There are many different kinds of sweeteners: white sugar, brown sugar, sucanat, honey, maple syrup, Splenda, aspartame, stevia. Which one is the best for you?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The answer is Honey.

Explanation:

For my concept the best sweetener is and will continue to be honey, because it is a natural product without any other chemical or preparation components that alter its natural condition.

Answer 2

Final answer:

Choosing the best sweetener involves balancing natural sweeteners like honey and maple syrup, which offer slight nutritional benefits, with artificial sweeteners like aspartame and stevia that are calorie-free. Both types have their places in a diet, but moderation is essential, and whole foods should be prioritized for nutritional needs.

Explanation:

When considering which sweetener is best for you, it's important to balance between natural sources of sweetness and artificial or non-nutritive sweeteners. Natural sweeteners like honey, maple syrup, and molasses can offer nutritional benefits such as minerals and antioxidants, albeit in small amounts. These natural sweeteners, however, are still sources of added sugar and should be used in moderation. On the other hand, artificial sweeteners, including aspartame, sucralose, and stevia, provide a sweet taste without the calories. These are much sweeter than sucrose, so only a small amount is needed. It's notable that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and Health Canada have approved several artificial sweeteners for use, confirming their safety based on extensive reviews. However, there is ongoing debate about the long-term health effects of artificial sweeteners. Ultimately, the best sweetener for an individual depends on personal health goals, dietary needs, and taste preferences. It might be beneficial to use natural sweeteners in limited amounts for their nutritional benefits and flavors, and artificial sweeteners can be a calorie-free way to enjoy sweet tastes. Moderation is key, and considering whole foods rich in minerals and antioxidants should be a priority.


Related Questions

What are cell membranes composed of?

Answers

Answer:

Proteins, phospholipids and cholestorol

Explanation:

Cell membranes are what binds the internal cells. The cholesterol contributes to strengthening the bilayer and allowing it to be more flexible but also less permeable to water-soluble materials. While the proteins in the membrane enable molecules to enter or exit the cell.

Types of traction used to treat a fracture include all the following except:
a. Bryant traction
b. Halo traction
c. Bucks traction
d. Belvedere traction

Answers

Answer:

The answer is D: Belvedere traction.

Explanation:

The types of traction used in orthopedics to correct fractures are:

- Bryant traction: It is used in children with femur and pelvis fractures for correction of congenital hip injuries.

- Halo traction: use a vest to immobilize fractures of the neck or spine.

- Buck traction: Ropes are used to immobilize the fracture.

Answer:

d. Belvedere traction.

Explanation:

Bryant traction, Halo traction, and Bucks traction are used to treat a fracture.

Bryant traction is used in children with problems in their hips or femur fracture.

Halo traction is used to help children with problems in their spine, this traction pulls from the muscles and joints.

Bucks traction is a type of skin traction that helps the bone to be in its proper place to heal correctly.

In skeletal muscle, the role of the voltage-gated Na + channel is to:
a. propagate the action potential from the neuromuscular synapse over the sarcolemma
b. open ligand-gated ionotropic channels at the neuromuscular synapse
c. provide the increase in positive charge that removes the DHP block from the RYR receptor
d. provide the positive charge that moves the tropomyosin molecule on the actin thin filament
e. a and c are correct

Answers

Answer:

The correct option here is e) both a and c are correct

Explanation:

The voltage gated Na+ channel that is present in the skeletal muscle plays a very important role in both -

a) helps in initiating the action potential from the neuro muscular synapse over the sarcolemma and,

c) helps in increasing the  positive charge that removes the DHP block from the RYR receptor

These channels helps in initiating the action potential of a person and also in the propagation of the cells.

The principle effect of ADH is to:
a. increase blood pressure in the glomerulus.
b. cause the release of renin.
c. inhibit aldosterone release.
d. increase the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option D.

Explanation:

Antidiuretic hormone or ADH is a hormone which helps the body to maintain the amount of water by reducing the loss of water through urine. This hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus which is stored in the pituitary gland.  

The hormone acts by binding to the receptor which stimulates the insertion of "water channels" in the tubule membranes of kidney especially in Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. These kidney aquaporins help the absorption of water from the urine reducing the loss of water.  

