Answer:
Many cells in the body have extensions of their cellular menbrana, which depending on their length can be cilia or microvilli, which are the shortest. We see the case, for example, the microvilli found in the small intestine, more abundant at the level of the second and third portions of the intestine, which favors the great absorption of liquids, proteins and nutrients that occur at this level.
Cilia are cellular structures that have a more defined formation and are characterized by their nucleus being made up of proteins and enveloped by the cytosol and plasma menbrana. They are presented as an appendix in the form of hair; We will find these cilia in the cells of the respiratory system and in the reproductive system where they help the mobility of foreign bodies (respiratory system) and the movements of sperm (reproductive system).
Which word means pertaining to the mood or state of mind?
a. emotion
b. obsession
c. affective
d. therapy
Answer:
a emotion
Explanation:
A strong feeling (emotion), arises as a mental state, or intense state of drive or mental unrest, which originally is believed to direct toward a definite object when human brain emerged. The latter is evidenced in both behavior and in psychological effects, the autonomic nervous system manifestations will follow. Based on discoveries made through modern neural mapping ,the neurobiological theory of human emotion is that emotion is a pleasant or unpleasant mental state as it forms in the limbic system of the human brain.
Common emotional states can result from a combination of different experiences and are expressed as feelings of , amusement, anger, certainty, , disagreement, , dislike, fear, guilt, happiness, hate, and many others.
What is the primary purpose of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A) To produce glucose
B) To release electrons needed to convert solar energy to chemical energy such as ATP
C) To create oxygen gas
D) To remove carbon dioxide gas from the atmosphere
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: What is the primary purpose of the light reactions of photosynthesis, would be: B: To release electrons needed to convert solar energy to chemica energy, such as ATP.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis, the process by which an autotrophic plant, who contains chlorophyll, converts water, CO2 and sunlight into sources to form the molecules that will provide them with energy, NADPH and ATP. The purpose of sunlight, as it is absorbed by the chloroplasts, and as it comes into contact with chlorophyll, is to activate the electrons present in the other components, water and carbon dioxide, so that in the energy exchange and process, the energy molecules ATP and NADPH are created. These two will be vital for the second part of the whole process. The sunlight is necessary for the first part, which is known as the Light Reaction, while ATP and NADPH will be vital for the second part of the process, the Dark Reaction, which is where glucose, and other food sources are generated.
The primary purpose of the light reactions of photosynthesis is to convert solar energy into chemical energy in the forms of ATP and NADPH. These compounds are then used in the Calvin cycle to create glucose.
Explanation:The primary purpose of the light reactions of photosynthesis is to convert solar energy into chemical energy, specifically in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH (Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate). This is accomplished through the use of chlorophyll and other pigments that absorb light, releasing electrons that drive the production of these energy-rich compounds. This process is critical because ATP and NADPH are used in the next stage of photosynthesis, the Calvin cycle, to manufacture glucose from carbon dioxide. So, the best answer is B) To release electrons needed to convert solar energy to chemical energy such as ATP.
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The hypothalamus controls secretion by the adenohypophysis by:
a. direct neural stimulation
b. indirect osmotic control
c. secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system
d. altering ion concentration and pH in the anterior pituitary
e. gap synpatic junction
Answer:
The answer is A direct neural stimulation
Explanation:
The hypothalamus controls the secretion of the adenohypophysis by a direct neuoronal stimulation produced by a hormonal rise or fall that merits a greater stimulation or decrease according to the need presented by the organism.
What is an antibody called when it enhances phagocytosis?
Answer:
The correct answer is opsonin.
Explanation:
When an antibody or molecule that promotes or increases phagocytosis by marking dead cells for recycling or marking an antigen is called Opsonin. Opsonization is a mechanism in which apoptotic cells or microbes are chemically altered to have a strong drawing ability to the surface receptors of the cell on phagocytes and NK cells.
Opsonization also aids phagocytosis by signal cascades from receptors present on the cell surface. Cell membranes have a negative charge that prevents two cells to come closer but after binding opsonin, it boosts the kinetics of the phagocytosis by interacting with cell receptors That overcome the negative charge of the cell membranes.
Thus, the correct answer is opsonin.
How does enthusiasm help one advance on the job?
