Answer:
Immunoglobulin G (IgG) molecules
Explanation:
Erythroblastosis also called as Hemolytic disease of fetus and the newborn, is a type of alloimmune condition that advance in the peripartum fetus, when the lgG molecule (antigen released and created by plasma B cells) produced by mother body passes through the wall of the placenta. These antibodies attack antigens the RBCs in fetal circulation resulting in the breaking down and also the destroying of the cells (hemolysis). Reticulocytosis and anemia can be developed by the fetus. This fetal disease ranges from mild to very severe (even death).
Rubeola is a type of measles that typically lasts:
A. 1 day.
B. 1 to 3 days.
C. 5 days.
D. 7 days.
Answer:
The correct option is D. 7 days.
Explanation:
Rubeola is a highly infectious disease caused by the measles virus. It is a highly contagious disease and can be easily transmitted to other human beings through air.
In this infection, symptoms are seen usually experienced 2 weeks after the exposure to the virus. The symptoms include cold, cough, fever, inflammation of eyes etc. 3-5 days after the start of symptoms, a red rash generally appears on the face and then spreads on the body.
Therefore, the Rubeola disease typically lasts for about 7- 10 days.
Sodium is able to be reabsorbed/secreted by what mechanism(s)?
A. passive diffusion
B. vesicular transport
C. facilitated diffusion
D. active transport
E. more than one apply
A higher friction force means it will be easier to push the object.
a. True
b. False
Answer: False
Explanation: A frictional force is the force that work in the opposite direction of a particular applied motion of a body.When the applied force and the frictional force are equal that makes the body stable and no movement occurs.So, when there is high frictional force that means there is a requirement of higher applied force as compared to frictional force to move the body or to push it.Thus the statement given in the question is false.
A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. “This medication has a slower onset than a nitroglycerin pill that is swallowed.”
b. “I should take this medication as soon as pain begins.”
c. “I can crush this medication for faster relief.”
d. “This medication should completely dissolve within 15 minutes.”
Answer:
The correct answer to this question: A nurse is teaching a client about nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?, would be: B: "I should take this medication as soon as pain begins."
Explanation:
Nitroglycering sublingual tablets, also known commercially as Nitrostat, are a type of medication used to help by reducing the tension in blood vessels on people who have certain heart conditions, like coronary artery disease. Essentially, when a person feels pain in the chest (angina), or knows it will happen because there will be exercise, caused by the increase in blood vessel tissue tension, which limits the flow of blood to the heart, they must take the tablet and place it under the tongue as soon as the pain sets in, while in the case of exercise, they should take the medication at least 10 minutes before the initiation of exercise. So, this is why, the answer is B, because it shows that the patient understood that as soon as he feels pain, he must take the tablet.
0f the three primary germ layers, which is responsible for developing into nervous tissue?
a) Endoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) All three primary germ layers develop into some type of nervous tissue.
Answer:
B) Ectoderm
Explanation:
In the third week of the embrionary development occurs the gastrulation, from this moment the ectoderm starts the formation of the ectoderm and at the same time the nervous system. The first structure in appear are the neural crest cells devoloping into the parasymphatic system, then the neuroectoderm shapes the central nervous system and finally the no neural ectoderm is devoloped generating sensory organs and ganglia
A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who reports having a dry productive cough for the past 2 weeks. Which of the following medications should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Furosemide
b. Lisinopril
c. Diltiazem
d. Metoprolol
Answer: b. Lisinopril
Explanation: Lisinopril is a medication used to treat diseases like high blood pressure. It is part of a group of medications called by its mechanism of action as ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING-ENZYME INHIBITORS (ACE inhibitors), along with Captopril, Cilazapril, Enalapril, Fosinopril, among others. One of the most common side effects is dry cough, that could appear since, one week after beginning the treatment or even six weeks later. The cough does not respond to any treatment, except if the medication is stopped.