Thus, option D is the correct answer.

Answer: D) increase the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.

Explanation:

The principle of ADH is to increased in the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collected duct as, the action of ADH on receptors enhances the water permeability the and insertion of aquaporin AQP-2 channel in the cell membrane. The main function of the ADH is to conserved water through kidney and get released in posterior pituitary gland.

What chemical mediator initiates an inflammatory reaction?

Answers

Answer:

 Histamine, is the chemical mediator initiates an inflammatory reaction. An inflammatory mediator is basically defined as that act in blood vessels and cells for promote response of inflammatory mediator.  Histamine is the main chemical mediator which are released from the cells during inflammation, which increases vascular permeability. It is stored in granules and mast cells and get released immediately when the cells get injured.

What bacteria are most associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome?
a) Clostridium
b) Campylobacter
c) E. coli
d) Shigella

Answers

The correct answer is B. Campylobacter

Explanation:

Guillain-Barre syndrome is a disease in which the nerves and muscles are weakened usually as the immune system attacks them which leads to changes in muscles strength, pain, and even life-threatening conditions. Although the causes of this syndrome have not been completely determined in most of the cases the condition seems to be triggered by an infection and around 30% of people who experienced an infection before the syndrome had an infection caused by Campylobacter, which suggests the syndrome is related to this type of bacteria, although it has been also linked in few cases with influenza virus, Zika virus and others. Considering this, the bacteria that is most associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome is the Campylobacter.

In the body, the steps of gas exchange,or respiration include:
a. pulmonary ventilation
b. external respiration
c. internal respiration
d. A and B are correct
e. A, B and C are correct

Answers

Answer:

The answer is E: A, B And C are correct.

Explanation:

The external respiration is that which occurs at the level of the pulmonary alveoli with the capillaries of the pulmonary vessels, producing an exchange of gases, releasing carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveolus, and in turn, this delivers oxygen.

The internal respiration is the one between the tissue capillaries and the cells where the blood releases the oxygen and receives the CO2, turning the oxygenated blood into deoxygenated.

The pulmonary ventilation on the other hand takes oxygen from the air we breathe and takes it to the lungs.

Final answer:

Respiration includes pulmonary ventilation, external respiration, and internal respiration. Pulmonary ventilation involves the movement of air in and out of the lungs. External respiration is the gas exchange between air and blood, while internal respiration is the gas exchange between blood and body tissues.

Explanation:

The steps of gas exchange, also known as respiration, in the body indeed include pulmonary ventilation, external respiration, and internal respiration. Pulmonary ventilation is the process of moving air in and out of the lungs. External respiration is the gas exchange between the air in the lungs and the blood, while internal respiration refers to the gas exchange between the blood and body tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is E: A, B, and C are correct.

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A condition known as Pulmonary Hypertension is characterized by high blood pressure in the pulmonary circuit. Which chamber of the heart would this condition most directly affect, and why?

Answers

Final answer:

Pulmonary Hypertension directly affects the right ventricle of the heart due to the increased effort required to pump blood through the high-resistance pulmonary arteries, leading to potential hypertrophy and heart failure.

Explanation:

The condition known as Pulmonary Hypertension is characterized by high blood pressure in the pulmonary circuit, specifically affecting the arteries that supply blood to the lungs. This condition most directly affects the right ventricle of the heart. In pulmonary hypertension, because the blood pressure in the lungs' arteries is elevated, the right ventricle must work harder to pump blood through these vessels. Over time, this increased workload can lead to the thickening of the right ventricle's muscular walls (hypertrophy), and potentially, the failure of the right ventricle.

Why the Right Ventricle is Affected

The right ventricle is responsible for pumping deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation.

Increased resistance in the pulmonary arteries forces the right ventricle to exert more effort in pumping blood.

This can lead to right ventricular hypertrophy and ultimately, right heart failure if untreated.

Sustained muscle spasms from hypocalcemia are known as
a. virilism.
b. synergism.
c. tetany.
d. lactation.