Answer:
Any of the healthcare professions, physician, nurse, or any other, are difficult enough just when taking into account schooling. When a person decides to go into these medical fields, whichever it may be, without enthusiasm, the amount of studying and preparation alone, will overwhelm them.
But once in the field, once working, a medical professional, of any field, faces nothing more and nothing less, than having the safety and integrity of human beings in their lives, from conception, to their natural death. That fact can become even more overwhelming for a professional, and without enthusiasm, this effect will come much faster, and have dire consequences.
So, enthusiasm helps a medical professional advance on the job, by providing the necessary motivation to face any and all obstacles, regardless of which they may be, and focus on improving skills, because the professional wishes, thanks to motivation, to grow professionally, and be better professionally. That´s how enthusiasm will help a medical professional advance on the job.
A pyloroplasty is performed to:
A. improve gastric drainage.
B. tighten the cardiac sphincter.
C. increase gastric acidity.
D. reconstruct the fundus.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Pyloroplasty is a medical procedure which is done to widen or thicken the opening in the lower part of the stomach so that the content gets empty in the small intestine.
This is done during the condition when the pylorus gets thicken then food does not passes through it.
So, this process helps in improving the gastric drainage.
A pyloroplasty is performed to improve gastric drainage.
Explanation:A pyloroplasty is performed to improve gastric drainage. It is a surgical procedure that involves widening the opening (pylorus) between the stomach and small intestine. This procedure helps food and gastric juices pass through more easily, alleviating symptoms of gastric outlet obstruction, such as nausea, vomiting, and bloating. The pyloroplasty does not directly affect the cardiac sphincter, gastric acidity, or the fundus of the stomach.
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Give an example of drug-drug interactions wherein two drugs result to severe consequences if they are taken together.
Answer:
fluoxetine and phenelzine
Explanation:
Drug interactions are becoming an increased pattern since multiple prescription ocurrs often in aged pacients. The modern health prescrpitions usually involve 6 or more drugs for an average 55 year old patient daily. . The deaths of notable artists and celebrities due to misuse or overdose of medication ocurred often as drug interactions took place.
The combination of substances affects the nature of a drug, then the effects are ither increased or diminished, but when fluoxetine and phenelzine combine, the interaction can result in a critical conditin called:
central serotonin syndrome. The mental status changes will show agitation, tachycardia, diaphoresis leading to death.
Such symptoms can usually develop with only 1 or 2 dose of fluoxetine if combined with phenelzine. Remember always to seek a doctor.
Severe drug-drug interactions can occur when combining substances like alcohol and benzodiazepines with heroin, or alcohol with cocaine, both of which can lead to significant CNS depression or cardiovascular risks, respectively.
An example of a drug-drug interaction with severe consequences is the combination of alcohol and benzodiazepines with heroin. This particular combination can lead to dramatic effects on the central nervous system (CNS), potentially resulting in accidental or deliberate overdoses. Another hazardous combination is alcohol and cocaine, which can cause serious cardiovascular risks.
Drug interactions can happen with both prescription and illegal drugs, leading to outcomes ranging from inhibition to severe respiratory distress. An important consideration is the collective depressant effects on the CNS when drugs like alcohol, benzodiazepines, and opiates are combined. It is also critical to note that using a depressant to counteract the effects of a stimulant is dangerous as it disrupts the body's ability to maintain homeostasis.
Icd 10 code for hyperlipidemia unspecified
Answer:
E78.5
Explanation:
Hyperlipidemia is the conditions having abnormally elevated levels of lipids or lipoproteins in blood. Hyperlipidemias is of two types: primary and secondary.
Primary hyperlipidemia is due to genetic causes usually, while the secondary hyperlipidemia may arises due to other causes like diabetes.
E78.5 is a billable ICD-10-CM code which is be used to indicate the diagnosis for the reimbursement purposes.
On October 1, 2018, 2019 edition of ICD-10-CM E78.5 became effective.
The ICD-10 code for unspecified hyperlipidemia is E78.5.
Explanation of Hyperlipidemia
Hyperlipidemia refers to elevated levels of lipids (fats) in the blood, which can include cholesterol and triglycerides. Understanding hyperlipidemia is essential because it is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular diseases and can lead to complications such as heart attacks and strokes.