The Furosemide, Diltiazem, and Metoprolol do not have dry cough described as a side effect. Furosemide: electrolyte disturbances (of calcium, magnesium, sodium). Diltiazem: Dizziness, headache, diarrhea. Metoprolol: Bradichardia, gastrointestinal symptoms.
The electrodes that you attached to your skin have a “gel” in the center that touches the skin. What is the purpose of this gel and what substance(s) would you want to be present in the gel to improve electrical conductivity?
Answer:
The electrodes that you attached to your skin have a “gel” in the center that touches the skin -
Explanation:
Gel facilitates and improve the quality of the signals transmitted to the recording device as well as it helps in conduction between the skin and the electrodes of the machine. ECG gel contains components that transmits electrical activity via a person skin. This is done by the use of electrodes to get accurate results.
Gel is designed for medical purposes like ECG/EKG/EMG.
Substances present in gel are water, sodium chloride ,sodium hydroxide,mineral oils,stearyl alcohol and carbomer. These substances enhances electrical conductivity.
What is republicanism?
a. A form of government in which power is concentrated in one political party
b. A form of government in which power is held by the poople and exercised by elected representatives.
c. A form of govenment in which power is divided betweon the state and national levels.
d .A form of government in which power is divided among co-equal branches
Answer:
b. A form of government in which power is held by the people and exercised by elected representatives.
Explanation:
The term "republic" comes from the Latin word "res publica" which means "thing of the people" and "Republicanism" is an ideology or form of government in which people elect their representatives in order to hold a public office for a specific period of time and to create and enforce policies that benefit the entire public or the society as a whole and not only to certain members.
Explain what factors can affect blood pressure?
Answer:
These factors can be obesity; diabetes; stress; insufficient intake of potassium, calcium, and magnesium; lack of physical activity; and chronic alcohol consumption.
Explanation:
Influenza C is rarely included in vaccine for prevention because:
A. There is no ability to form antibodies.
B. The system are the same as the common cold.
C. It is not spread the same as A or B.
D. It only affects persons who are immunocompromised.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Influenza C virus is the member of genus Influenzavirus C which causes influenza just like other influenza viruses. These viruses are known to infect pigs and humans. Type C species caused flu is rare in comparison to Types A or B.
Other common influenza viruses A and B also cause seasonal infestation every year because of their ability to shift antigenicity. Influenza virus C does not have this ability to antigenic shift and not considered as a concerned threat to human health. Because of this, it is rarely included in vaccinations against influenza virus C.
Thus, the correct answer is option C.
A chemical signal released into the environment that can modify the behavior and physiology of other individuals is known as a:
a. hormone
b. pheromone
c. membrane
d. factor
e, releasing hormone
The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________. A. the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path B. nothingall hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific C. the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ D. the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ
Answer:
The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ- C.
The ability of a specific tissue to respond to a hormone is dependent on
the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue
or organ.
Cells in the body have receptors in which they bind to certain types of
proteins and substances in order to elicit a response. Hormones in the body
have specific binding sites which is where the receptors are found.
The response of a body to the presence of hormone is however dependent
on the presence of these receptors.
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Insulin is produced and secreted by ______ cells of the ______ (name of the organ)
Explanation:
Insulin is produced and secreted by ___pancrease ___ cells of the ___islet___ (name of the organ)
All of the following are associated to the respiration of the elderly except:
a. decreased lung compliance
b. increased airway resistance
c. decreased vital capacity
d. increased alveolar macrophage activity
e. increased susceptibility to respiratory infection
Answer:
The answer is D: Increased alveolar macrophage activity.
Explanation:
The respiratory system of the elderly is a system that has lost a lot of elasticity (including the alveoli). The thoracic wall becomes stiff. There is a decrease in lung capacity (vital capacity). Decrease in blood concentration of O2. Reduction of alveolar macrophages, being susceptible to infectious processes.
Describe babinski's sign. Is this normal in an adult?
