Answer:
Featured snippet from the web
It consists of a 5-carbon sugar (deoxyribose), phosphate group, and nitrogen bases. ... DNA's nitrogen bases are called: adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine.
As an aspiring undergraduate researcher, you want to identify the gene responsible for bacterial virulence of your favorite pathogenic microbe. After subjecting your favorite microbe to random mutagenesis (i.e. forward genetics), you identify a mutant strain that has completely lost its virulence properties. Partial sequencing of your favorite pathogen’s genome reveals a mutation in the DNA sequence encoding gene X. You are excited, and rush to write a paper proclaiming your exciting result that gene X is responsible for the virulence of your favorite pathogen, which you hope to publish in a top journal. However, your cautious lab-mate encourages you to not to be too hasty, and convinces you to generate and test the exact same mutation in gene X by directed mutagenesis (i.e. reverse genetics). Much to your horror, when you test the effects of the directed gene X mutation in your animal model, the strain containing the directed mutation in gene X was fully virulent relative to the wild type strain of your favorite pathogen. Based on these data alone, what is the most likely reason that the strain generated by random mutagenesis had fully lost virulence, while the same mutation introduced by directed mutagenesis resulted in a strain of your favorite pathogen that was fully virulent?
Answer:
When directed mutagenesis which is also called reverse genetics is used, only a single mutation per genome is introduced. In contrast, the number of mutations per genome introduced by random mutagenesis is usually difficult to control. It is likely that the strain you obtained with a mutation in gene X after random mutagenesis contained an additional mutation or perhaps multiple mutations which ultimately was/were responsible for loss of virulence in your favorite pathogen.
Consider the following experiment: True-breeding tall pea plants are cut short before being pollinated to determine if there is an effect on the offspring. Which explanation for trait inheritance is this testing?
This experiment is testing the principle of trait inheritance known as Mendelian inheritance. It aims to understand if cutting short the true-breeding tall pea plants before pollination affects the traits inherited by the offspring.
Explanation:This experiment is testing the principle of trait inheritance known as Mendelian inheritance. Mendelian inheritance refers to the idea that traits are determined by discrete units called genes, which are passed from parents to offspring. By cutting short the true-breeding tall pea plants before pollination, the experimenter is investigating if this has an effect on the traits inherited by the offspring. This allows for the examination of whether the trait is dominant or recessive based on the appearance of the offspring.
Homeostasis is the state of maintaining a stable ________
environment despite changing __________
conditions.
Answer:
Homeostasis is the state of maintaining a stable
internal
environment despite changing
external
conditions.
Explanation:
got from edge
Homeostasis is the state of maintaining a stable internal environment despite changing external conditions.
What is homeostasis?Homeostasis is the ability of living organisms to maintain stable internal conditions, despite changes in the external environment. It is a complex, dynamic process that involves multiple physiological systems working together to regulate various parameters such as temperature, blood glucose levels, pH, and others.
These systems use feedback mechanisms to detect and respond to changes, keeping the internal environment within a narrow range of values that are optimal for survival. Maintaining homeostasis is crucial for survival as it allows organisms to adapt to their environment and maintain optimal functioning of their cells, tissues, and organs.
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Total nucleic acids are extracted from a culture of animal cells and are then mixed with resin beads to which the polynucleotide 5′-TTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTTT-3′ has been covalently attached. After a short incubation, the beads are then extracted from the mixture. When you analyze the cellular nucleic acids that have stuck to the beads, which of the following is most abundant?A. DNA.
B. tRNA.
C. rRNA. (it is not this one, I put this and it was wrong.)
D. mRNA.
E. Primary transcript RNA.
Answer:
D. mRNA.Explanation:
1. It is mRNA because it is the only type of RNA that is polyadenylated and the poly (A) tail at the 3' end of it.
2. It would be able to base pair with the strands of poly(T) on the beads by base pairing, and it can stick to poly (T) on the beasd.
3. DNA would not be found in the sample, as the poly (A) tail is not encoded in the DNA and long runs of T are rare in DNA.
