What event triggers the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter?

Answers

Answer 1

Peristalsis in the Esophagus event triggers the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter.

Explanation:

In the esophagus, there are two types of peristalsis occurs.The first one is a "primary peristaltic wave" occurs through which bolus enters esophagus during swallowing. This "wave pushes the bolus down esophagus", into stomach in a wave lasting about 8–9 seconds.The esophageal sphincter in the lower region is separated by both sympathetic and parasymphathetic nerves. The pathways of vagal are a major for the relaxation of reflex of LES and this occurs in LES relaxations.
Answer 2
Final answer:

The gastroesophageal sphincter is triggered to open by the act of swallowing and the pressure exerted by the bolus of food. When food nears the stomach, the esophagus distends, leading to the relaxation and opening of the sphincter, allowing food to pass into the stomach. Absence of food pressure keeps the sphincter shut, preventing the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus.

Explanation:

The gastroesophageal sphincter, which is a ring-like muscle located at the stomach end of the esophagus, plays a crucial role in digestive system functioning. This sphincter is activated by the act of swallowing and the pressure exerted by the bolus of food. In specific, during ingestion, a series of contractions move food towards the stomach. When the food bolus nears the stomach, the esophagus distends, which in turn initiates a short reflex relaxation of the gastroesophageal sphincter. This relaxation allows the food bolus to pass into the stomach.

When there is no swallowing or food pressuring the sphincter, it remains shut. This close state of the sphincter prevents the contents of the stomach from traveling up the esophagus, thereby preventing acid reflux or commonly known as 'heartburn’.

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Related Questions

What is the role of a system plays in preventing a pandemic outbreak and how access to additional resources may assist public health leadership effectiveness.

Answers

Answer:

A pandemia, is a very serious public health issue that is defined as the uncontrolled spread of a pathogen through a very extensive portion of the population, across a country, a region, and even the world. One such pandemic is the influenza pandemic.

In order to be able to prevent such a disease from further spreading, and causing casualties, the placing of systems, a system of response, a system of prevention, precaution, and even intervention, is really important, and vital, to ensure first, the prevention of new cases, second, the treatment of those that are already suffering from the disease, and third, to contain the spreading from further reaching out. The players in these systems are first, and foremost, the national governments, and all such authority entities, in a country, and around the world. They are the ones who establish the policies, protocols and take the necessary actions to stop a pandemic from either happening, or from getting worse, if it has already struck. Second to the government, are the healthcare entities and organizations, which are the ones with the necessary knowledge and capabilities to bring about the execution of the necessary measures to respond to a pandemic.

After these, lay the public at large, all players in a system that will form a sort of chain to stop pandemics from causing further damage.

One way of preventing an outbreak, like that of the influenza, comes with campaign systems, in which the public, and healthcare professionals, are educated on how to prevent a disease, how to manage it if it already has appeared, and how to stop its spreading to other members of the community.

With access to the necessary funding, and especially to resources, public health leaders may ensure that the necessary measures are being taken so that pandemics may not arise, or if they do, they are short-lived and do not cause so many casualties.

Coagulation is inhibited by administration of:
A. mannitol
B. hespan
C. vitamin K
D. heparin

Answers

Answer: D. Heparin

Explanation: The Heparin is administered in patients that have diseases or problems related to hypercoagulation, this includes: pulmonary embolism, heart attack, venous thrombosis, among others.

It acts by inhibiting (avoiding the action of) thrombin, that is one of the components of the coagulation cascade.

The mean arterial pressure is:
a. diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure - diastolic pressure).
b. systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure.
c. systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure.
d. 1/2 (systolic pressure + diastolic pressure).
e. the same as venous pressure.

Answers

Answer:

Option (a).

Explanation:

Mean arterial pressure may be defined as the defined as the average blood pressure of an individual during the single cardiac cycle. The mean arterial pressure can be measured directly or by applying the mathematical formula.