Answer:
When performing a neurological assessment, especially of whether or not there is a spinal cord lesion, there is one reflex that is easy to test, and which will tell medical professionals if there is a damage to the central nervous system, or not. This test is called the Plantar Reflex. Essentially, when the later side of the sole of the foot is stimulated with a blunt object, from heel to metatarsal pads, in adults, there are two expected results, the first, the foot curving inwards with the full toes towards the point of pressure, or, there is no response from the foot to the stimulus. However, there is a third possible response, which is pathological, and it is known as the Babinsky sign, in honor of neurologist Joseph Babinsky.
The Babinsky sign, then, which is an abnormal response, and if present, it is called a positive Babinsky sign, is defined as the motor response of the foot to stimulus of the sole by extending outwards, with the big toe fully extended upwards, while the other toes fan out.
When this sign appears in adults, it indicates a damage to the nerves of the spinal cord, or the brain.
What is diverticulosis in the sigmoid colon
Diverticulosis in the sigmoid colon is the development of small pouches in the digestive system, specifically in the sigmoid colon section of the large intestine. These pouches are usually benign, but can become inflamed or infected, leading to diverticulitis. This condition, often associated with a low-fiber diet, plays a crucial role in the final stages of digestion.
Explanation:Diverticulosis in the sigmoid colon refers to the presence of small, bulging pouches (diverticula) that can form in the digestive system, specifically in the sigmoid colon, which is the S-shaped part of the large intestine located closest to the rectum and anus. These diverticula are usually harmless, but they can become inflamed or infected, leading to a condition known as diverticulitis.
The sigmoid colon is the part of the large intestine that attaches to the rectum. Food residue, following the movement through the colon, first travels up the ascending colon, moves across the transverse colon, and then down the descending colon, reaching the sigmoid colon. This part of your gastrointestinal tract plays an important role in the final stages of digestion, as it pushes the undigested material towards the rectum and ultimately out of the body through the anus.
While diverticulosis often doesn't cause symptoms, when it does, they may include abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. If the diverticula become inflamed or infected, symptoms can escalate to include severe abdominal pain and fever. The primary cause of diverticulosis is thought to be a low-fiber diet, since fiber softens the stool and reduces pressure in the colon.
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One function of the immune system is to attack the foreign cells to protect the body. In organ transplants, how does the immune system usually reacts with the transplanted organ?
Answer:
The immune system of a transplant recipient recognizes this as a foreign agent and activates its defense mechanism against it. The antigens present in the transplanted organ are detected by the recipient organism, as different or not compatible, which will cause a reaction or rejection, activating an immune response. These rejections can be acute or chronic depending on how strange or compatible the transplant is for the recipient.
Answer:
Explanation:The immune system of a transplant recipient recognizes this as a foreign agent and activates its defense mechanism against it. This starts to slowly destroy the organ. to help prevent this, doctors usually give you immunosuppressant (anti-rejection) drugs. These drugs help prevent your immune system from attacking ("rejecting") the donor organ. Typically, they must be taken for the lifetime of your transplanted organ.
Explain the terms resorption and secretion in reference to the nephron.
Answer:
Reabsorption is the process by which the nephron, once it filters the blood and passes to the different tubules of the kidney, returns and reabsorbs some elements that are not eliminated in the urine. In general, what is most reabsorbed is water.
The renal secretion is the elimination through the glomerulo and tubes, of some solutes and components of the blood that the organism does not need.
Answer:
The nephron is the basic functional unit of the kidney responsible for urine formation. Urine is formed from the filtration of blood that passes inside the nephrons. Briefly, we can say that the process of urine formation occurs in three stages: filtration, resorption and secretion.
Explanation:
Initially arterial blood arrives under high pressure in the glomerulus capillaries. At this point, the pressure causes some of the plasma to flow out into Bowman's capsule. This plasma passage is known as filtration. The filtrate formed is very similar to plasma inside the blood vessels, however it has no proteins or blood cells.
The material from the filtration proceeds to the renal tubules, where resorption occurs. At this stage, important substances that should not be missed are reabsorbed. Almost 99% of the filtered water in the corpuscle, for example, is absorbed. Major resorption is also found for glucose and amino acids.