What is the composition of VLP? What are its characteristics?
Answer:
Explanation:
VLP are virus like particles they resemble virus but are not virus because they do not have viral components, they lack genomic material but contain protein that makes up a viral plasmid. They cannot replicate in cells.
VLP occurs naturally and some could be synthesize artificially by inducing or express virus structural protein which later assembly to form VLP.
VLP have been produced from wide variety of virus depending on the purpose of synthesis example include Parvoviridae--- adeno-associated virus), Retroviridae --HIV) some are produce by class one retrotransposons that are not genetically effective because the do not posses a viral envelope.
Your answer is CORRECT. Archaea that live by black smokers at hydrothermal vents under the ocean are often A) anaerobic due to the low oxygen content of the water in these locations B) barophilic C) psychrophilic D) Only A and B are correct E) Only B and C are correct
Explanation:
Hydrothermal vents, also known as deep sea vents are the aftermath of a volcanic eruption due to shifting of the plates that form the Earth’s crustBlack smokers are formed due to the high pressure at this depth and temperature of the trapped water because of which there is low oxygen content of water The black smokers emit fluids and causing it to emit chemicals such as sulfide, iron, copper and zincBarophiles are organisms whose survival and reproduction is optimized to high pressures, such as those in deep sea environmentsPsychrophiles are microorganisms that can grow at 0 °C and below, have an optimum growth temperature close to 15 °C, and usually do not survive at temperatures above 20 °CThey are found in permanently cold environments such as the deep waters of the oceans and because they are active at low temperature, psychrophiles are important decomposers in cold climatesIf two traits among flowers, dwarfism and stem color, were on the same pair of chromosomes, would you expect an F2 generation of 9:3:3:1 for a dihybrid cross? Use Mendel’s laws and your understanding of meiosis to explain your answe
Answer:
Yes, there will still be a chance for the F2 generation to have a ratio 9:3:3:1
Explanation:
According to Mendel's law of segregation, alleles of a gene pair separate at the time of game formation.
According to the Law of independence, the alleles sort independently into the gametes.
Even if the two traits under study are located on the same chromosome, they will segregate and assort independently at the time of gamete formation.
Also, at the time of meiosis, one of the alleles will arise from each parent hence there will still be a chance for the F2 generation to have a 9:3:3:1 ratio.
Crossing over and independent assortment depends on how distant genes are from each other. In the exposed example, if genes are not linked, the phenotypic ratio among the progeny is expected to be 9:3:3:1.
-----------------------------------
⇒ Independent Assortment
Independent assortment law establishes that during gamete formation, the alleles from two or more different genes distribute independently from each other.
In other words, a gamete can receive alleles from different genes that do not depend nor influence each other during segregation.
Each gamete receives alleles that were randomly distributed.
Independent assortment law only applies to independent genes, not linked genes.
⇒ Independent Genes
These genes segregate independently after crossing over because they are located far away from each other in the same chromosome, or they are at different chromosomes.
⇒ Linked Genes
These genes are too close to each other in the same chromosome, that they do not segregate independently.
They are placed so close, that they can not distribute independently from each other, and they inherit together more frequently.
Crossing-over between linked genes that are very close to each other in the chromosome is not that common.
⇒ Crossing over events
Crossing-over during meiosis occurs randomly in different positions all along the chromosome.
Its occurrence frequency in the area between two genes depends on the distance between them.
A short distance between genes is a very little target for crossing-over to occur, which means that only a few of them will happen, compared with the number of events between genes that are more separated from each other.
There are few chances of crossing over and recombination events between two linked genes. These genes are strongly bounded.
The more distant two genes are, the higher chances of recombination events over there are.
The closer they are, the fewer chances of recombination there are.
⇒ Distances in Map Units
When the distance between genes is inferior to 50 Map Units, genes are considered to be linked, and they do not assort independently.
When the distance between two genes equals or exceeds 50 Map Units, genes are not linked and they distribute independently from each other.
**************************************
Would you expect an F2 generation of 9:3:3:1 for a dihybrid cross?