The mean arterial pressure (MAP)  can be calculated mathematically by the following formula:

MAP ( mean arterial pressure) = DP (diastolic pressure) +1/3( SP ( systolic pressure)- DP).

Thus, the correct answer is option (a).

Which type of neurons are used to convey the special senses of sight?
a. Multipolar neurons
b. Bipolar neurons
c. Unipolar neurons

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option B. bipolar neurons.

Explanation:

Bipolar neurons are the cells or a type of neuron which has one axon and one dendrite that characterized as two distinct extensions, unlike unipolar ones that have only one extension. These neurons are specialized sensory neurons that help in transmitting special senses like vision, smell, and others.  

The bipolar cells or neurons are present in the ganglia of the vestibulocochlear nerve, retina and other sensory organs. These cells also help in motor neurons for the muscle movement.

Thus, the correct answer is option B. bipolar neuron.

Which parts of your body have the highest density of touch receptors? What benefis may be derived from that fact?

Answers

Answer and Explanation:

when we talk about the touch receptors the face has the highest density of touch receptors and on second number finger tips has the second highest density of touch receptors

BENEFITS :

easy in temperature sensing used to identifying objects the information which is related to sensing can be easily given by highest touch receptors

Final answer:

The fingertips and lips have the highest density of touch receptors because of the glabrous skin, which is more sensitive and permits greater touch precision. This helps with activities requiring fine motor skills and detail perception. Receptor density can be established using the two-point discrimination test.

Explanation:

The parts of your body with the highest density of touch receptors are the fingertips and lips, which feature glabrous skin. This type of skin is more sensitive and thicker compared to hairy skin, with a thickness ranging from 4 to 5 mm versus 2 to 3 mm for hairy skin. The high density of mechanoreceptors in these areas allows for a more precise perception of touch, beneficial for tasks requiring fine motor skills, such as writing, playing musical instruments, or reading Braille.

To estimate receptor density, a common method used is the two-point discrimination test. This test involves using tools like dividers or thumbtacks to touch the skin in two points simultaneously. If the subject can feel two separate points rather than one, it suggests a high density of touch receptors in that area of the skin.

The benefits of having a high density of touch receptors in certain areas include enhanced sensitivity and the ability to perceive fine details through touch. This is crucial for differentiating textures, shapes, and pressure, which helps in many activities in our daily life and professional tasks.

Why isn't there a ventral root ganglion?

Answers

Answer:

The dorsal root ganglion is a nodule on the dorsal root that contains cell bodies of neurons in afferent spinal nerves. ... The cell bodies of these motor neurons are located within the spinal cord and hence there is no enlargement or nodule formed.

Explanation:

0f the three primary germ layers, which is responsible for developing into nervous tissue?
a) Endoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) All three primary germ layers develop into some type of nervous tissue.

Answers

Answer:

B) Ectoderm

Explanation:

In the third week of the embrionary development occurs the gastrulation, from this moment the ectoderm starts the formation of the ectoderm and at the same time the nervous system. The first structure in appear are the neural crest cells devoloping into the parasymphatic system, then the neuroectoderm shapes the central nervous system and finally the no neural ectoderm is devoloped generating sensory organs and ganglia

Which neurotransmitter prepares the body for "fight or flight" and is seen in increased levels in patients with anxiety-related disorders?
a. dopamine
b. serotonin
c. epinephrine
d. norepinephrine

Answers

Answer:

c. epinephrine also known as Adrenaline

Explanation:

to better deals with challenges, epinephrine (adrenaline) and usually in combination with norepinephrine (noradrenaline) into the bloodstream. The so called "stress hormone" causes important changes in the body, represented by an increase in heart rate with high blood pressure.

We known it as "Fly or fight" response,as the heart rate and blood pressure increase, muscles gather more energy have more contractions.´

Glucose levels in muscles go higher, blood vessels get narrower, providing more energy for the muscles. Usually the eyes pupiles notice everything around, as adrenilne leves make you aware of the environment.