Types of Hyperlipidemia
Hyperlipidemias can be classified based on the specific lipoproteins affected. Here are some notable types:
Type I - Hyperlipoproteinemia: Characterized by elevated chylomicrons due to a deficiency of lipoprotein lipase. It is very rare.
Type II - Familial Hypercholesterolemia: Can be further divided into:
Type IIa: Elevated LDL cholesterol levels.Type IIb: Elevated LDL and VLDL levels, often associated with high triglycerides.Type III - Dysbetalipoproteinemia: This involves high levels of intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDL).
Type IV - Hypertriglyceridemia: Characterized by high triglyceride levels.
Importance of Diagnosis
Accurate coding (like E78.5 for unspecified hyperlipidemia) is important for medical records and insurance claims. It helps healthcare professionals identify patients at risk and guide treatment strategies, such as lifestyle changes or medications that might be necessary to lower lipid levels.
If you have any further questions regarding hyperlipidemia or its implications, feel free to ask!
Schwann cells make myelin in the ________.
a. CNS
b. PNS
e. ENS
Answer:
The correct answer is b. PNS.
Explanation:
The PNS stands for the peripheral nervous system. And The Schwann cells are the ones who are part of the glia of that peripheral nervous system. There is one type of Schwann cells that myelinate in the peripheral nervous system.
Icd 10 code for mitral valve regurgitation
Answer:
Nonrheumatic mitral (valve) insufficiency
I34.0 is a billable/specific ICD-10-CM code that can be used to indicate a diagnosis for reimbursement purposes.
Explanation:
ICD-10 code for mitral valve regurgitation: I05.8
In the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision (ICD-10), the code I05.8 is used to represent mitral valve regurgitation. ICD-10 codes are alphanumeric codes that are used to classify and categorize medical conditions, diseases, and other health-related issues for the purpose of medical billing, coding, and statistical analysis. The code I05.8 specifically falls under the category of "Other rheumatic heart diseases," and it is used to identify cases of mitral valve regurgitation that are due to rheumatic heart disease.
It's important to note that ICD-10 codes provide a standardized way of documenting and communicating medical conditions, making it easier for healthcare providers, insurance companies, and researchers to accurately classify and track various health conditions. The use of specific codes like I05.8 helps ensure accurate and consistent recording of medical information, which is essential for medical record keeping, patient care, and healthcare management. When diagnosing and documenting medical conditions, healthcare professionals use the appropriate ICD-10 codes to convey specific information about the condition, its cause, and other relevant details.
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What chemical mediator initiates an inflammatory reaction?
Answer:
Histamine, is the chemical mediator initiates an inflammatory reaction. An inflammatory mediator is basically defined as that act in blood vessels and cells for promote response of inflammatory mediator. Histamine is the main chemical mediator which are released from the cells during inflammation, which increases vascular permeability. It is stored in granules and mast cells and get released immediately when the cells get injured.
Directional Terms:
Use directional terms to complete the sentences below.
The radius is ____________ to the ulna.
The ribs are ____________ to the clavicle.
The femur is ____________ to the tibia.
The vertebral column is ________________ to the sternum.
The clavicle is ________________ to the scapula.
The radius is _________________ to the humerus.
The sternum is _______________ to the ribs.
6. The radius is distal
Answer: 1. external, 2. paralel and distal, 3. proximal, 4. posterior, 5. anterior, 6. distal, 7. proximal.
Explanation:
1. The radius is paralel to the ulna in its external portion. It means it is located far from the body in an anatomical position, where the hands are with the palms facing forward.
2. The ribs are located parallel to the clavicle and descending towards the lower part of the body. Because they are moving away from the clavicle they are said to be distal to it.
3. The femur is proximal to the tibia, because it is located in the nearest portion of the "center of the body". It is attached to the hip. The tibia is attached to the femur, so tibia is distal to it.
4. The vertebral column is posterior to the sternum. Posterior, refers to something that is in the back or at the bottom in anatomical terminology. The vertebral column is in the back of the sternum.
5. The clavicle is anterior to the scapula. Anterior, refers to something that is in the front or at the top. The clavicle is in the front of the body and the scapula is on the back.
6. The radius is distal to the humerus. Distal, refers to "distance". It refers to sites that are located far from a specific area, almost always, the center of the body. In this case, the humerus is attached to the body first forming part of the joint of the shoulder; the radius is far from the shoulder, or the center of the body, so, it is located distal to the humerus.
