A
Water in the soil is held tightly by adhesive forces between the water molecules and the mineral content in soil particles - in the microspores.
Explanation:
While water passes through the macrospores of soil by gravity, water passes through the microspores mainly by cohesion between the water molecules and adhesion between the water molecules and soil minerals. The more surface area for the minerals in the soil (due to finer particle sizes) the higher the water retention rate of the soil. This is why soil with more humus (like silt and clay) retains water more than soils like sand.
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Proton flow through the ATP synthase enzyme
A. provides the energy for adding a phosphate to ADP to make ATP. results in the release of ATP from its tightly bound state in the active site.
B. produces local pH changes in the active site which alter the equilibrium constant for the reaction.
C. provides the free energy needed for ADP to bind to the enzyme.
The flow of hydrogen ions through the ATP synthase enzyme provides the energy for adding a phosphate to ADP to make ATP.
Explanation:The flow of hydrogen ions through the ATP synthase enzyme provides the energy for adding a phosphate to ADP to make ATP. The energy released by the hydrogen ion stream allows ATP synthase to attach a third phosphate group to ADP, forming a molecule of ATP. This process is called chemiosmosis, as the hydrogen ions move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through ATP synthase.
What factor of phylogenies enable us to determine that all terrestrial mammals are quadrupedal (walk on all four legs) except humans, the one bipedal twig on the many branches of the mammalian tree?
Answer:
Common ancestor is the main factor that determines that all terrestrial animals are quadrupedal.
Explanation:
Phylogeny means the evolution of the organisms or genetically related organism and how they are related. The study of phylogeny is called as phylogenetics. Terrestrial means those who live on land. Mammals are one who gives birth to their offspring directly. They are generally warm-blooded, breath air. Studying each state of the ancestor and also tracing the organism characteristics during evolution.In an asexually reproducing organism it is expected that the offspring will be genetically identical to the parent. However, in one particular event of asexual reproduction the offspring was found to be differing from the parent. The reason behind this could be __________.
Answer:
Mutation
Explanation:
I believe it is a mutation. A mutation is when the DNA is copied with a small mistake. Ex: AGCC => AGGC
Then, after a mutation, the DNA isn’t exactly identical because of this mistake in the DNA after copied.
I hope this helped! Happy Thanksgiving! GOBBLE GOBBLE!
Which part of the government has authority to enforce the Clean Water Act?
U.S. Forest Service
Congress
the president
the Environmental Protection Agency
Answer:
The Environmental Protection Agency
Explanation:
Answer:
Which part of the government has authority to enforce the clean water act? 4.- The Environmental ProtectionAgency
Explanation:
The 1972 amendments stablished that the Environmental Protection Agency was the responsible authority to supervise the Clean Water measures it developed. It was not the first time the government had established laws about it. However, the expansion of the amendments structured the modern system. Providing guidelines for water quality, standards and also to the acts of anyone that acted against the water state and condition. Qualifying them as polluters and criminals. It is known as the Clean Water law, amendment.
A population of scarab beetles has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.8 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.5. Estimate the number of individuals added to or lost from a population of 1,000 individuals in one year. Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. 3,000 individuals added 50 individuals lost 300 individuals added 30 individuals added 500 individuals lost
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Given the annual per capita birth rate is [tex]0.8[/tex]
Annual per capita death rate is [tex]0.8[/tex]
Net per capita growth or reduction in the population will be equal to the difference between the birth rate and death rate.
Hence, net per capita increase in the population is equal to
[tex]0.8 -0.5\\=0.3[/tex]
Thus, the total number of individuals added to the population of 1000 is equal to
[tex]0.3 * 1000\\= 300[/tex]
Hence, option C is correct
When one DNA molecule is copied to maketwo DNA molecules, the new DNA containsA) 75% of the parent DNA.B) 25% of the parent DNA.C) 100% of the parent DNA.D) none of the parent DNA.E) 50% of the parent DNA..
B) 100% of the parent because when DNA copies itself, everything is replicated exactly.
When Casey opens her eyes in the morning she sees a photograph by her bedside. At that point, her eyes are receiving light energy. Her eyes then change the light energy into neural messages for the brain to process. This conversion of one form of energy into another is called:
Answer:
This conversion of one form of energy to another is called energy transformation.