Anxiety related patients will have this too often, even in todays stressed world where sitations no longer require physical responses, the deep automated response is generated as the self perception of danger and fear interprets how to deal to possible threats.

Which of the following is the MOST common source of thermal injury to a patient during surgery?
A. harmonic scalpel
B. ligasure
C. lasers
D. electrosurgical unit

Answers

Answer:

The answer is D electrosurgical unit

Explanation:

Electrosurgical units work by converting electrical energy into heat which is used to cut or eliminate tissues, and it also serves to coagulate bleeding tissues. It has the risk of producing burns in patients of different degrees of intensity.

"The correct answer is D. electrosurgical unit.

An electrosurgical unit (ESU) is the most common source of thermal injury to a patient during surgery. This is because ESUs are widely used in various surgical procedures for cutting, coagulation, and fulguration. The high-frequency electrical current used in ESUs can cause unintended burns if it comes into contact with tissues other than the targeted ones, especially if there is an issue with the grounding pad or if the active electrode is not properly managed.

In contrast, harmonic scalpels (A) use ultrasonic energy to cut and coagulate tissue, which generally results in less thermal spread compared to electrosurgery. Ligasure (B) is a vessel sealing system that uses a unique combination of pressure and bipolar energy to permanently fuse vessels, and it is designed to minimize thermal injury to surrounding tissues. Lasers (C) are also used in surgery but are less common than ESUs and are typically used in more specialized procedures where precision is critical, such as ophthalmology or dermatology. Lasers can cause thermal injury, but due to their more specialized use, they are not the most common source of such injuries in surgery.

Therefore, due to its widespread use and the nature of its operation, the electrosurgical unit is the most common source of thermal injury during surgical procedures."

________, which reinforce the fibrous capsule, help to prevent dislocation of the joint.

Answers

Answer:

Reinforcing ligaments.

Explanation:

Reinforcing ligaments may be defined as the bands of the connective tissue that helps in the connection of two bones. They consist a tough sheet of fibrous tissue.

Reinforcing ligaments reinforce the various fibrous capsule. This ligaments also helps to prevent the dislocation of the joints of the body.

Thus, the answer is reinforcing ligament.

Final answer:

Ligaments reinforce the fibrous capsule of synovial joints to prevent dislocation and maintain joint stability. They limit excessive or abnormal movements, ensuring the bones stay connected. Muscles and tendons also contribute to joint stability through contraction.

Explanation:

Within synovial joints, ligaments play a crucial role in preventing dislocation and providing stability. Ligaments are strong bands of fibrous connective tissue that reinforce the fibrous capsule surrounding the joint, anchoring the bones together. They limit the range of motion and prevent excessive or abnormal movements, ensuring the joint stays intact. In addition to ligaments, muscles and tendons also contribute to joint stability by providing indirect support through contraction.

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A chemical signal released into the environment that can modify the behavior and physiology of other individuals is known as a:
a. hormone
b. pheromone
c. membrane
d. factor
e, releasing hormone

Answers

For what Ik is B pheromone I asked my teacher and he said that

Insulin is produced and secreted by ______ cells of the ______ (name of the organ)

Answers

Explanation:

Insulin is produced and secreted by ___pancrease ___ cells of the ___islet___ (name of the organ)

Which of the hormones below is least associated with regulating blood glucose levels?
A. Glucagon
B. Somatotropin
C. ANG II
D. cortisol
E. insulin

Answers

Answer:

E. Insulin

Explanation:

Insulin helps regulate blood sugar levels.

Select a patient in the clinical setting who is receiving an anxiolytic or hypnotic drug. Develop a teaching plan for the patient. What nursing considerations must you consider when using this medication in this patient?