According to this framework, we could say that the probability of getting a phenotypic ratio 9:3:3:1 among the F2 depends on how distant genes are from each other.
We already know that they are placed in the same chromosome.
If the distance between them is inferior than 50 MU,
They are linkedNo crossing over between themPhenotypic ratio among the progeny different from 9:3:3:1If the distance between them equals or exceeds 50 MU,
They are not linkedThere are higher probabilities of crossing over between themPhenotypic ratio among progeny 9:3:3:1----------------------
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What landslide will produce the highest amount of kinetic energy for an object of constant mass moving down it
Answer:
Landslide will produce the highest amount of kinetic energy if it moves with high speed and with a large mass.
Explanation:
Kinetic energy is type of energy which depends on the speed and mass of the body. Kinetic energy has direct relation with mass and speed of the body. If speed and mass of an object is higher, maximum kinetic energy will be produced in the object while the object has lower kinetic energy if it has lower speed and less mass. So this phenomenon is also apply on the kinetic energy of landslide. If mass and speed of the landslide is higher, its kinetic energy is also higher.
Describe five cultural or societal values (anything to do with humans except
economy) of an estuary.
Answer:
Explanation:
Estuary is a part of a coastal body where the fresh water and stream meet with the ocean.
1. Recreation: estuary is important for recreation activities ( i.e the activities done in our leisure time) like boating, fishing surfing and bird watching.
2. Scientific knowledge: it serves as a basis for laboratories for scientists, for poets to learn, painters to be inspired and acquire knowledge, bird watchers.
3. Education: It provide quality lessons and inspired ideas in biology,geology, chemistry, physics, history , social studies e.t.c.
4. Aesthetic values. It provide aesthetic values and enjoyment for humans.
5. Food: some of the product gotten from estuary like lobsters are consumed as food by humans.
A woman has a condition where all of her gametes undergo nondisjunction of chromosome 21 in meiosis II, but meiosis I proceeds normally. She mates with a man who produces all normal gametes. What is the probability that the fertilized egg will develop into a child with Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Answer:
1/4.
Explanation:
If the nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II, 4 gametes are formed in which types of gametes are 3. Out of the 4 gametes, 2 are normal, 2 will have aneuploidy as shown in the diagram attached. Out of the 2 aneuploid gametes, one will have 2 haploid chromosomes while another one will not have any chromosome at all.
Now when this female will mate with a man who has produced normal gametes, each of the gamete produced by this female will have the probability to receive 1 haploid gamete from the male. After fusion/fertilization, total 4 zygotes which are of 3 types may form. One of the zygotes will have 3 chromosomes i.e. will have trisomy (which will develop into Down's syndrome), one of them will have 1 chromosome i.e. will have monosomy while 2 zygotes will be normal i.e. will be diploid.
So, the probability of a child being born with Down's syndrome will be 1/4.
Select the correct answer.
Respiration is a process where many chemical bonds inside the body break and release energy. This energy is used to perform various activities
such as moving muscles. Explain the energy transformation in this process.
A. Chemical energy from broken bonds is transformed into mechanical energy for muscles.
B. Mechanical energy from broken bonds is transformed into chemical energy for muscles.
C. Mechanical energy from broken bonds is transformed into electrical energy for muscles.
D. Heat energy from broken bonds is transformed into electrical energy for muscles.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Food (glucose) is a store of chemical energy which is broken down to produce atp which is then transformed into mechanical energy for muscles.
Answer:
A. Chemical energy from broken bonds is transformed into mechanical energy for muscles.
Explanation:
this is the right answer trust me because i trust me
Identify the function of the following different types of RNA molecules:
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
Answer:
Explanation:
mRNA is used to produce proteins from genes. rRNA, along with protein, forms the ribosome, which translates mRNA. tRNA is the link between the two other types of RNA.
Which of the following represents how Ebola spreads in a community?
(Choice A)
A
Ebola is airborne and spreads quickly in large congregations (e.g. movie theaters, airplanes).