Explanation:
Eye is one of the most important sensory organ of our body that helps in the perception of light.
When we see a light at that time light energy is converted into neural messages and then carried to the brain by ophthalmic nerve for processing.
Here the law of conservation of energy is maintained which states that energy cannot be created nor destroyed, energy can only be transformed.
what bond holds each amino acid together to make a protein?
Answer:
PEPTIDE BOND.
Explanation:
Amino acids can link with each other through a peptide bond to form a protein or polypeptide .
this is a condensation reaction that involves the elimination of water molecule.i.e a H2O molecule is produced in this reaction.
the peptide linkage occurs when the OH group of acidic side of one amino acid reacts with the H-atom of the other amino acid and C-N link to form a bond called a PEPTIDE BOND.
Which of the following hypotheses is the best predictor of tree species diversity?
A. Species richness will related to temperature and potential evapotranspiration
B. Species richness will be related to precipitation
C. Species richness will be related to actual evapotranspiration.
D. Tree species richness is related to mammal species richness.
Tree species diversity is influenced by a combination of factors including temperature, evapotranspiration, and precipitation. Although each of the given hypotheses could predict tree species richness under certain conditions, it's important to consider the specific ecosystem. In science, hypotheses are tested and evaluated based on evidence, rather than ranked.
Explanation:Determining which of the following hypotheses is the best predictor of tree species diversity can be complex because it largely depends on the particular ecosystem being considered. Nonetheless, species richness is generally influenced by a combination of biotic and abiotic factors, including temperature, precipitation, and availability of resources.
Hypothesis A, which posits that species richness is related to temperature and potential evapotranspiration, is a viable predictor as these factors can influence where species can thrive. Similarly, Hypothesis B, which suggests species richness is related to precipitation, is also a considerable predictor because water availability is crucial for plant survival. Hypothesis C, which connects species richness to actual evapotranspiration, could also be strongly predictive because it ties into the available energy and water in the ecosystem. Lastly, Hypothesis D, which claims that tree species richness is related to mammal species richness, could have less predictive power as it is more dependent on complex interactions between different species and might not directly relate to tree species richness.
However, it's important to note that in science, hypotheses are not ranked as best or worst, but rather, they are tested to determine if they are supported or not by the evidence.
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Susan, a mother with type B blood, has a child with type O blood. She claims that Craig, who has type A blood, is the father. He claims that he cannot possibly be the father. Further blood tests ordered by the judge reveal that Craig is AA. The judge rules that
Answer:
Craig is right and doesn't have to pay child support.
Explanation:
The complete question is
Susan, a mother with Type B blood, has a child with Type O blood. She claims that Craig, who has Type A blood, is the father. He claims that he cannot possibly be the father. Further blood tests ordered by the judge reveal that Craig is AA. The judge rules that:
a. Susan is right and Craig must pay child support
b. Craig is right and doesn't have to pay child support
c. Susan cannot be the real mother of the child; there must have been an error made at the hospital
d. it is impossible to reach a decision based on the limited data available
The blood type of a child is determined by the blood type of the parents, and the rules are as given in the attached diagram.Based on these rules, it can be observed that a person with type O blood group must have the genotype OO and from this, it can be concluded that both the parents must carry an O allele. Since the blood typing has revealed that Craig is AA, he can't be the father of the child and hence, he doesn't have to pay child support.Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase, hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute(s) to the ability of S. aureus to invade the body?
A) coagulase
B) enterotoxin
C) hemolysin
D) hyaluronidase
E) coagulase and hemolysin
Answer:
A) coagulase
Explanation:
Diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus may be due to direct tissue invasion, or exclusively due to toxins produced.
The mechanism of invasion of S. aureus, in the first moment, depends directly on the fact that this bacterium adheres to the skin or mucosa, thanks to coagulase (a component of the cell surface that ensures adherence to the epithelia), to then break through the barriers of the epithelium, compromising intercellular link structures, as desmosomes and adhesion joints.
After invasion of the epithelium, S. aureus uses several strategies to enable their survival and proliferation in the host organism, corresponding to the other virulence factors.