In the proximal tubule most of the reabsorption of water and sodium occurs, two substances essential for the functioning of the body. It is estimated that about 67% to 80% Na + ions and water are absorbed from the filtrate at this stage. In Henle's loop and distal tubule, substances are also reabsorbed.
In addition to resorption, secretion occurs in the renal tubule, which is a process opposite to resorption. In secretion, the substances present in the capillaries are released into the renal tubule, which ensures their elimination through the urine. Toxic metabolism substances and drugs, for example, are excreted in the proximal tubule.
At the end of these three steps we have urine formed. Thus, we can say that the urine is the product formed by the glomerular filtrate, removing what was reabsorbed and adding what was secreted.
Select a patient in the clinical setting who is receiving an anxiolytic or hypnotic drug. Develop a teaching plan for the patient. What nursing considerations must you consider when using this medication in this patient?
Answer:
First of all, show comprehension towards your patient and his or hers medical state. Remember these drugs are used on many pathologies or conditions, therefore the range of patients you have to deal with is wide. As this medications are known for creating dependency, several considerations must be taken into account. You must be able to manage the dosage, ways of administration, and onset effects of these drugs. You must know what effects to expect at first, and also possible side effects and how to manage them. Remember that respiratory depression is one of the side effects you must be more careful, as well as dependency. As for chronic use, you must be a guide to your patient on how to successfully complete treatment.
Explanation:
Benzodiazepines and hypnotics have peripheral and central effects. Central effects include sedation, hypnosis, decrease of anxiety, muscular relaxation and anticonvulsivant activity. And some of their side effects are dizziness, confusion, amensia, CNS depression and headaches.
The two hormones secreted by the pancreas that regulate blood sugar levels are ___________ and ___________.
Answer:
Insuline and glucagon
Explanation:
Insuline is produced in the beta cells when the carbohydrates levels rise in plasma so they can be transported to other cells that need the glucose.
The glucagon is produced in the alpha cells in the islets of langerhans, the glucagon raises the glucose levels in the bloodstream when it is needed so the glucagon promotes the gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, this hormone is catabolic meanwhile the insule is an anabolic hormone
Where/what is the arrector pili muscle? Is it under voluntary control?
Answer:
Pili or hair erector muscle are a group of small muscles that are inserted into the hair follicle in its middle section, and when it contracts, it tenses the hair and erects it. It is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system, the contraction of the muscle is involuntary.
Causes of metabolic alkalosis include all of the following except?
A. Mineralocorticoid in excess
B. Hypokalemia
C. Recurrent diarrhea
D. all of the choices apply
Answer:
B. Hypokalemia
Explanation:
symptoms and signs of mild alkalemia are usually related to the underlying disorder. More severe alkalemia increases protein binding of ionized calcium, leading to hypocalcemia and subsequent headache, lethargy, and neuromuscular excitability, sometimes with delirium, tetany, and seizures. Alkalemia also lowers threshold for anginal symptoms and arrhythmias. Concomitant hypokalemia may cause weakness.
In conditions of metabolic alkalosis, mineralocorticoid excess and hypokalemia can be contributing factors. On the other hand, recurrent diarrhea typically leads to metabolic acidosis, not alkalosis, due to the loss of bicarbonate from the body. Hence, the exception among the provided options is recurrent diarrhea.
Explanation:The condition described in this question is metabolic alkalosis, an alkalinization of the blood due to metabolic processes. Among the options, A. Mineralocorticoid in excess and B. Hypokalemia can indeed contribute to metabolic alkalosis. Mineralocorticoid excess leads to increased renal absorption of sodium and loss of hydrogen and potassium ions, which contributes to the alkalinization of the blood. Hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, can also contribute to metabolic alkalosis as hydrogen ions move into cells in exchange for potassium, decreasing the acidity of the blood. However, C. Recurrent diarrhea is not a typical cause of metabolic alkalosis; instead, it commonly causes metabolic acidosis because of bicarbonate loss from the body and the compensatory increase in acid products. Thus, the answer is C. Recurrent diarrhea.