7. The sternum is proximal to the ribs. Proximal, means closer to the center (trunk of the body) or the point of attachment to the body. The ribs are attached to it.
The radius is external to the ulna.
The ribs are parallel and distal to the clavicle.
The femur is proximal to the tibia.
The vertebral column is posterior to the sternum.
The clavicle is anterior to the scapula.
The radius is distal to the humerus.
The sternum is proximal to the ribs.
What are bones?Bones are hard, composed of calcium. They protect the organs of the body.
Radius and ulna are the bones of the hand.
Ribs present in the thoracic cavity protect lungs and heart.
Femur and tibia are bones of the leg.
The clavicle is the collar bone present under the neck.
Thus, the correct options are 1. External, 2. Parallel and distal, 3. Proximal, 4. Posterior, 5. Anterior, 6. Distal, 7. Proximal.
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Which characteristic of epithelial tissues would you expect to find in a duct that is ubject to a high degree of pressure (such as the male urethra)?
a) Cuboidal shape
b) Simple layering
c) Pseudostratified layering
d) Stratified layering
Answer:
The answer is D: Stratified layering
Explanation:
The transitional epithelium is characterized by presenting more capacity to change both pressure and volume by changing its appearance; For example, their more superficial cells become flat if the duct is full or they can become cubic if the duct is empty. It is composed of three layers of main cells (superficial, middle and basal) that allow each of them to carry a specific function.
The release of _______ from the pineal gland is important for establishing _______.
a. melatonin : thirst
b. prolactin : circadian rhythm
c. melatonin : circadian rhythm
d. prolactin : breast milk production
e. melanin : thirst
Put the following events of the adaptive immune response in the order they occur.
(a) The antigen-presenting macrophage and some of the bacteria enter the lymph and float down a lymph vessel to the lymph node.
(b) Cytokines, antibodies, and cytotoxic T cells flow through the blood, activating the other immune cells there that are part of the innate immune response and directing them toward the site of infection. The inflammation triggered by the innate immune response allows these immune cells to enter the infected tissue.
(c) You cut yourself and bacteria enter the wound.
(d) At the site of infection, antibodies neutralize, opsonize, and agglutinate the bacteria. The work of the antibodies makes it easier for the phagocytic cells of the innate immune system to destroy the bacteria. Cytotoxic T cells kill body cells that are infected, leaving scar tissue at the site of the wound.
(e) Helper T cells at the lymph node use their T cell receptors to bind the antigens on the surface of the dendrite and bacteria. This triggers the helper T cells to reproduce and to release cytokines.
(f) A dendrite near the cut phagocytizes some bacteria and uses MHC proteins to present exogenous antigens from the destroyed bacteria on its surface.
(g) B cells at the lymph node use their B cell receptors to bind to the antigens on the surface of the dendrite and the bacteria. These B cells also bind to the cytokines being produced. This triggers the B cells to reproduce and to start making lots of antibodies. The cytokines also trigger cytotoxic T cells to reproduce.
Answer:
The immune response to infection, of whatever kind, is vital for human survival. At its core lies the cells, and enzymes, as well as chemical components, that will activate these responses, the innate, and the acquired immune response.
Although still under lots of study, and science finding new things in this complex system, the order of the steps in which the system is activated, roughly, is this:
1. C. You cut yourself and bacteria enter the wound.
2. F. A dendrite near the cut phagocytizes some bacteria and uses MHC proteins to present exogenous antigens from the destroyed bacteria on its surface
3. A. The antigen-presenting macrophage and some of the bacteria, enter the lymph and float down a lymph vessel to the lymph node, where T cells are awaiting to recognize it and act.
4. E. Helper T cells at the lymph node use their T cell receptors to bind the antigens on the surface of the dendrite and bacteria. This triggers the helper T cells to reproduce, differentiate and release cytokines and other elements that increase inflamation and activate other immune cells.
5. G. Also, B cells at the lymph node use their B cell receptors to bind to the antigens on the surface of the bacteria and dendrite. These B cells also bind to the cytokines being produced. This triggers the B cells to reproduce and start making antibodies. They also trigger cytotoxic T cells CD4 and CD8 differentiation and activation.