(Choice B)
B
Ebola is waterborne and can spread through infected rivers and lakes.
(Choice C)
C
Ebola is foodborne and can infect individuals that don’t thoroughly wash their fruits and vegetables.
(Choice D)
D
Ebola is spread when body fluids (e.g. blood) from a sick individual enter a healthy individual.
Answer:
D
Ebola is spread when body fluids (e.g. blood) from a sick individual enter a healthy individual.
Explanation:
i took the question and got it correct. please like and rate my answer. brainliest please?
Is this statement True or False?
Energy from the sun that enters the Earth system does not leave.
Final answer:
The statement is False. Energy from the sun that enters the Earth system does leave.
Explanation:
The statement is False. Energy from the sun that enters the Earth system does leave. While the Earth system as a whole is a closed system with virtually no mass exchanged between the Earth system and the rest of the universe, energy in the form of solar radiation passes from the Sun to the Earth and Earth emits radiation back out to space. This means that energy does cross the Earth's system boundary, making it a closed system.
this organism is a single cell that was isolated from the human body has no nicleus and was causing the patient to be ill
I think the organism ii bacteria
Amoeba sister: video recap- pedigrees
Explanation:
Pedigree is like a recorded family tree with its past generations. In the pedigree, Circles represent females and Squares represent males. Now, the Roman numerals represent the generations. The long line (-) represents the marriange line and the bottom line under the parents, represent the line to the children. The shaded shapes are traits that are being tracked in the pedigree. An example of this are earlobes. Attached earlobes means that the recessive trait took over. Free unattached earlobes mean that the dominant trait took over.
That's as much as I can help with... Although, I do hope that this is helpful...
A video recap by Amoeba Sisters explaining pedigrees, summarizing essential concepts related to family inheritance patterns and genetic traits.
In the video recap on pedigrees, they likely delve into the understanding of pedigrees as a visual tool used in genetics to trace the inheritance of traits within a family.
A pedigree is a diagram that shows the occurrence and relationships of a particular genetic trait or disease across several generations in a family. It uses standardized symbols to represent individuals and their relationships, allowing for a clear representation of genetic patterns.
In the video, the Amoeba Sisters would likely cover how to interpret the symbols in a pedigree, like squares for males, circles for females, shaded symbols for affected individuals, and so on.
They may explain how pedigrees can demonstrate whether a trait is dominant or recessive, and how it can provide insights into the likelihood of a child inheriting a particular trait.
Understanding pedigrees is crucial in fields like genetics and genetic counseling, where it helps professionals trace the occurrence of genetic diseases or traits in families.
By analyzing patterns within pedigrees, scientists can make predictions about the inheritance of specific genes and provide information about potential genetic risks.
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The presence of a beard on some goats is determined by an autosomal gene that is dominant in males and recessive in females. Heterozygous males are bearded, while heterozygous females are beardless. What type of inheritance is exhibited by this trait?
Answer:
Explanation:
Some autosomal genes may affect the phenotypes of individuals of one sex more than individuals of the other but they play no part in the development of being a male or being a female. this type of gene is thus a sex influenced autosomal gene. The type of inheritance exhibited by this trait in the male goat follows the autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance meaning the for the trait to be expressed, it has to be the dominant allele form on the X chromosome. In the females, this trait follows the autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance such that for a female goat to be bearded, the trait must be inherited as a homozygous recessive trait, while an heterozygous or a homozygous dominant female will be beardless.
The presence of a beard on some goats is determined by an autosomal gene that is dominant in males and recessive in females, exhibiting autosomal inheritance.
Explanation:This trait exhibits autosomal inheritance. The presence of the beard trait is determined by a gene located on an autosomal chromosome, not on the sex chromosomes. It is dominant in males, which means that even if they have only one copy of the gene, they will exhibit the trait. In females, the gene is recessive, so they must have two copies of the gene to have the trait.
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Many species of organisms are found only on islands. Lemurs are found only on Madagascar and koalas only on Australia. Which factor contributes MOST to this situation?