Answers

Answer:

First of all, show comprehension towards your patient and his or hers medical state. Remember these drugs are used on many pathologies or conditions, therefore the range of patients you have to deal with is wide. As this medications are known for creating dependency, several considerations must be taken into account. You must be able to manage the dosage, ways of administration, and onset effects of these drugs. You must know what effects to expect at first, and also possible side effects and how to manage them. Remember that respiratory depression is one of the side effects you must be more careful, as well as dependency. As for chronic use, you must be a guide to your patient on how to successfully complete treatment.

Explanation:

Benzodiazepines and hypnotics have peripheral and central effects. Central effects include sedation, hypnosis, decrease of anxiety, muscular relaxation and anticonvulsivant activity. And some of their side effects are dizziness, confusion, amensia, CNS depression and headaches.

Know anyone who has had or does have Diabetes? What effects does/did it have on them?

Answers

Answer:

Diabetes is a multisystemic disease, that is, it affects many organs (brain, eye, heart, kidney, etc.). That is why they are people who, according to their diabetes management and their strict control of the disease, can present different types of effect.

I have known diabetic people who have lost their sight, have presented kidney failure and have been amputated due to bad circulation.

Explain the terms resorption and secretion in reference to the nephron.

Answers

Answer:

Reabsorption is the process by which the nephron, once it filters the blood and passes to the different tubules of the kidney, returns and reabsorbs some elements that are not eliminated in the urine. In general, what is most reabsorbed is water.

The renal secretion is the elimination through the glomerulo and tubes, of some solutes and components of the blood that the organism does not need.

Answer:

The nephron is the basic functional unit of the kidney responsible for urine formation. Urine is formed from the filtration of blood that passes inside the nephrons. Briefly, we can say that the process of urine formation occurs in three stages: filtration, resorption and secretion.

Explanation:

Initially arterial blood arrives under high pressure in the glomerulus capillaries. At this point, the pressure causes some of the plasma to flow out into Bowman's capsule. This plasma passage is known as filtration. The filtrate formed is very similar to plasma inside the blood vessels, however it has no proteins or blood cells.

The material from the filtration proceeds to the renal tubules, where resorption occurs. At this stage, important substances that should not be missed are reabsorbed. Almost 99% of the filtered water in the corpuscle, for example, is absorbed. Major resorption is also found for glucose and amino acids.

In the proximal tubule most of the reabsorption of water and sodium occurs, two substances essential for the functioning of the body. It is estimated that about 67% to 80% Na + ions and water are absorbed from the filtrate at this stage. In Henle's loop and distal tubule, substances are also reabsorbed.

In addition to resorption, secretion occurs in the renal tubule, which is a process opposite to resorption. In secretion, the substances present in the capillaries are released into the renal tubule, which ensures their elimination through the urine. Toxic metabolism substances and drugs, for example, are excreted in the proximal tubule.

At the end of these three steps we have urine formed. Thus, we can say that the urine is the product formed by the glomerular filtrate, removing what was reabsorbed and adding what was secreted.

DGI can trigger?
a) Arthritis
b) Tenosynovitis
c) Dermatitis
d) Death
e) All of the above

Answers

Answer:

A, Arthritis

Explanation:

Disseminated gonococcal infection ( DGI ) is a bacterial sexually transmitted infection that can spread to the joints. It may cause a condition called gonococcal arthritis.

This type of arthritis often start with the usual symptoms of gonorrhea: pain on urinating or discharge, however, these symptoms can also be absent. Later, pain in joints appear, usually in the big joints: knees, wrists or ankles. The pain can be accompanied by fever, rash and painfully inflamed tendons.

This condition is treated with antibiotics.

Sodium is able to be reabsorbed/secreted by what mechanism(s)?
A. passive diffusion
B. vesicular transport
C. facilitated diffusion
D. active transport
E. more than one apply

Answers

c********************

A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. “This medication has a slower onset than a nitroglycerin pill that is swallowed.”
b. “I should take this medication as soon as pain begins.”
c. “I can crush this medication for faster relief.”
d. “This medication should completely dissolve within 15 minutes.”

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer to this question: A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?, would be: B: "I should take this medication as soon as pain begins."