6. B. All the elements produced flow through the blood, activating other immune responses and migrate them towards the site of infection. Because of the inflammation, and thanks to the cytokines and protoinflammatory elements, more cells are activated and they can penetrate the inflammed tissue.
7. D. Through the actions of the antibodies, cytokines, chemicals, and different actions of the cells, phagocytes, and cytotoxic T cells are finally able to destroy the invading bacteria and kill all infected tissue as well, leaving behin scar tissue at the site of the wound, and both B and T cells activate their memory capacity, so that if a new infection by that microorganism happens again, the response will be much faster and efficient.
This is a very broad organization of the immune response.
The adaptive immune response begins with bacterial entry and progresses through antigen presentation, T cell activation, B cell activation, antibody production, and immune defense against pathogens, culminating in infection control.
The adaptive immune response involves a series of events that occur in a specific sequence to combat infections. Here's the order in which these events take place:
Cut and Bacterial Entry (c): The immune response begins when you sustain a cut, and bacteria enter the wound.
Phagocytosis and Antigen Presentation (f): Dendritic cells near the cut site phagocytize some of the bacteria. They then present the antigens from the ingested bacteria on their surface using major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins.
Lymphatic Drainage (a): The antigen-presenting dendritic cells and some bacteria enter the lymphatic system and travel through lymph vessels to nearby lymph nodes.
Activation of Helper T Cells (e): Within the lymph node, helper T cells recognize the antigens presented by dendritic cells. This recognition triggers helper T cells to reproduce and release cytokines.
Activation of B Cells (g): B cells in the lymph node encounter both antigens on the dendritic cell's surface and the cytokines released by helper T cells. This dual stimulation prompts B cells to proliferate and produce antibodies.
Activation of Cytotoxic T Cells (g): Cytotoxic T cells are also stimulated by the cytokines released by helper T cells. These activated cytotoxic T cells start to replicate.
Antibody-Mediated Response (d): Antibodies produced by B cells are released into the bloodstream. These antibodies bind to and neutralize, opsonize, or agglutinate the bacteria at the site of infection. This enhances the ability of phagocytic cells from the innate immune system to eliminate the bacteria. Additionally, cytotoxic T cells kill infected body cells.
Inflammation and Recruitment (b): Inflammatory responses triggered by the innate immune system allow immune cells, including those activated by the adaptive response (cytotoxic T cells), to enter the infected tissue and combat the infection more effectively.
In summary, the adaptive immune response is a highly orchestrated process involving antigen presentation, activation of helper T cells, B cell activation and antibody production, cytotoxic T cell activation, and the subsequent immune defense against pathogens. These events work in concert to eliminate infections and promote the body's recovery.
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What major artery runs down the anterior side of the thigh?
Answer:
Femoral Artery
Explanation:
It continues down the anterior side of the thigh after exiting the femoral triangle.
What are cell membranes composed of?
Answer:
Proteins, phospholipids and cholestorol
Explanation:
Cell membranes are what binds the internal cells. The cholesterol contributes to strengthening the bilayer and allowing it to be more flexible but also less permeable to water-soluble materials. While the proteins in the membrane enable molecules to enter or exit the cell.
Which of the following is not true of the respiratory tract from the medium bronchi to the aveoli?
a. Lining of the tubes changes from ciliated columnar to simple squamous epithelium in the alveoli.
b. Proportionally, smooth muscle decreases uniformly.
c. Resistance to air flow increases due to the increase in cross-sectional diameter
d. Cartilage gradually decreases and disappears at the bronchioles.
Answer: C) Resistance to air flow increases due to the increase in cross-sectional diameter
Explanation:
As, resistance to air flow increased due to the increased in cross sectional diameter is not true because resistance offer by an individual alveolus is more than that it offered by the medium size bronchi but the number of alveoli is much more as compared. In fact that the maximum resistance to airflow is encountered in the medium sized bronchi.
The statement C is incorrect. Resistance to airflow actually decreases in the respiratory tract from the bronchi to the alveoli because the total cross-sectional area increases due to the vast number of alveoli. It's the combined area of these many airways that is critical, not the size of each individual one.
