyoid bone.
Learn more about Intrinsic muscles of the larynx here:https://brainly.com/question/31587072
#SPJ3
Energy for contraction of myocardial cells comes primarily from
a. aerobic respiration in the mitochondria
b. anaerobic respiration in the cytosol
c. glycoludid in the cytosol
d. ATP that is stored while the heart is not contracting
e. creatinine phosphate
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Energy for contraction of myocardial cells comes primarily from:___, would be, A: aerobic respiration in the mitochondria.
Explanation:
In order for the heart muscles (myocardium) to contract, there are a series of elements that need to be present. One of them, and most vital, is calcium, which will activate the connection of myosin and actin, the filaments in cardiomyocytes, the very units of muscular tissues in the heart. However, even if calcium were present, without ATP, the molecule of energy that will allow the process to happen, then contractions would not be possible. There simply would not be energy to allow the chemical reactions. The one organelle within the cell that is responsible to ensure there is ATP available, is the mitochondria. This production of ATP by mitochondria, happens through the process of aerobic respiration. This is why the answer is A.
Which of the following is not a postabsorptive state reaction?
a) Breakdown of liver glycogen
b) Lipogenesis
c) Gluconeogensis using lactic acid
d) Gluconeogensis using amino acids
e) None of the above
Answer: b) Lipogenesis
Explanation:
The postabsorptive state reaction is a reaction which occurs in the state of fasting. In this postabsorptive state the digestive tract remains empty as a result of this the breakdown of the body reserves takes place.
All except the lipogenesis is not the postabsorptive state reaction. This is because of the fact that lipogenesis involves the synthesis of the fatty acids and lipids from typically the carbohydrates and other substances.
Lipogenesis is not a postabsorptive state reaction; it occurs during the absorptive state when the body is converting excess energy into fat for storage.
Explanation:The question asks which of the following is not a postabsorptive state reaction. During the postabsorptive state, the body primarily focuses on providing energy by breaking down stored reserves, such as glycogenolysis (the breakdown of liver glycogen), and gluconeogenesis using lactic acid or amino acids to create new glucose molecules. Therefore, options a), c), and d) are reactions that occur during the postabsorptive state. However, lipogenesis (option b) is the process of synthesizing fats from acetyl CoA, which primarily occurs during the absorptive state, when the body is storing excess energy. So, b) Lipogenesis is the correct choice as it is not a postabsorptive state reaction.
Oral communications class
The difference between a thesis statement and the general
purpose of the speech is....
A. The thesis statement identifies the main idea of the speech
where the general purpose statement explains you want to achieve
with the speech.
B. The general purpose statement offers your opinion of the
speech, the thesis statement provides the facts.
C. The thesis statement is longer and more detailed than the
general purpose statement.
D. The thesis statement and the general purpose statement are
the same thing.
Answer: A. The thesis statement identifies the main idea of the speech where the general purpose statement explains you want to achieve with the speech.
Explanation:
The general purpose of the speed includes the statement(s) which is a declarative sentence. It gives the introduction of the topic of the interest. It gives a brief understanding about the topic to the audience. The thesis statement is the main notion and objective of the topic and it is basically the entire conclusion of the topic.
Final answer:
The thesis statement identifies the main idea of the speech, stating the topic, angle, and aspects covered, while the general purpose statement outlines the overall objective of the speech, such as to inform or persuade the audience. So the correct option is A.
Explanation:
The difference between a thesis statement and the general purpose of a speech lies in the objectives within a presentation. Option A is the accurate answer. The thesis statement identifies the main idea or the central claim of the speech, often summarizing the speaker's position and the key points that will be addressed throughout. It typically appears at the end of the introduction and precisely states the topic, angle, and the aspects of the topic that will be covered. Conversely, the general purpose statement delineates the speaker's overall objective with the speech, such as to inform, persuade, entertain, or inspire the audience. This statement helps to guide the speaker in keeping the audience at the center of the presentation, establishing a central theme, and setting a realistic goal for the speech's intent, but it is not usually shared verbatim with the audience.
It’s important to note that while the thesis statement provides a clear focus for the speech, the general purpose statement is more about the speaker's intention and the effect they hope to have on the audience. Therefore, although both are crucial for planning and delivering an effective speech, they serve different functions in the preparation and execution of the presentation.
Place the component sof the pharynx in the order air flows through them during inspirations. ___________, ____________, _______________
Answer:
The pharynx is a very important anatomical part of the human body because it is the common roadway for both food and fluids, and also for air. Because of this, and the importance that air and food do not go to the same place, mainly the lungs, the pharynx has a structure of skeletal and smooth muscle, as well as accessory anatomical features that will enable it to work as it should. Also, another anatomical structure derives from the pharynx, with the intention of becoming the tube for air passage; the larynx.
Putting the passage of food aside, and bearing in mind that the pharynx is the first airway, or upper airway, passage, continued lower down by the laryn, the answer to the question above would be thus:
Place the components of the pharynx in the order in which air flows through them during inspirations:
1. Nasopharinx: This structure is the one that is attached to the nasal cavity and it is separated from the mouth, or oral cavity by the soft palate. It is here that air passage begins as it descends towards the lungs.
2. Oropharinx: this is the part of the pharynx where both air and foodstuffs can mix. However, it is also important for air passage and it is the next step towards the lungs.