Answer:
genetic isolation is the answer
Answer:
C
Explanation:
I got it right on usa test prep;)
What is the name of the neurotransmitter released by the postganglionic motor neurons in the sympathetic nervous system
Answer:
i) Acetylcholine.
ii) Neurotransmitter which is released by postganglionic motor neurons in the sympathetic nervous system is Nor-epinephrine.
What factors, other than exercise, would increase the heartbeat rate?
Answer:
Emotions and anxiety can raise your heart rate, Body Temperature: If you become too hot or too cold your body senses a thermal stress load, The terrain, Wind, Dehydration, Diminishing glycogen stores — your muscles primary fuel source.
Explanation:
Har Gobind Khorana and his colleagues performed numerous experiments translating synthetic mRNAs. In one experiment, an mRNA molecule with a repeating UG dinucleotide sequence was assembled and translated.
Write the sequence of this mRNA. Select all that apply.
a) 3'-GUGUGUGUGUGUGUGU...-5'
b) 5'-GUGUGUGUGUGUGUGU...-3'
c) 3'-UGUGUGUGUGUGUGUG...-5'
d) 5'-UGUGUGUGUGUGUGUG...-3'
Answer:
d) 5'-UGUGUGUGUGUGUGUG...-3'
Explanation:
A UG dinucleotide is when UG is repeated.
mRNAs are transcribed and translated as a 5' to 3' molecule. Therefore, the direction should be 5' - 3'.
For the mRNA to be in frame, it must start with UG. The only option that runs 5' - 3' and is in frame for a UG dinucleotide is d.
Har Gobind Khorana's experiment used a synthetic mRNA molecule with a repeating UG dinucleotide sequence. The correct sequence reflecting the direction of transcription is d) 5'-UGUGUGUGUGUGUGUG...
Explanation:The question refers to an experiment conducted by Har Gobind Khorana and his colleagues, in which a synthetic mRNA molecule with a repeating UG dinucleotide sequence was assembled and translated. mRNA sequences are written from the 5' end to the 3' end, reflecting the direction of transcription. So, the repeating sequence of this mRNA molecule is d) 5'-UGUGUGUGUGUGUGUG...
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Radiation
Definition: (type here)
3 additional examples of radiation (besides the pictured) (type here)
Complete the following statement. Cellulose and amylose are ________. 1,4' linked polymers of D-glucose which differ in the stereochemistry of this linkage 1,6' linked polymers of D-glucose which differ in the stereochemistry of this linkage polymers of D-glucose which are structurally isomeric polymers of D-galactose which are structurally isomeric synonyms for the only polymeric form of D-glucose
Answer:
The correct answer is: 1,4' linked polymers of D-glucose which differ in the stereochemistry of this linkage.
Explanation:
Cellulose and amylose are both polysaccharides and polymers of glucose (which means that they are composed of glucose molecules). While cellulose is mostly found on the cell wall of plants and algae, amylose (along with amylopectin) form the main carbohydrate in humans' diets: starch.
While the glucose molecules in amylose are linked by α(1-4) glycosidic bonds, the glucose molecules in cellulose have β(1-4) glycosidic bonds. This particularity is what makes amylose and cellulose compounds differ from one another.
Answer:
1,4' linked polymers of D-glucose which differ in the stereochemistry of this linkage
Explanation:
Cellulose and amylose are polymers of glucose. Amylose's monomeric units are linked by alpha α-1,-4-glycosidic bonds and cellulose monomeric units are joined by β 1-4 glycosidic bonds. These two substances are carbonhydrates; polysaccharides in particular: polymeric carbohydrates composed of monosaccharide units linked toghether by glcosidic bonds.
Choose a plant tissue. Write an explanation of
how that tissue's structure relates to its function.
Be specific and detailed.