Explanation:The student's question is related to the structural changes that happen in the respiratory tract as one progresses from the medium bronchi to the alveoli. Therefore, the correct statement that is not true of the respiratory tract from medium bronchi to the alveoli is c. Resistance to airflow does not increase due to the increase in cross-sectional diameter. In fact, the resistance decreases because the total cross section area of the bronchi and bronchioles increases as you move down the respiratory tract.
This is due to the fact that, as we move from the bronchi to the alveoli, the total number of airways increases drastically, making the combined cross-sectional area of the respiratory tract larger. Therefore, despite each individual bronchiole being smaller, the total cross-sectional area is much larger, leading to decreased resistance.
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What are some triggers that would cause an increase in secretion of ADH?
Answer:
ADH is produced by the hypothalamus in the brain and stored in the posterior pituitary gland at the base of the brain. ADH is normally released by the pituitary in response to sensors that detect an increase in blood osmolality (number of dissolved particles in the blood) or decrease in blood volume.
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ADH is produced with the aid of the hypothalamus in the mind and stored in the posterior pituitary gland at the base of the mind. ADH is typically launched with the aid of the pituitary in response to sensors that come across a boom in blood osmolality (number of dissolved particles inside the blood) or lower in blood extent.
What do ADH hormones do?A hormone that allows blood vessels to constrict and allows the kidneys to manipulate the quantity of water and salt inside the frame. This enables the manipulation of blood strain and the quantity of urine this is made.
A decrease in blood volume or low blood stress, which takes place throughout dehydration or a hemorrhage, is detected by way of sensors (baroreceptors) inside the coronary heart and big blood vessels. those stimulate anti-diuretic hormone release.
it is a hormone made by using the hypothalamus within the mind and saved inside the posterior pituitary gland. It tells your kidneys how plenty water to conserve. ADH constantly regulates and balances the quantity of water in your blood. Higher water attention will increase the extent and pressure of your blood.
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The name of depressor labii inferioris tells what it does, where does it insert?
a. angle of the mouth
b. skin of the lower lip
c. skin of the chin
d. mandible
Answer:
Skin of the lower lip.
Explanation:
Depressor labii inferioris is the type of a chin muscle. This uscle originates from the base line of the mandible. Depressor labii inferioris muscle produce different facial expression.
Depressor labii inferioris muscle is inserted into the skin of lower lip. This muscle helps in the pulling of lower lip forward and downward.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Final answer:
The depressor labii inferioris muscle inserts (option b) into the skin of the lower lip, aiding in the downward movement of the lip which is indicative of its function based on its name.
Explanation:
The name depressor labii inferioris indeed hints at its function and insertion point. This muscle is responsible for pulling the lower lip downward and slightly to the side, aiding in expressions such as frowning or pouting. Given its role, the question on where it inserts can be answered by understanding the anatomy of the facial muscles and their connection points.
This muscle originates from the mandible, specifically near the oblique line, and inserts into the skin of the lower lip. Unlike the other muscles mentioned such as the depressor anguli oris or buccinator, which have different insertion points like the angles of the mouth or deeper structures of the face, the depressor labii inferioris specifically targets the skin of the lower lip to achieve its function.
What are the different layers of the skin?
Answer:
Epidermis, dermis and hypodermis
Explanation:
The first layer is the epidermis, it is the layer that protects the organism against infection and pathogens. Most of this layer is composed by keratinocytes and it has a stratified squamous epithelium: This layer is not just a defensive barrier it also regulates the temperatures due to water loses contained in its cells and finelly it contains melanine that gives the pigment to the skin
The dermis is the second layer it also works as a termic barrier: the cells contained in this layer are adipocites and fibroblasts mainly. this layer also contain a lot of vessels that give nutrients to the bottom layers of the epidermis another function is to give strenght and elasticity to the skin
Hypodermis is the last one it has a lot of fat cells and conective tissue giving support and energy to the other layers.
The skin comprises three main layers: the epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis. The epidermis further consists of sublayers, the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum. The dermis houses hair follicles, sweat glands, nerves, and blood vessels while the hypodermis is a fatty layer beneath the dermis.
Explanation:The human skin is primarily composed of three main layers: the epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis. The epidermis is the outermost layer, and it further consists of sublayers, specifically the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum. Each one of these sublayers has specific cells and functions.