Which of the following is an example of biological mechanical action (or weathering?) A. Rocks breaking into smaller pieces due to growing salt crystals in their pores. B. Potholes forming on roads when water inside pavement joints freezes and expands. C. The heating and cooling of minerals inside rocks, fracturing them. D. Tree roots from a tree next to a sidewalk growing underneath it and uplifting and cracking the sidewalk. E. Acid and rain water producing an acidic solution that disintegrates gravestones.
Answer:
D. Tree roots from a tree next to a sidewalk growing underneath it and cracking the sidewalk.
Explanation:
This type of action is a biological weathering.
You identify a new fish species in the UCSB pond. The fish is diploid and shows 40 chromosomes in its somatic cells. Following mitosis, each daughter cell will have ____ chromosomes. After meiosis I, each daughter cell has ___ chromosomes, each formed by _____ chromatid(s). After meiosis II, each daughter cell is ___.
Answer:
40 chromosomes, 20 chromosomes, 2 chromatids, haploid
Explanation:
Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. The fish is a diploid with 40 chromosomes (80 chromatids), after the separation of sister chromatids during the anaphase of mitosis, each sister chromatid becomes a chromosome i.e 40 chromatids (chromosome) each moves to the opposite poles and after the cell divides (cytokinesis), each daughter cell will have 40chromosomes each.
Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in four daughter cells with each having half of the parental number of chromosomes. It involves two divisions; Meiosis I and Meiosis II
In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes lie side by side to form a structure called tetrad or bivalent consisting of 4 chromatids. During anaphase I, 20 chromosomes are pulled apart to each pole with each chromosome containing 2 chromatids. After cytokinesis in meiosis I, each of the two cells will have 20 chromosomes (40 chromatids) i.e 1 chromosome = 2 chromatids
At the end of meiosis II, which is similar to mitosis, chromatids are pulled apart and each becomes a chromosome, meaning 20 chromatids will be separated to each pole and become 20 chromosomes in each cell after cytokinesis. Since the parental organism was a diploid with 40 chromosomes, and the resulting daughter cells now have 20 chromosomes each, it shows that the chromosomal number has been reduced by half. 2n ---- n
Diploid organism produce haploid daughter cells
Breathing rate is most likely to increase if the blood level of
Answer:
Breathing rate is most likely to increase if the blood level of carbon dioxide increase.
Explanation:
Breathing rate is the number of breaths of a person during a specific time, is usually the number of respiratory cycles that occur per minute. External respiration is the process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide from the outside of the human body to pulmonary capillary blood. Once in the lungs, oxygen (and carbon dioxide to a very small extent) through the alveoli, pass into the red blood cells of the pulmonary vein blood. Carbon dioxide reacts in the blood with water, thanks to an enzyme, giving rise to bicarbonate. Blood reaches the heart, and is pumped into the cells by systemic arteries. The oxygen in the blood crosses the cell membrane and in turn, an exchange occurs, since the cell expels carbon dioxide and oxygen that it has not used. Once the exchange is done, the blood is conducted through the systematic veins with oxygen whose partial pressure is lower, and with an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide. It reaches the heart again, leads through the right atrium and ventricle and finally travels through the pulmonary artery to the lungs where the air is expelled (expiration). Breathing rate tends to increase when the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increase.
In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, what do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common?
Answer:
The correct answer is - position of the centromere, length, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes
Explanation:
The two chromosomes that are present in a pair of autosomes that are 22 in numbers in human and one sex-linked chromosome that is not like other autosomes.
Any two chromosomes of a pair of chromosomes like chromosome 14 are similar in shape and size, the staining pattern of both the chromosomes and the most important traits that they code for the same trait.
Thus, the correct answer is - position of the centromere, length, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes.