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The relatively high pressure in the glomerulus is related to the fact that the
a. afferent arteriole is part of the systemic arterial circulation.
b. efferent arteriole is larger in diameter that the afferent arteriole.
c. glomerulus has constricted capillaries.
d. afferent arteriole has a larger diameter than the efferent arteriole.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option D.
Explanation:
The glomerulus is a small tuft like structure formed by the clusters of the small capillaries in around the end of kidney tubule.
The glomerulus plays an important role in the formation of urine as it filters the blood in the kidney. The filtration rate of glomerulus depends on the glomerulus pressure which is measured generally high due to the size difference of the arterioles that brings the blood to the kidney and that takes the blood from the kidney that is afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole.
The smaller diameter of the efferent arteriole causes the resistance to blood flow which produces the blood to be retained in the glomerulus which creates high pressure in the glomerular cavity.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
Which of the following is the MOST common source of thermal injury to a patient during surgery?
A. harmonic scalpel
B. ligasure
C. lasers
D. electrosurgical unit
Answer:
The answer is D electrosurgical unit
Explanation:
Electrosurgical units work by converting electrical energy into heat which is used to cut or eliminate tissues, and it also serves to coagulate bleeding tissues. It has the risk of producing burns in patients of different degrees of intensity.
"The correct answer is D. electrosurgical unit.
An electrosurgical unit (ESU) is the most common source of thermal injury to a patient during surgery. This is because ESUs are widely used in various surgical procedures for cutting, coagulation, and fulguration. The high-frequency electrical current used in ESUs can cause unintended burns if it comes into contact with tissues other than the targeted ones, especially if there is an issue with the grounding pad or if the active electrode is not properly managed.
In contrast, harmonic scalpels (A) use ultrasonic energy to cut and coagulate tissue, which generally results in less thermal spread compared to electrosurgery. Ligasure (B) is a vessel sealing system that uses a unique combination of pressure and bipolar energy to permanently fuse vessels, and it is designed to minimize thermal injury to surrounding tissues. Lasers (C) are also used in surgery but are less common than ESUs and are typically used in more specialized procedures where precision is critical, such as ophthalmology or dermatology. Lasers can cause thermal injury, but due to their more specialized use, they are not the most common source of such injuries in surgery.
Therefore, due to its widespread use and the nature of its operation, the electrosurgical unit is the most common source of thermal injury during surgical procedures."
Where within the GI tract does protein digestion begin? Where is protein digestion completed?
Answer:
Pepsins are digestive enzymes of the stomach. These enzymes are the ones that begin the digestion of the proteins giving rise there initially to the formation of polypeptides, oligopeptides and some amino acids.
The digestion of proteins is completed in the small intestine.
Final answer:
Protein digestion starts in the stomach with HCl and pepsin breaking down proteins into polypeptides. The process is completed in the small intestine with several enzymes converting polypeptides into amino acids.
Explanation:
The digestion of proteins begins in the stomach, where hydrochloric acid (HCl) and the enzyme pepsin start the breakdown of proteins into smaller chains called polypeptides. This initial stage involves the hydrolysis of protein linkages, which is the process of breaking the bonds within protein molecules through the addition of water facilitated by gastric juices. Following this, the digestion of proteins is completed in the small intestine, where a host of enzymes from the pancreas, such as chymotrypsin and trypsin, as well as enzymes from the intestinal lining, including aminopeptidase and dipeptidase, further break down polypeptides into amino acids. These amino acids are then small enough to be absorbed into the bloodstream, providing the body with the necessary components for various physiological functions.
Which neurotransmitter prepares the body for "fight or flight" and is seen in increased levels in patients with anxiety-related disorders?
a. dopamine
b. serotonin
c. epinephrine
d. norepinephrine
Answer:
c. epinephrine also known as Adrenaline
Explanation:
to better deals with challenges, epinephrine (adrenaline) and usually in combination with norepinephrine (noradrenaline) into the bloodstream. The so called "stress hormone" causes important changes in the body, represented by an increase in heart rate with high blood pressure.