Answers

The correct answer is C. Tetany

Explanation:

In medicine, hypocalcemia refers to a low level of calcium in the blood or a deficiency which is related to lack of vitamin D but also other conditions such as pancreatitis, kidney failures, etc. Besides this, serious deficiency of calcium can lead to confusion, heart attacks and tetany which refers to a type of seizure or involuntary muscule spams that are mostly related to hypocalcemia, although other factors such as excess of potassium or low levels of magnesium or carbon dioxide can also cause it. Therefore, the sustained muscle spasms from hypocalcemia are known as tetany.

Answer:

The answer is c. tetany.

Explanation:

Tetany (also known as tetanic seizure) is a term used to describe a condition whereby involuntary contraction of muscles (or muscle spasms) occurs in parts or systems of the human body as a result of hypocalcemia (low concentration of calcium in the blood); usually, low calcium levels lead to cramps, involuntary contraction of muscles in the arms, hands, legs and feet, and spasms in the larynx.

Which word means pertaining to the mood or state of mind?
a. emotion
b. obsession
c. affective
d. therapy

Answers

Answer:

a emotion

Explanation:

A strong feeling (emotion), arises as a mental state, or intense state of drive or mental unrest, which originally is believed to direct toward a definite object when human brain emerged. The latter is evidenced in both behavior and in psychological effects, the autonomic nervous system manifestations will follow. Based on discoveries made through modern neural mapping ,the neurobiological theory of human emotion is that emotion is a pleasant or unpleasant mental state as it forms in the limbic system of the human brain.

Common emotional states can result from a combination of different experiences and are expressed as feelings of , amusement, anger, certainty, , disagreement, , dislike, fear, guilt, happiness, hate, and many others.

Increased temperature results in decreased O2 unloading from hemoglobin.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer: False.

Explanation:

The main function of hemoglobin is to transport oxygen to the various cells of the body. For this process to occur the oxygen from the lungs gets attached to the hemoglobin and travels throughout the body to reach at every possible place.

This hemoglobin also gets attached to the carbon dioxide from various cells of the body to lungs for gaseous exchange.

There are many factors that affect the loading and unloading of oxygen from hemoglobin. The increased temperature increases the rate of unloading of oxygen from hemoglobin and increased temperature does not favors loading of oxygen to hemoglobin.

Hence, the given statement is False.

Final answer:

Increased temperature actually increases the unloading of O2 from hemoglobin, not decreases. The temperature increase alters the hemoglobin protein shape to release oxygen more easily

Explanation:

The statement is False. Increased temperature typically causes a greater unloading of O2 from hemoglobin. This happens because when the temperature increases, it alters the shape of the hemoglobin protein in a way that makes it release oxygen more easily.

This concept is known as the Bohr Effect, where high temperatures and an increase in the concentration of CO2 result in hemoglobin releasing more oxygen.

You could think of it as a mechanism that helps deliver more oxygen to vigorously working muscles that are producing more heat and CO2.

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Why does whole grain products reduce the risk of coronary heart disease?

Answers

Answer:

Whole grain products show the effect of statin drugs that reduce heart disease.

Explanation:

Coronary heart disease leads to serious health problem and the coronary arteries becomes too narrow. The oxygen supply to the blood decreases in coronary heart disease.

There is scientific evidence that the intake of whole grain products reduces  the risk of the disease. The increase in the quantity of whole grain can reduce the risk of the disease by 40% , the whole grain has the effect equal to the statin drug.

During an open inguinal hernia repair, which of the following incisions will be made?
A. McBurney
B. oblique
C. lower midline
D. subcostal

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B oblique

Explanation:

This incision is more practical because it will allow the surgeon to use the fascia of the muscles to close the anatomical defect, also it is less invasive.

Give an example of drug-drug interactions wherein two drugs result to severe consequences if they are taken together.

Answers

Answer:

fluoxetine and phenelzine

Explanation:

Drug interactions are becoming an increased pattern since multiple prescription ocurrs often in aged pacients. The modern health prescrpitions usually involve 6 or more drugs for an average 55 year old patient daily. . The deaths of notable artists and celebrities due to misuse or overdose of medication ocurred often as drug interactions took place.