Match each vocabulary word with its definition. 1 . photosynthesis the process of burning in the presence of oxygen 2 . nucleus a nucleus surrounded by electrons 3 . combustion a process that splits the atom 4 . fission central part of an atom 5 . solar energy capacity for doing work 6 . atom process that plants produce sugar 7 . energy energy from the sun
Answer:
1. Photosynthesis: process that plants produce sugar
2. Nucleus: central part of an atom
3. Combustion: the process of burning in the presence of oxygen
4. Fission: a process that split atom
5. Solar energy: energy from the sun
6. Atom: a nucleus surrounded by electron
7. Energy: capacity for doing work
Explanation:
1. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, some bacteria and some protistans use the energy from sunlight to produce glucose(sugar) from carbon dioxide and water
2. The protons and neutrons cluster together in the central part of the atom, called the nucleus
3. Combustion is the process of burning something.
4. Fission is a nuclear reaction or a radioactive decay process in which the nucleus of an atom splits into two or more smaller, lighter nuclei.
5. Solar is a form of energy gotten from the sun.
6. Atom: every atom is composed of a nucleus and one or more electrons bound to the nucleus.
7. Energy is the ability to do work
Which of the following statements best exemplifies the difference between a population and an individual?
a. Genetic changes do not occur within the individual.
b. Birth rates, death rates, immigration rates, and so on are features possessed by populations, not individuals.
c. Population ecology examines features that cannot be studied on an individual organism.
d. All of the above exemplify the difference between a population and an individual.
e. None of the above.
Answer:
d. All of the above exemplify the difference between a population and an individual.
Explanation:
A population is a group of individuals of the same species that live in a particular geographical area and are able to interbreed. A population is described with respect to several features such as death and birth rates, age structure, density, dispersion, change in the population size due to density-dependent and density-independent factors and the survivorship curve.
These features are not exhibited by a particular individual. Natural selection also works at populations. The evolutionary forces act upon populations to change their allele and genotype frequencies. Therefore, populations are the unit of evolution and change genetically over time, not the individuals. Population ecology studies the size of a populations and the trends and causes of changes in the populations over time.
Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a consequence of
Answer: gaps left at the 5' end of the lagging strand.
Explanation:
Eukaryotic Chromosomes are known as the repetitive at the very ends of chromosomes, found in a wide range of Eukaryotic species. They protect the end chromosomes from deterioration or fusion with the neighboring chromosomes.
Telomeres provide a mechanism for their replication by semi conservative DNA replication (a replication in which two parental DNA strands would act as a template for new DNA strands to be synthesized) and length maintenance by Telomerase Enzymes. Telomerase Enzymes are used to extend shortened telomeres during its’ DNA replication.
DNA replication in Eukaryotic Telomeres doesn’t begins at the either end of the DNA strands but starts in the center, and considering that all known DNA Polymerase ( an enzyme that is essential for DNA replication) read the template strand in the 3’ to 5’ direction, one finds a leading strand and a lagging strand on the DNA molecule being replicated.
On the leading strand, DNA Polymerase make complementary DNA strand without any difficulty because it reads the template strand from 3’ to 5’.
On the other hand, there is a difficulty going in the other direction on the lagging strand.
WHY? This is “due to gaps left at the 5’ end of the lagging strand”. To overcome this difficulty, short sequences of RNA acting as Primers (a short single-stranded nucleic acid utilized by all living organisms in the initiation of DNA synthesis) attach to the lagging strand, a short distance ahead of where the initiation site was.
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Which of the following is NOT considered part of the body's nonspecific lines of defense against disease?A) antibodiesB) mucous membranesC) intact skinD) bloodborne chemicalsE) phagocytic cells
Answer:
The answer is A. Antibodies!
Explanation:
The following is not considered part of the body's nonspecific lines of defense against disease antibodies. The correct option is A.
What are antibodies?In response to infection, the immune system creates antibodies, which are proteins. They play a crucial role in the body's defense mechanism by eliminating pathogens (such as viruses or bacteria) and preventing them from invading human cells.
The second layer of protection then deals with pathogens that get past the physical barriers. Immune cells and proteins are mostly used in this innate immune response to broadly recognize and get rid of any pathogen that enters the body.
Thus, the correct option is A. antibodies.
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A is a DNA sequence where RNA polymerase binds and begins the process of transcription. A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription. A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that inhibit transcription. is the protein complex that is part of the RNA interference (RNAi) mechanism. It denatures short double-stranded RNAs to single strands that carry out RNAi. is the enzyme complex that is active in RNAi, where it cuts double-stranded regulatory RNAs into 21-bp to 26-bp segments that are subsequently denatured by RISC.