Answer:
Dermal Tissue
Dermal Tissue: a group of cells that make up the outermost layer of a plant and function as protection
Location
Outer layer of plant
Function
Protection
Dermal Tissue-Important Structures
Cuticle
Protects from injury
Prevents water loss
Guard cells
Controls gas exchange
Prevents water loss
Explanation:
trust
Answer:
Answer:
Dermal Tissue
Dermal Tissue: a group of cells that make up the outermost layer of a plant and function as protection
Location
Outer layer of plant
Function
Protection
Dermal Tissue-Important Structures
Cuticle
Protects from injury
Prevents water loss
Guard cells
Controls gas exchange
Prevents water loss
Explanation:uoij0
Why do you believe many cancers go unrecognized until after the formation of tumors and/or the person becomes
Answer:
Explanation:
Some cancers go unrecognised because they tend not to grow in a steady, linear order. These tumors can remain dormant for long periods of time unless triggered by a promoter agent that will promote its growth followed by a period of rapid and fast growth, such as occurs after angiogenesis is initiated. Thus, equipment that will be extremely sensitive to the processes that these cells before they metastasize has to be developed to detect their presence. Some available equipments detect their actions through the substances they shed into the bloodstream but these cells would have begun metastasis by this period.
Cancers often grow slowly and do not cause symptoms in the early stages, which makes them difficult to detect. Additionally, they can develop in parts of the body that aren't easily observable, leading to further delays in diagnosis.
Explanation:Many cancers go unrecognized until after the formation of tumours and/or the person becomes symptomatic because these diseases often develop slowly and may not cause symptoms in their early stages. The body doesn't always recognize cancerous cells because they are similar to normal body cells.
As a result, they don't cause an immunological reaction. Furthermore, tumours can grow unnoticed in areas of the body that are not easily observed, like the lungs or pancreas. This lack of immediately recognizable symptoms can lead to a delay in diagnosis.
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Which two systems most directly interact in the fuzzy millipede's defense against ants?
Two systems most directly interact in the fuzzy millipede's defense against ants are :
muscular and integumentary
Explanation:
The fuzzy millipede, Polyxenus fasciculatus, is found in Texas and is preyed upon by most species of ants. Most millipedes defend themselves with a variety of chemicals secreted from pores along the body, although the tiny bristle millipedes are covered with tufts of detachable bristles. Due to their lack of speed and their inability to bite or sting, millipedes' primary defence mechanism is to curl into a tight coil – protecting their delicate legs inside an armoured exoskeleton.Reproduction in most species is carried out by modified male legs called gonopods, which transfer packets of sperm to females.Millipedes overwinter, so they may hide in cracks or crevices throughout the whole winter and emerge in the spring.These insects live in dark, damp places and feed on decaying plant life, sometimes damaging crops. But they can serve a good purpose too.To protect itself against the ants, it ejects fibers from a tuft located at the tail end of its body. When an ant attacks, the millipede flexes its back end toward the ant and wipes the tufts against it.
Answer:
Muscular and integumentary
Explanation:
I just did it
If a diploid cell has 4 pairs of chromosomes (2n = 8) during G1, how many DNA double helices will be present in G1? in G2? in metaphase? in each daughter cell after cell division is complete?
Answer:
At G1- 8
At G2 - 16
At metaphase - 16
In daughter cells - 8
Explanation:
In the G1 phase which is the growth phase before the S phase (DNA synthesis), the number of DNA double helices present will be 8 double helices.
In the G2 phase, which is the phase after the S phase i. e. doubling of the chromosomes, the number of DNA double helices here increases by which which makes it sixteen and the chromosome number is still 8 because each chromosome has 2 sister chromatids which occurs after replication.
In metaphase there is still sixteen double helices which is eight chromosomes with 2 sister chromatids each lying on the metaphase plate.
After cell division, each daughter cell will have eight double helices each just like the parent.
This glandular tissue resembles that of the salivary gland (clusters of zymogenic cells). What feature unique to the pancreas would help you to distinguish it from the salivary gland?
Answer:
Seen on the explanation.
Explanation:
Glandular tissues are a mixture of both endocrine (ductless, hormones are secreted directly into the blood) and exocrine (have ducts, hormones are secreted into surfaces) glands.