The combination of substances affects the nature of a drug, then the effects are ither increased or diminished, but when fluoxetine and phenelzine combine, the interaction can result in a critical conditin called:

central serotonin syndrome. The mental status changes will show agitation, tachycardia, diaphoresis leading to death.

Such symptoms can  usually develop with only 1 or 2 dose of fluoxetine if combined with phenelzine. Remember always to seek a doctor.

Severe drug-drug interactions can occur when combining substances like alcohol and benzodiazepines with heroin, or alcohol with cocaine, both of which can lead to significant CNS depression or cardiovascular risks, respectively.

An example of a drug-drug interaction with severe consequences is the combination of alcohol and benzodiazepines with heroin. This particular combination can lead to dramatic effects on the central nervous system (CNS), potentially resulting in accidental or deliberate overdoses. Another hazardous combination is alcohol and cocaine, which can cause serious cardiovascular risks.

Drug interactions can happen with both prescription and illegal drugs, leading to outcomes ranging from inhibition to severe respiratory distress. An important consideration is the collective depressant effects on the CNS when drugs like alcohol, benzodiazepines, and opiates are combined. It is also critical to note that using a depressant to counteract the effects of a stimulant is dangerous as it disrupts the body's ability to maintain homeostasis.

The primary functional cell found in nervous tissue is the:
a) neuron
b) fiber
c) fibroblast
d) squamous

Answers

Answer:

a) Neuron

Explanation:

Thanks to its anatomy the neuron can be excitated to send signals to the different cells. Thanks to the cell body, axon and synaptic terminals the neurons process and transmite those signals generated by a stimulus.

Fracture most related to abuse is?
a. Greenstick
b. Compound
c. Comminuted
d. Spiral

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A greenstick

Explanation:

The most common fracture is the greenstick in which there is no complete breakage of the long bone in children suffering from abuse.

A spermatogonium in males is equivalent to _____________ in females.
a. oogonium
b. primitive oocyte
c. primary oocyte
d. secondary oocyte
e. tertiary oocyte

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C: primary oocyte

Explanation:

Ovogenesis is the process by which the ovary gives rise to a mature ovum (oocyte). The primary oocyte is the first to form during ovogonia, once the process of meiosis begins. It is compared with spermatogonium as it is also the initial phase for sperm formation.

What is the primary purpose of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A) To produce glucose
B) To release electrons needed to convert solar energy to chemical energy such as ATP
C) To create oxygen gas
D) To remove carbon dioxide gas from the atmosphere

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer to the question: What is the primary purpose of the light reactions of photosynthesis, would be: B: To release electrons needed to convert solar energy to chemica energy, such as ATP.

Explanation:

Photosynthesis, the process by which an autotrophic plant, who contains chlorophyll, converts water, CO2 and sunlight into sources to form the molecules that will provide them with energy, NADPH and ATP. The purpose of sunlight, as it is absorbed by the chloroplasts, and as it comes into contact with chlorophyll, is to activate the electrons present in the other components, water and carbon dioxide, so that in the energy exchange and process, the energy molecules ATP and NADPH are created. These two will be vital for the second part of the whole process. The sunlight is necessary for the first part, which is known as the Light Reaction, while ATP and NADPH will be vital for the second part of the process, the Dark Reaction, which is where glucose, and other food sources are generated.

Final answer:

The primary purpose of the light reactions of photosynthesis is to convert solar energy into chemical energy in the forms of ATP and NADPH. These compounds are then used in the Calvin cycle to create glucose.

Explanation:

The primary purpose of the light reactions of photosynthesis is to convert solar energy into chemical energy, specifically in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH (Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate). This is accomplished through the use of chlorophyll and other pigments that absorb light, releasing electrons that drive the production of these energy-rich compounds. This process is critical because ATP and NADPH are used in the next stage of photosynthesis, the Calvin cycle, to manufacture glucose from carbon dioxide. So, the best answer is B) To release electrons needed to convert solar energy to chemical energy such as ATP.

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A pyloroplasty is performed to:
A. improve gastric drainage.
B. tighten the cardiac sphincter.
C. increase gastric acidity.
D. reconstruct the fundus.