Answer:
A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription.
Explanation:
Background Knowledge:
DNA contains genes which is a particular segment of DNA. A gene usually has regulatory regions and a structural region.
Promoter: The regulatory region located to the 5 prime end of coding strand of the gene which is called as promoter that controls the binding RNA Polymerase during transcription.
The Terminator is the other regulatory region, located to the 3 prime end of coding strand of the gene. The terminator region causes RNA polymerase to stop transcription.
Structural region is the region present between the promoter and terminator.
Answer of the question is:
A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription.
Transcription is initiated at a promoter, where RNA polymerase binds, and regulated by transcription factors that act as activators or repressors. Enhancers and repressors control the transcription process by modifying DNA structure or affecting RNA polymerase activity.
Explanation:Transcription is initiated at a specific DNA sequence known as the promoter, which is found upstream of the gene it regulates. A promoter is crucial because it determines the exact location where RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription, starting the synthesis of RNA from the DNA template. The formation of this initiation complex involves unwinding the DNA to create a transcription bubble, where the DNA strand is read and transcribed into mRNA.
Transcription is also regulated by transcription factors, which can function as either activators or repressors. These regulatory proteins bind to sequences known as regulatory elements near the promoter. Activator proteins enhance the interaction between RNA polymerase and the promoter, facilitating transcription, while repressors inhibit this process, thereby impeding RNA synthesis. Methylation and DNA-bending due to protein interactions also play a role in facilitation and control of these regulative actions.
Enhancers and repressors influence transcription by altering the DNA's shape or by recruiting other regulatory elements to control the availability and activity of RNA polymerase at the promoter region. The overall regulatory mechanisms ensure that transcription is precise and responsive to the cell's needs, allowing for efficient and controlled gene expression.
All of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry are true, except
1. radiation dose is considerable.
2. two x-ray photon energies are used.
3. photon attenuation by bone is calculated.
Answer:
Option (1).
Explanation:
Dual x-ray absorptiometry technique is used for the evaluation of the bone mineral density. The bone densitometry is normally used in this technique to estimate the mineral content of bone.
The radiation dose in the absorptiometry is considerable and only small or low amount of radiation dose is considered. The heavy dose may cause health problems in the individual. The photon energies are used for the bone and soft tissue. The treatment of osteoporesis can be done by this technique.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
A simple nervous system has information flow in only one direction:
a) toward an integrating center.
b) has information flow in only one direction: away from an integrating center.
c) includes sensory information, an integrating center, and effectors.
d) must include chemical senses and vision.
e) includes sensory information but no effectors.
Answer:
The correct option is a) toward an integrating center.
Explanation:
A simple nervous system has information flow in only one direction: toward an integrating center. The integrating center is a part of our central nervous system (formed by the brain and spinal cord) that is responsible for receiving stimulations from the afferent pathway, that is, it's where the afferent or sensory information is centralized and the adequate response is elaborated, so through one or multiple synapses communicate it with the efferent pathway, through this pathway composed of nerve fibers, the information travels to the effect organ, which is responsible for manifesting the final response.
3.6 Of the three possible modes by which a cutting tool can fail during a machining operation, which one is most preferable: (a) fracture failure, (b) gradual wear, or (c) temperature failure
Answer: B (gradual failure)
Explanation:
Fracture failure: This type of failure results when cutting force becomes excessive, leading to brittle fracture.
Gradual wear Gradual Failure: In this type of failure, failure is slow but progressive. As an machines becomes old, its performance and efficiency wear out gradually.
Temperature failure: This type of failure results when cutting temperature is too high for the tool material leading to the wear and tear of the machine.
Fracture and temperature failures are both immediate failure, but Gradual failure is most preferred because it leads to the longest possible use of the tool because it fails gradually.
how do inselbergs develop
Inselbergs arise from rocks which erode at a slower rate than that of the surrounding rocks
In the video, the whale exhaled carbon dioxide, which is made of one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. List two things a scientist might ask about the movement of carbon dioxide through the whale and its surroundings.