We known it as "Fly or fight" response,as the heart rate and blood pressure increase, muscles gather more energy have more contractions.´
Glucose levels in muscles go higher, blood vessels get narrower, providing more energy for the muscles. Usually the eyes pupiles notice everything around, as adrenilne leves make you aware of the environment.
Anxiety related patients will have this too often, even in todays stressed world where sitations no longer require physical responses, the deep automated response is generated as the self perception of danger and fear interprets how to deal to possible threats.
Just how far should an employee go with loyalty? Are there boundaries?
Answer:
Ethically speaking, a worker should develop absolute loyalty to a company, or place, he/she works for, as it shows an adaptation and acceptance of the company´s values, principles, and fundamental aspects. This loyalty will ensure that a worker will carry out his/her duty to the best of her/his ability, always in the best interest of the company at large.
However, I do believe there must be a boundary to how much loyalty a person has towards a company, and especially, when this loyalty is pushing the person to perform an activity that basically undermines that person´s own personal values and principles. So, there should be a boundary when the loyalty to a company crosses the line and overcomes the personal limitations, the concience, if you will, of a worker.
For example, if you are a nurse, and the hospital you work for asks you to hide certain information from adverse events that have taken place due to a possible malpractice, or due to institutional shortcomings, but you know that the right thing to do is to hand over such information, for the greater good of patients and their families, over the welfare of the hospital itself, then I believe that the nurse should take the necessary measures, and overcome her loyalty. This event goes over personal boundaries and surpasses any possible loyalty that a worker may be required to have.
Coagulation is inhibited by administration of:
A. mannitol
B. hespan
C. vitamin K
D. heparin
Answer: D. Heparin
Explanation: The Heparin is administered in patients that have diseases or problems related to hypercoagulation, this includes: pulmonary embolism, heart attack, venous thrombosis, among others.
It acts by inhibiting (avoiding the action of) thrombin, that is one of the components of the coagulation cascade.
Which parts of your body have the highest density of touch receptors? What benefis may be derived from that fact?
Answer and Explanation:
when we talk about the touch receptors the face has the highest density of touch receptors and on second number finger tips has the second highest density of touch receptors
BENEFITS :
easy in temperature sensing used to identifying objects the information which is related to sensing can be easily given by highest touch receptorsThe fingertips and lips have the highest density of touch receptors because of the glabrous skin, which is more sensitive and permits greater touch precision. This helps with activities requiring fine motor skills and detail perception. Receptor density can be established using the two-point discrimination test.
Explanation:The parts of your body with the highest density of touch receptors are the fingertips and lips, which feature glabrous skin. This type of skin is more sensitive and thicker compared to hairy skin, with a thickness ranging from 4 to 5 mm versus 2 to 3 mm for hairy skin. The high density of mechanoreceptors in these areas allows for a more precise perception of touch, beneficial for tasks requiring fine motor skills, such as writing, playing musical instruments, or reading Braille.
To estimate receptor density, a common method used is the two-point discrimination test. This test involves using tools like dividers or thumbtacks to touch the skin in two points simultaneously. If the subject can feel two separate points rather than one, it suggests a high density of touch receptors in that area of the skin.
The benefits of having a high density of touch receptors in certain areas include enhanced sensitivity and the ability to perceive fine details through touch. This is crucial for differentiating textures, shapes, and pressure, which helps in many activities in our daily life and professional tasks.
Temporalis is named for the origin of the muscle, what does it do?
a. shapes the lips during speech
b. draws the angle of the mouth up as in smiling
c. elevates and retracts the mandible
d. Temporalis does all of the above actions
Answer:
The correct option is : c. elevates and retracts the mandible
Explanation:
The temporalis muscle or the temporal muscle, is one of the muscles that are involved in the process of mastication or chewing. It is a fan-shaped and broad muscle which belongs to the group of chewing – lower mandible.
Mandible is the lower jaw or the jawbone, is a very strong and the largest bone in the human face.
The main function of the temporalis muscle is the elevation and the refraction of the mandible.