The pancreas and salivary glands are both exocrine glands although the pancreas has an endocrine function via the islets of Langerhans, both aid in the digestion of food.
The pancreas lacks striated ducts and the intralobular duct is similar to the intercalated duct of salivary glands. It often has a collapsed lumens and the cells are cuboidal with little cytoplasmic staining in contrast to acinar cells.
The pancreas can also be distinguished from the parotid gland by the presence of the pancreatic islet (islets of langerharns) which has an endocrine function.
The correct feature unique to the pancreas that would help distinguish it from the salivary gland is the presence of both exocrine and endocrine functions.
The pancreas is a unique organ in that it has both exocrine and endocrine functions, which is a key feature that distinguishes it from the salivary gland. The exocrine function of the pancreas is responsible for the production of digestive enzymes that are secreted into the duodenum to aid in the digestion of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. These enzymes are produced by the acinar cells and are transported through a system of ducts, eventually emptying into the pancreatic duct and then into the duodenum.
In contrast, the endocrine function of the pancreas involves the production of hormones such as insulin and glucagon by the islets of Langerhans. These hormones are secreted directly into the bloodstream and are crucial for the regulation of blood glucose levels.
On the other hand, the salivary gland is primarily an exocrine gland, composed of serous and mucous cells that produce saliva. Saliva contains enzymes like salivary amylase, which begins the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth, and it also contains mucus to lubricate food for swallowing. However, the salivary gland does not have an endocrine function.
Therefore, the presence of both digestive enzyme-secreting exocrine tissue and hormone-secreting endocrine tissue is the distinguishing feature of the pancreas that sets it apart from the salivary gland.
The complete question - contain a image added below-
This glandular tissue resembles that of the salivary gland (clusters of zymogenic cells). What feature unique to the pancreas would help you to distinguish it from the salivary gland?
The tac promoter, an artificial promoter made from portions of the trp and lacUV5 promoters, has been introduced into a plasmid. It is a hybrid of the lac and trp (tryptophan) promoters, containing the −35 region of one and the −10 region of the other. This promoter directs transcription initiation more efficiently than either the trp or lac promoters. Why? Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right.
Answer:
reason is that it uses the -35 region of the trp promoter and -10 region of the lacUV5 promotor, the tac promotor more closely resembles the consensus -35 and -10 sequences than either trp or lac. Tac has 12 out of 12 identiies with the consensus sequences, whereas lac and trp have 9.
Tac promotor is a synthetic, 2hybrid promoter widely used in E.coli for protein production in E.coli using the same induction and repression systems of lac promotor.
Explanation:
The tac promoter directs transcription initiation more efficiently than the trp or lac promoters because it contains hybrid −35 and −10 regions that are more efficiently recognized by RNA polymerase.
Matching the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right:
Left column Right column
trp promoter contains the -10 region of the tac promoter
lac promoter contains the -35 region of the tac promoter
-35 region recognized by the α subunit of RNA polymerase
-10 region recognized by the σ subunit of RNA polymerase
transcription initiation the process of starting to synthesize an RNA molecule
consensus sequence a DNA sequence that is common to many promoters
The tac promoter is a hybrid of the lac and trp promoters, containing the 35 region of the lac promoter and the 10 region of the trp promoter.
The -35 region is recognized by the α subunit of RNA polymerase, and the -10 region is recognized by the σ subunit of RNA polymerase.
The tac promoter directs transcription initiation more efficiently than either the trp or lac promoters because it contains consensus sequences for both the -35 and -10 regions.
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Cells that live in the ocean are often starved for phosphate and so their growth is P limited. Cells that need less P to grow will have an advantage over cells that needs lots of P to grow. Which of the following might provide an evolutionary advantage to a bacterium growing in an environment where P is scarce. Check all possible answers which apply: a. the cells evolve to have very few proteins per cell b. the cells evolve to have a very small number of ribosomes c. the cells evolve to have a very small genome d.the cells evolve to have a very small diameter e. the cells evolve a cell wall that lacks peptidoglycan