The next layer is the dermis that contains the hair follicles, sweat glands, nerves, and blood vessels. Lastly, a layer of fatty tissue known as the hypodermis lies beneath the dermis and contains blood and lymph vessels.
It's important to know that 'thin skin' has four layers of cells whereas 'thick skin', found only on the soles of the feet and the palms of the hands, has an additional layer, the stratum lucidum.
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Pain perceived in an amputated limb is known as the _________.
Answer:
phantom limb
Explanation:
Amputees usually experience sensations including pain in thephantom limb.
A spermatogonium in males is equivalent to _____________ in females.
a. oogonium
b. primitive oocyte
c. primary oocyte
d. secondary oocyte
e. tertiary oocyte
Answer:
The answer is C: primary oocyte
Explanation:
Ovogenesis is the process by which the ovary gives rise to a mature ovum (oocyte). The primary oocyte is the first to form during ovogonia, once the process of meiosis begins. It is compared with spermatogonium as it is also the initial phase for sperm formation.
An African American young adult is admitted to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis with a report of 10/10 pain. The patient is known to several of the nurses and physicians in the department who have labeled the patient as a “drug seeker”.
Initial Discussion Post:
Identify one (1) intervention that can be taken by the RN to reduce the stigma and improve management of acute and chronic pain associated with sickle cell disease.
Does the intervention apply only to the patient? Does it apply only to the interprofessional team? Does it apply to both the patient and the members of the interprofessional team? Explain and support your answer.
Answer:
The situation of a patient with sickle cell anemia, and especially when facing a sickle cell crisis, is critical in regards to the level of pain that these patients experience. There are those whose pain is acute, while others suffer it chronically, and yet others with a mixture of both. Some patients, who do not develop tolerance to pain medication, such as opioids, will only seek pain relief help when the pain, caused by infarction of the tissues due to the occlusions caused by the disease, in vessels, and thus tissues, gets intense. However, there are people who become tolerant, and begin to become known by healthcare professionals as "drug seekers". The problem here is the lack of knowledge on the part of professionals, on how pain can affect the person, and how pain is felt differently depending on the person and the severity of the lession caused by an occlusion. This lack of proper knowledge is what leads some professionals to judge the person who constantly alters his level of pain perception to justify being given more medication.
However, the nursing staff here plays a critical role in two ways, first, ensuring education of the patient on the different ways that pain can be managed by the patient, without becoming oversdosed on opioids, and the second, on educating the personnel who works with these patients.
As such, one intervention would be to teach the patient about the different types of pain relievers that he can use, that will at least soften the pain. But more importantly, there is work to be done, on the part of the nurse, on teaching the patient how to handle pain without any medication, and there are breathing techniques, and meditation techniques, that will help the patient learn to place his/her pain in the proper proportion, before doping himself/herself with opioids.
But in response to the second question, the intervention of the nurse must be on both the patient and the team that works with the patient. As said before, education is the key, and this is a vital role of nurses. The nurse must also ensure that her team learns about how the disease works, where the pain comes from, why this patient is constantly seeking pain meds, and how each of the team members can play their own role in helping the patient manage his pain.
Name the site of production of the following hormone:
a. Glucagon
b. Cortisol
c. Calcitonin
d. TSH
e. GHRH
f. Insulin
g. Oxytocin
Answer:
a. Glucagon - Pancreas
b. Cortisol - Adrenal gland.
c. Calcitonin - Thyroid gland.
d. TSH - Pituitary gland.
e. GHRH - Hypothalamus.
f. Insulin - Pancreas.
g. Oxytocin - Hypothalamus.
Explanation:
a. Glucagon is a peptide hormone which is synthesized and secreted by alpha cells of insulin. It regulates level of blood sugar by increasing glucose level during hypoglycemic conditions.
b. Cortisol is a lipid-derived hormone, which is produced by cortex of adrenal gland. It increases level of blood sugar under stress conditions and triggers anti-inflammatory and anti-stress pathways.
c. Calcitonin is a peptide hormone, which is produced by thyroid hormone. It is a hypocalcemic hormone that decreases level of blood calcium when blood calcium concentration reaches above the normal level.
d. TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) is produced by anterior lobe of pituitary gland. It triggers production of thyroid hormones (T4 and T3) from thyroid gland.
e. GHRH (growth hormone releasing hormone) is produced by hypothalamus. It gives signal to pituitary gland for the production of growth hormone.
f. Insulin is a peptide hormone, produced by beta cells of pancreas. It regulates blood sugar level by decreasing blood glucose during hyperglycemic conditions.
g. Oxytocin is is synthesized by hypothalamus and is released by posterior lobe of pituitary gland. It plays role in labour pain and lactation.