3. Laringopharynx: this is the structure where the pharynx gives rise to the laringeal tract, which will be the one that connects pharynx with trachea. the Laringopharynx has structures that will close whenever food is passing, so that nothing, except air, can enter the airways. And it will remain open for air passage to the larynx.
Dialysis in which blood is circulated through a machine and replaced is called ___________.
Answer:
The correct answer is: Hemodialysis
Explanation:
Hemodialysis is a technique or a process used for the purification of blood, in case of a kidney failure. In this technique, a hemodialysis machine and special filter, called the dialyzer, is used for blood purification. The dialyzer is also known as the artificial kidney.
The process of hemodialysis involves the diffusion of solute particles across the semipermeable membrane.
In a healthy heart, electrical activity begin in the
a. bundle of His
b. ventricles
c. right atrium
d. the pacemaker
Answer:
D. The pacemaker.
Explanation:
The electrical signal starts in the sinoatrial (SA) node.
The SA node is also known as the heart’s natural pacemaker. It's located in the right atrium at the entrance of the superior vena cava.
The impulse starts in the sinus node (SA) then the electrical activity propagate and stimulate the myocardium, causing its contraction, this forces blood into the ventricles.
Which of the following is true concerning oxygen in regards to aerobic respiration?
a. It is the only substrate of aerobic respiration.
b. It directly receives electrons and protons from NAD+ and FAD.
c. It is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration.
d. It directly transfers electrons and protons to NAD+ and FAD.
e. It transports electrons to the mitochondrion.
Answer:
Correct answer is c. It is the final electron acceptor in the aerobic respiration.
Explanation:
Oxygen is a substrate of the aerobic respiration, but it is not the only one. Glucose is also a substrate.
Oxygen is used in the cells to be the final electron acceptor, this means that receives the electrons from NADH and FADH2. That is why, when there is no oxygen available for aerobic respiration, the NADH and FADH2 cannot be oxidized and therefore remain in their reduced form. As a consequence, they cannot be re-utilized during different cellular processes that are NAD+ and FAD dependant, such as glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation and cellular respiration. This means that the ATP synthesis stops.
Oxygen itself does not transport any electrones, this are transported by the cytochrome complex in the mitochondrial membrane. But oxygen is key in receiving those electrones, therefore a very important piece of the electron transport across the mitochondria.
Drugs that are the most effective at treating overactive bladder increase _____________ activity
Answer:
The best answer for the statement: Drugs that are most effective at treating overactive bladder increase:___ activity, would be: anticholinergic activity
Explanation:
Overactive bladder (OAB) is a condition in which, due to disordered firing of the nerves in the bladder walls, and also constant stimulation by ACH (acetylcholine), the neurotransmitter of the central nervous system that activates smooth and skeletal muscles, a person may constantly feel the need to urinate, even if the bladder has not filled to full capacity. It can become a really difficult condition to treat, but before using medication, there are a lot of non-pharmacological treatments that are used in preference to actual chemical substances. However, when these therapies do not work, doctors will prescribe anti-cholinergic medication, which block muscarinic receptors in the muscle walls of the bladder, and thus prevent these walls from reacting to ACH. The end result is to reduce the sense of urination urgency and increase bladder retention and capacity.
Drugs for overactive bladder increase parasympathetic activity which is achieved by acting as antimuscarinics or beta-3 adrenergic agonists. These mechanisms relax the bladder muscles and help control an overactive bladder.
Explanation:Drugs that are most effective at treating overactive bladder function primarily by increasing parasympathetic activity. This action is achieved by the drug acting as antimuscarinics, inhibiting the activity of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors in the bladder. This causes relaxation of the bladder muscle. An example of such a drug is oxybutynin. It is important to note this effect as overactivity of the bladder is often due to an overactive parasympathetic nervous system.
However, some drugs called beta-3 adrenergic agonists such as mirabegron can also effectively treat overactive bladder by relaxing the bladder muscle to prevent sudden, involuntary contractions. They work by stimulating the beta-3 adrenergic receptors in the bladder. This in turn increases the bladder's capacity to hold urine, reduces the frequency of urination, and helps to control an overactive bladder.
Learn more about Overactive Bladder here:https://brainly.com/question/34382537
#SPJ12
Describe the function of both the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins. Are these vessels components of pulmonary criculation or systemic circulation?
Answer:
The respiratory and circulatory systems have always worked as a team to maintain the human body alive. In fact, life would not be possible if the two of them did not work in unison. As such, when the heart pumps blood from the right ventricle, it pushes this de-oxygenated blood towards the lungs for oxygenation and then the vessels that pass through the lungs return the newly oxygenated blood to the left atria, and then left ventricle, to be pumped into the system. In order to achieve this, the circulatory system counts with a pulmonary circulatory system and a systemic circulation. The first is formed by the pulmonary veins and arterties, while the second is formed by the aorta.
So given this explanation, the answers to the questions would be:
1. The vessels of the pulmonary circulation are the pulmonary arteries, whose role is to lead de-oxygenated blood from the right ventricle towards the two lungs for gas exchange, and the two pulmonary veins, who return from the lungs with the newly oxygenated blood to enter the left atria, from which blood passes to the left ventricle. From the ventricle blood is then pumped into the circulatory system.
2. Both the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins are part of the pulmonary circulation, while the aorta and vena cavas are the main vessels responsible for systemic circulation starting from the heart.