Explanation:

Nitroglycering sublingual tablets, also known commercially as Nitrostat, are a type of medication used to help by reducing the tension in blood vessels on people who have certain heart conditions, like coronary artery disease. Essentially, when a person feels pain in the chest (angina), or knows it will happen because there will be exercise, caused by the increase in blood vessel tissue tension, which limits the flow of blood to the heart, they must take the tablet and place it under the tongue as soon as the pain sets in, while in the case of exercise, they should take the medication at least 10 minutes before the initiation of exercise. So, this is why, the answer is B, because it shows that the patient understood that as soon as he feels pain, he must take the tablet.

What function is most directly lost when helper T-cells die?
a) ability to activate B lymphocytes
b) ability to attack virus-infected cells
c) ability to create an inflammatory response
d) ability to present antigens
e) ability to release histamine
f) ability to secrete antibodies

Answers

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

The T-cells and B-cells of the immune system are the part of specific immune response.

If the number of T-cells dies then the ability to activate B lymphocytes will also be lost as they help B-cells to secrete antibodies and macrophages to destroy the antigens.

T cells also helps in the activation of cytotoxic T-cells to kill the targeted cell which is affected by antigens.

hence, the correct answer is option A

What is republicanism?
a. A form of government in which power is concentrated in one political party
b. A form of government in which power is held by the poople and exercised by elected representatives.
c. A form of govenment in which power is divided betweon the state and national levels.
d .A form of government in which power is divided among co-equal branches

Answers

Answer:

b. A form of government in which power is held by the people and exercised by elected representatives.

Explanation:

The term "republic" comes from the Latin word "res publica" which means "thing of the people" and "Republicanism" is an ideology or form of government in which people elect their representatives in order to hold a public office for a specific period of time and to create and enforce policies that benefit the entire public or the society as a whole and not only to certain members.

A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who reports having a dry productive cough for the past 2 weeks. Which of the following medications should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Furosemide
b. Lisinopril
c. Diltiazem
d. Metoprolol

Answers

Answer: b. Lisinopril

Explanation: Lisinopril is a medication used to treat diseases like high blood pressure. It is part of a group of medications called by its mechanism of action as ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING-ENZYME INHIBITORS (ACE inhibitors), along with Captopril, Cilazapril, Enalapril, Fosinopril, among others. One of the most common side effects is dry cough, that could appear since, one week after beginning the treatment or even six weeks later. The cough does not respond to any treatment, except if the medication is stopped.  

The Furosemide, Diltiazem, and Metoprolol do not have dry cough described as a side effect. Furosemide: electrolyte disturbances (of calcium, magnesium, sodium). Diltiazem: Dizziness, headache, diarrhea. Metoprolol: Bradichardia, gastrointestinal symptoms.

Where/what is the arrector pili muscle? Is it under voluntary control?

Answers

Answer:

Pili or hair erector muscle are a group of small muscles that are inserted into the hair follicle in its middle section, and when it contracts, it tenses the hair and erects it. It is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system, the contraction of the muscle is involuntary.

What is diverticulosis in the sigmoid colon

Answers

Diverticula can form while straining during a bowel movement, such as with constipation. They are most common in the lower portion of the larger intestine (called the sigmoid colon). Diverticulosis very common and occurs in 10% of people over age 40 and in 50% of people over age 60.
Final answer:

Diverticulosis in the sigmoid colon is the development of small pouches in the digestive system, specifically in the sigmoid colon section of the large intestine. These pouches are usually benign, but can become inflamed or infected, leading to diverticulitis. This condition, often associated with a low-fiber diet, plays a crucial role in the final stages of digestion.

Explanation:

Diverticulosis in the sigmoid colon refers to the presence of small, bulging pouches (diverticula) that can form in the digestive system, specifically in the sigmoid colon, which is the S-shaped part of the large intestine located closest to the rectum and anus. These diverticula are usually harmless, but they can become inflamed or infected, leading to a condition known as diverticulitis.