Answers

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

Pyloroplasty is a medical procedure which is done to widen or thicken the opening in the lower part of the stomach so that the content gets empty in the small intestine.

This is done during the condition when the pylorus gets thicken then food does not passes through it.

So, this process helps in improving the gastric drainage.

Final answer:

A pyloroplasty is performed to improve gastric drainage.

Explanation:

A pyloroplasty is performed to improve gastric drainage. It is a surgical procedure that involves widening the opening (pylorus) between the stomach and small intestine. This procedure helps food and gastric juices pass through more easily, alleviating symptoms of gastric outlet obstruction, such as nausea, vomiting, and bloating. The pyloroplasty does not directly affect the cardiac sphincter, gastric acidity, or the fundus of the stomach.

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The hypothalamus controls secretion by the adenohypophysis by:
a. direct neural stimulation
b. indirect osmotic control
c. secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system
d. altering ion concentration and pH in the anterior pituitary
e. gap synpatic junction

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A direct neural stimulation

Explanation:

The hypothalamus controls the secretion of the adenohypophysis by a direct neuoronal stimulation produced by a hormonal rise or fall that merits a greater stimulation or decrease according to the need presented by the organism.

List 5 functions of the skin and provide 1 detail demonstrating how the skin carries out each function you choose to list.

Answers

Answer:

1. Protection of the body against environmental effects like UV radiation.

2. Thermal regulation through vasoconstriction or vasodilation of blood vessels.

3. Sensitivity through nerve endings

4. Synthesis and storage of vitamin D

5. Containment of important body structures and substances.

Explanation:

What major artery runs down the anterior side of the thigh?

Answers

Answer:

Femoral Artery

Explanation:

It continues down the anterior side of the thigh after exiting the femoral triangle.

Why does homeostasis implies a healthy state?

Answers

Answer:

Homeostasis can be defined as the natural mechanism of the body by which the internal temperature of the body is maintained.

This phenomenon is important for the normal metabolism and functioning of the body.

Whenever the body encounters any change in the outer environment, the body tries to cope up with the conditions by maintaining a proper internal temperature inside the body.

Example: shivering of body is a normal response during cold environment to maintain the internal temperature of the body.

Schwann cells make myelin in the ________.
a. CNS
b. PNS
e. ENS

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is b. PNS.

Explanation:

The PNS stands for the peripheral nervous system. And The Schwann cells are the ones who are part of the glia of that peripheral nervous system. There is one type of Schwann cells that myelinate in the peripheral nervous system.

What is the Icd 10 code for urinary frequency and urgency?

Answers

Answer:

R39.15

Explanation:

Urgency of urination. R39.15 is the ICD-10-CM code that can be used to indicate a diagnosis for reimbursement purposes.

An African American young adult is admitted to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis with a report of 10/10 pain. The patient is known to several of the nurses and physicians in the department who have labeled the patient as a “drug seeker”.

Initial Discussion Post:

Identify one (1) intervention that can be taken by the RN to reduce the stigma and improve management of acute and chronic pain associated with sickle cell disease.
Does the intervention apply only to the patient? Does it apply only to the interprofessional team? Does it apply to both the patient and the members of the interprofessional team? Explain and support your answer.

Answers

Answer:

The situation of a patient with sickle cell anemia, and especially when facing a sickle cell crisis, is critical in regards to the level of pain that these patients experience. There are those whose pain is acute, while others suffer it chronically, and yet others with a mixture of both. Some patients, who do not develop tolerance to pain medication, such as opioids, will only seek pain relief help when the pain, caused by infarction of the tissues due to the occlusions caused by the disease, in vessels, and thus tissues, gets intense. However, there are people who become tolerant, and begin to become known by healthcare professionals as "drug seekers". The problem here is the lack of knowledge on the part of professionals, on how pain can affect the person, and how pain is felt differently depending on the person and the severity of the lession caused by an occlusion. This lack of proper knowledge is what leads some professionals to judge the person who constantly alters his level of pain perception to justify being given more medication.

However, the nursing staff here plays a critical role in two ways, first, ensuring education of the patient on the different ways that pain can be managed by the patient, without becoming oversdosed on opioids, and the second, on educating the personnel who works with these patients.