Answer:
One thing that a scientist might ask about the movement of carbon dioxide through the whale and its surrounding is “how did the whale get the carbon dioxide?”. Another thing that a scientistmay ask about this is “how does the carbon dioxide affect the ecosystem?”
Two potential queries a scientist might have about the whale's exhalation of carbon dioxide could focus on the whale's respiration process and the effect of the exhaled carbon dioxide on the surrounding marine environment.
Explanation:A scientist studying the carbon dioxide exhaled by a whale might ask a couple of intriguing questions related to its movement. One crucial question might be, "How does the whale's body process and expel carbon dioxide?", to understand the animal's respiratory system. In simpler terms, they might question how the whale inhales oxygen and exhales carbon dioxide, which is a basic process of respiration. Another potential question could center around the interaction between the whale’s breath and its environment: "How does the exhaled carbon dioxide contribute to or impact the surrounding marine environment?". This question could help to explore the impact of the whale's respiration on its surroundings.
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Rats that received unpredictable electric shocks in a laboratory experiment subsequently became apprehensive when returned to that same laboratory setting. This best illustrates that anxiety disorders may result from A. classical conditioning. B. stimulus generalization. C. observational learning. D. reinforcement.
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. "classical conditioning".
Explanation:
Classical conditioning is a form of learning that involves the development of an association of an stimulus with a response, producing a behavior in an organism. The classic example performed by researcher Ivan Pavlov, is that a dog started to salivate after putting the tone he used previously in numerous occasions right before feeding him. Classical conditioning can also be the reason behind anxiety disorders. One example is illustrated in the question, when rats were exposed to unpredictable electric shocks in a certain laboratory. Something similar happens in dogs who are afraid of veterinarians because they associate them with receiving an injection.
All the offspring of a cross between a tall pea plant and a dwarf pea plant are tall. This means that the allele for tall plants is ________ the allele for dwarf plants.
Answer:
All the offspring of a cross between a tall pea plant and a dwarf pea plant are tall. This means that the allele for tall plants is DOMINANT OVER the allele for dwarf plants.
Explanation:
Mendel's law of dominance state that the heterozygous genotype expresses only one allele of a gene out of the two alleles present together. The allele that is expressed in a heterozygous genotype is said to be the dominant one as it does not allow the expression of another allele of the gene.
The allele of a gene that is not expressed in the presence of its dominant allele is said to be the recessive one. Under such conditions, a heterozygous genotype expresses the dominant phenotype. When a tall and dwarf pea plants are crossed, all the F1 progeny is tall. This means that the allele for the tallness is dominant over the allele for the dwarfism.
If a biological father has little to do with his biological offspring, and instead spends most of his time with his sister’s children who call him by a term meaning "father" rather than "uncle," the descent system of these people is most likely_______.
If a biological father has little to do with his biological offspring, and instead spends most of his time with his sister’s children who call him by a term meaning "father" rather than "uncle," the descent system of these people is most likely Matrilineal.
Explanation:
Matrilineal is made up of two words ‘Matri’ means mother ‘lineal’ means link or ancestry. So matrilineal means the generation of people that origin or come before a person i.e. female. Matrilineal means maintaining the generation through the mother-line rather than father-line.
In matrilineal family relationship can be record through female. Tradition that that follows to give mother last name to children is a matrilineal tradition. This type of tradition is found in countries like Ghana, Indonesia, Cameroon, Malaysia, Costa Rica, and India etc. Akon, Alor, Betek, Bribri, Billava, Garo are some groups that follows the matrilineal tradition.
Ap biology work pls help
A normal chromosome and its homolog carrying an inversion are given. The dot (•) represents the centromere. Normal: M N • O P Q R S T Inversion: M Q P O • N R S T What type of inversion is present and what is the name of the structure that will form during synapsis?
Answer:
Pericentric, inversion loop.
Explanation:
Chromosomal inversion may be defined as the rearrangement of chromosome that may get reversed and attached. Two main types of inversion are pericentric inversion and paracentric inversion.
The pericentric inversion involves the inversion of chromsome and centromere is involved in this inversion. M Q P O • N R S T , in this case centromere is present and shows the pericentric inversion. The structure that forms during the synapsis is known as inversion loop.
Thus, the answer is pericentric, inversion loop.