The sigmoid colon is the part of the large intestine that attaches to the rectum. Food residue, following the movement through the colon, first travels up the ascending colon, moves across the transverse colon, and then down the descending colon, reaching the sigmoid colon. This part of your gastrointestinal tract plays an important role in the final stages of digestion, as it pushes the undigested material towards the rectum and ultimately out of the body through the anus.

While diverticulosis often doesn't cause symptoms, when it does, they may include abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. If the diverticula become inflamed or infected, symptoms can escalate to include severe abdominal pain and fever. The primary cause of diverticulosis is thought to be a low-fiber diet, since fiber softens the stool and reduces pressure in the colon.

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The electrodes that you attached to your skin have a “gel” in the center that touches the skin. What is the purpose of this gel and what substance(s) would you want to be present in the gel to improve electrical conductivity?

Answers

Answer:

The electrodes that you attached to your skin have a “gel” in the center that touches the skin -

Explanation:

Gel facilitates and improve the quality of the signals transmitted to the recording device as well as it helps in conduction between the skin and the electrodes of the machine. ECG gel contains components that transmits electrical activity via a person skin. This is done by the use of electrodes to get accurate results.

Gel is designed for medical purposes like ECG/EKG/EMG.

Substances present in gel are water, sodium chloride ,sodium hydroxide,mineral oils,stearyl alcohol and carbomer. These substances enhances electrical conductivity.

The two hormones secreted by the pancreas that regulate blood sugar levels are ___________ and ___________.

Answers

Answer:

Insuline and glucagon

Explanation:

Insuline is produced in the beta cells when the carbohydrates levels rise in plasma so they can be transported to other cells that need the glucose.

The glucagon is produced in the alpha cells in the islets of langerhans, the glucagon raises the glucose levels in the bloodstream when it is needed so the glucagon promotes the gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, this hormone is catabolic meanwhile the insule is an anabolic hormone

A higher friction force means it will be easier to push the object.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer: False

Explanation: A frictional force is the force that work in the opposite direction of a particular applied motion of a body.When the applied force and the frictional force are equal that makes the body stable and no movement occurs.So, when there is high frictional force that means there is a requirement of higher applied force as compared to frictional force to move the body or to push it.Thus the statement given in the question is false.

What are the four divisions of the stomach?

Answers

Answer:

The cardia, fundus, corpus, and pylorus!

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________. A. the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path B. nothingall hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific C. the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ D. the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ

Answers

Answer:

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ- C.

The ability of a specific tissue to respond to a hormone is dependent on  

the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue

or organ.

Cells in the body have receptors in which they bind to certain types of

proteins and substances in order to elicit a response. Hormones in the body

have specific binding sites which is where the receptors are found.

The response of a body to the presence of hormone is however dependent

on the presence of these receptors.

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Just how far should an employee go with loyalty? Are there boundaries?

Answers

Answer:

Ethically speaking, a worker should develop absolute loyalty to a company, or place, he/she works for, as it shows an adaptation and acceptance of the company´s values, principles, and fundamental aspects. This loyalty will ensure that a worker will carry out his/her duty to the best of her/his ability, always in the best interest of the company at large.

However, I do believe there must be a boundary to how much loyalty a person has towards a company, and especially, when this loyalty is pushing the person to perform an activity that basically undermines that person´s own personal values and principles. So, there should be a boundary when the loyalty to a company crosses the line and overcomes the personal limitations, the concience, if you will, of a worker.

For example, if you are a nurse, and the hospital you work for asks you to hide certain information from adverse events that have taken place due to a possible malpractice, or due to institutional shortcomings, but you know that the right thing to do is to hand over such information, for the greater good of patients and their families, over the welfare of the hospital itself, then I believe that the nurse should take the necessary measures, and overcome her loyalty. This event goes over personal boundaries and surpasses any possible loyalty that a worker may be required to have.

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