The ligament which covers most of the female reproductive organs and is often referred to as a "drape" is what structure?
A) Ovarian ligament
B) Round ligament
C) Broad ligament
D) Suspensory ligament
Answer: C) Broad ligament
Explanation:
A ligament can be define as a fibrous connective tissue which links bone to bone.
The ligaments present in the female reproductive tract are the structures which supports the internal female genitalia covered by the bony pelvis.
A broad ligament is a ligament which is associated with the female reproductive organs.
It exhibit a layer of peritoneum membrane, that is associated with ovaries, fallopian tubes and uterus.
The broad ligament is divides into three regions:
1. Mesometrium: It covers the uterus. In the broad ligament it is the largest subsection.
2. Mesovarium: It originate from the posterior surface of the broad ligament and connects to the hilum of the ovary. It does not cover the entire surface of the ovary.
3. Mesosalpinx: It originates from the mesovarium superiorly and encloses the fallopian tubes.
The principle effect of ADH is to:
a. increase blood pressure in the glomerulus.
b. cause the release of renin.
c. inhibit aldosterone release.
d. increase the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.
Answer:
The correct answer is option D.
Explanation:
Antidiuretic hormone or ADH is a hormone which helps the body to maintain the amount of water by reducing the loss of water through urine. This hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus which is stored in the pituitary gland.
The hormone acts by binding to the receptor which stimulates the insertion of "water channels" in the tubule membranes of kidney especially in Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. These kidney aquaporins help the absorption of water from the urine reducing the loss of water.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
Answer: D) increase the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.
Explanation:
The principle of ADH is to increased in the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collected duct as, the action of ADH on receptors enhances the water permeability the and insertion of aquaporin AQP-2 channel in the cell membrane. The main function of the ADH is to conserved water through kidney and get released in posterior pituitary gland.
Sustained muscle spasms from hypocalcemia are known as
a. virilism.
b. synergism.
c. tetany.
d. lactation.
The correct answer is C. Tetany
Explanation:
In medicine, hypocalcemia refers to a low level of calcium in the blood or a deficiency which is related to lack of vitamin D but also other conditions such as pancreatitis, kidney failures, etc. Besides this, serious deficiency of calcium can lead to confusion, heart attacks and tetany which refers to a type of seizure or involuntary muscule spams that are mostly related to hypocalcemia, although other factors such as excess of potassium or low levels of magnesium or carbon dioxide can also cause it. Therefore, the sustained muscle spasms from hypocalcemia are known as tetany.
Answer:
The answer is c. tetany.
Explanation:
Tetany (also known as tetanic seizure) is a term used to describe a condition whereby involuntary contraction of muscles (or muscle spasms) occurs in parts or systems of the human body as a result of hypocalcemia (low concentration of calcium in the blood); usually, low calcium levels lead to cramps, involuntary contraction of muscles in the arms, hands, legs and feet, and spasms in the larynx.
The primary functional cell found in nervous tissue is the:
a) neuron
b) fiber
c) fibroblast
d) squamous
Answer:
a) Neuron
Explanation:
Thanks to its anatomy the neuron can be excitated to send signals to the different cells. Thanks to the cell body, axon and synaptic terminals the neurons process and transmite those signals generated by a stimulus.
What bacteria are most associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome?
a) Clostridium
b) Campylobacter
c) E. coli
d) Shigella
The correct answer is B. Campylobacter
Explanation:
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a disease in which the nerves and muscles are weakened usually as the immune system attacks them which leads to changes in muscles strength, pain, and even life-threatening conditions. Although the causes of this syndrome have not been completely determined in most of the cases the condition seems to be triggered by an infection and around 30% of people who experienced an infection before the syndrome had an infection caused by Campylobacter, which suggests the syndrome is related to this type of bacteria, although it has been also linked in few cases with influenza virus, Zika virus and others. Considering this, the bacteria that is most associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome is the Campylobacter.