As such, one intervention would be to teach the patient about the different types of pain relievers that he can use, that will at least soften the pain. But more importantly, there is work to be done, on the part of the nurse, on teaching the patient how to handle pain without any medication, and there are breathing techniques, and meditation techniques, that will help the patient learn to place his/her pain in the proper proportion, before doping himself/herself with opioids.

But in response to the second question, the intervention of the nurse must be on both the patient and the team that works with the patient. As said before, education is the key, and this is a vital role of nurses. The nurse must also ensure that her team learns about how the disease works, where the pain comes from, why this patient is constantly seeking pain meds, and how each of the team members can play their own role in helping the patient manage his pain.

List the 5 types of white blood cells (WBCs). Which type is involved in the specific immune response?

Answers

Answer:

white blood cells are the following:

- lymphocytes (T cells and B cells)

-mocytes

-neutrophils

-basophils

-eosinophils

Lymphocytes are responsible for giving the specific immune response.

Monocytes, Lymphocytes, Neutroplis, Eosinophils and Basophils, Neutroplis are the types of White blood cells.

Neutrophils and Lymphocytes are the specific immune response.

Explanation:

Human blood consists of red blood cells, platelets, white blood cells and plasma. The white blood cells comprises of only 1% of human blood. The impact of leukocytes is very high. White blood cells can also be termed as leukocytes.  

Among these five types, Neutrophils kills and digest fungi and bacteria’s.When an infection strikes the human body the neutrophils acts as a main defence system and protects the human body.

Which of the following is associated with the thymus?
a. B cells
b. T cell maturation
c. natural killer cells
d. complement

Answers

Answer: Option B. "T Cell maturation"

Explanation:

T-cell, also known as T lymphocyte, are primary type of leukocyte or white blood cell important part of the immune system.

Bone marrow is the origin of T-cells and then get mature in the thymus. In thymus, T- cells differentiate or multiply into regulatory, or cytotoxic T-cells helper, or act as memory T-cells.

T-cells then  move in lymphatic system, once get stimulated by appropriate antigen, helper T-cells secrete cytokines that stimulate antibody-producing cells called B cells. Regulatory T-cells control immune reactions while Cytotoxic T-cells kill infected cells or cancer cells.

Hence, the correct answer is Option B.

Name the site of production of the following hormone:
a. Glucagon
b. Cortisol
c. Calcitonin
d. TSH
e. GHRH
f. Insulin
g. Oxytocin

Answers

Answer:

a. Glucagon  - Pancreas

b. Cortisol  - Adrenal gland.

c. Calcitonin  - Thyroid gland.

d. TSH  - Pituitary gland.

e. GHRH  - Hypothalamus.

f. Insulin  - Pancreas.

g. Oxytocin - Hypothalamus.

Explanation:

a. Glucagon is a peptide hormone which is synthesized and secreted by alpha cells of insulin. It regulates level of blood sugar by increasing glucose level during hypoglycemic conditions.

b. Cortisol  is a lipid-derived hormone, which is produced by cortex of adrenal gland. It increases level of blood sugar under stress conditions and triggers anti-inflammatory and anti-stress pathways.

c. Calcitonin is a peptide hormone, which is produced by thyroid hormone. It is a hypocalcemic hormone that decreases level of blood calcium when blood calcium concentration reaches above the normal level.

d. TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) is produced by anterior lobe of pituitary gland. It triggers production of thyroid hormones (T4 and T3) from thyroid gland.

e. GHRH  (growth hormone releasing hormone) is produced by hypothalamus. It gives signal to pituitary gland for the production of growth hormone.

f. Insulin  is a peptide hormone, produced by beta cells of pancreas. It regulates blood sugar level by decreasing blood glucose during hyperglycemic conditions.

g. Oxytocin is is synthesized by hypothalamus and is released by posterior lobe of pituitary gland. It plays role in labour pain and lactation.

Pain perceived in an amputated limb is known as the _________.

Answers

Answer:

phantom limb

Explanation:

Amputees usually experience sensations including pain in thephantom limb. 

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