Answer:
B. +60 mv
Explanation:
Equilibrium potential of ions is the difference of electric potential in the cell membrane that equilibrates the concentration gradient of an ion.
Final answer:
The equilibrium potential for sodium (Na) is (option b) +60 mV, representing the electrical potential at which the movement of Na+ ions across the cell membrane is balanced, with no net flux of Na+ ions into or out of the cell.
Explanation:
The equilibrium potential is a crucial concept in understanding how ions move across cell membranes, affecting the cell's electrical charge and contributing to processes such as nerve impulses and muscle contractions. Sodium ions (Na+) have a higher concentration outside the cell than inside. When sodium channels open, Na+ ions flow into the cell, moving down their concentration gradient. This influx of Na+ makes the inside of the cell more positive. The movement of sodium ions continues until the electrical potential inside the cell becomes positive enough to prevent further Na+ entry, reaching an equilibrium. According to provided information, the equilibrium potential for Na+ is around +60 mV. This potential is crucial for generating action potentials in neurons and muscle cells, where the rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell through voltage-gated sodium channels leads to the depolarization phase of the action potential.
Lateral forces likely to cause damage to the tibial collateral ligament, ACL, and medial meniscus:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
Explain how atherosclerotic plaques are formed and why they are unhealthy.
Answer:
Arteriosclerosis are plaques that form within the arteries, producing a decrease in arterial lumen. These plaques are usually made up of fatty tissue, calcium, cholesterol, fats found in the blood.
They are not healthy because they reduce the flow of oxygenated blood to the tissues, producing ischemia or cellular necrosis, for example acute myocardial infarction (when it comes to coronary artery obstruction) or vascular brain disease when the aortic artery is clogged.
Name the 2 thyroid hormones with metabolic function.
Answer: Calcitonin and Thyroxine T4
Explanation:
Thyroid gland is found at the front of the neck, which makes the hormone whose main function is to control the metabolism of the body.
The hormone calcitonin is one of the hormone secreted from thyroid which functions by controlling the level of calcium and phosphate in the body. This hormone is secreted by the C-cells that is present in very small amount in the body.
Another hormone is T4 which is converted into T3 in organ and tissues of the body. This functions by controlling the metabolism of the body, such as digestion, body temperature, breathing, burning calories.
Which way would blood flow in:
·Patent ductus arteriosus?
·Transposition of the great vessels?
·Tetralogy of Fallot?
Answer:
1-) Patent ductus arteriosus: this duct normally must be closed two days after the baby is born, but if not, it will carry oxygenated blood to the pulmonary artery producing a mixture with oxygen-poor blood and producing a cardiac overload due to the large amount of blood that would reach the right heart.
2-) Transposition of the great vessels: In this defect, the oxygenated blood is collected throughout the body and taken directly to the right heart which returns to the poorly connected aorta (right ventricle) back to the body without oxygenation; on the other hand, the oxygenated blood returns to the left heart, then goes to the pulmonary artery (connected to the left ventricle) and back to the lungs.
3-) Tetralogy of fallot: It is a congenital anomaly that can present different defects at the level of the heart, such as:
intraventricular communication, in which blood would go from the left heart to the right heart. Pulmonary obstruction, there is obstruction of the blood outlet by plugging the duct, which causes a decrease in blood flow to the body. Dextraposition of the aorta: The aorta is more deviated to the right and in union with the intraventricular (IVC) communication. Increased amount of bleeding to the pulmonary artery. Bad oxygenation of the blood due to the mixture thereof.
Which medical word is used to refer to cancer of the white blood cells?
a. leukemia
b. anemia
c. multiple myeloma
d. adenocarcinoma
Answer:
A, leukemia
Explanation:
Cancer of white blood cells is called leukemia. White blood cells are very important in the body as they fight infections. When a person has leukemia, his bone marrow produces abnormal white blood cells which don't function properly.
It is a form of blood cancer that starts in the bone marrow. Symptoms of this disease may include bleeding and bruising, feeling tired and being at higher risk for infections. The diagnosis is made during a blood test or a bone marrow biopsy.
Which stratum/sub layer is found in the dermis?
A) Subcutaneous
B) Papillary
C) Basale
D) granulosum
E) lucidum
Answer:
The correct option is B) Papillary
Explanation:
The thick layer of skin present between the subcutaneous tissues and the epidermis (outermost layer of skin), is known as the dermis. The dermis consists of elastic and fibrous tissues, which cushions the body from any external stress.
The dermis consists of two sub layers- the papillary region and the reticular dermis.
The papillary dermis is the uppermost layer present in the pepillary region of the dermis.
Therefore, papillary is a stratum or sub-layer of the dermis.
Symptoms of Salmonella food poisoning include?
a) Vomiting and nausea
b) Abdominal pain and Diarrhea
c) Both A and B
Answer:
C, both A and B
Explanation:
A salmonella infection is an infection in the intestinal track. Some of the sources of the infection are contaminated water and food, meat, fertilizer and pets.
Symptoms of salmonella include abdominal pain with cramps, diarrhea, vomiting with accompanying nausea. Some people also experience chills and fever.
The illness usually goes away on its own but some patients may need hospital treatment.
Prevention of salmonella include hand washing, cooking well of all foods and avoiding contact with unknown animals.
Answer:
c)Both A and B
Explanation:
hope this help you answer your question
Most E. coll strains encountered in a lifetime are harmless and simply contribute to natural flora.
a) True
b) False
Answer:
a) True
Explanation:
It's true, most strains of E. coli with which we have contact are harmless. They are found in the intestines of healthy animals and humans forming part of our flora. However, there are strains that can make us sick if we ingest them. We can found them in contaminated water, poorly washed vegetables and raw meats.
Whole blood for testing in clinical labs is usually collected from?
Answer:
Superficial vein
Explanation:
Whole blood for testing in clinical labs is usually collected from superficial vein.
Have a great day!
Which branch of microscopic anatomy is the study of tissues?
A) Surgical anatomy
B) Histology
C) Cytology
D) Developmental anatomy
E) Embryology
Answer:
B) Histology
Explanation:
The histology studies the biological structures in his microscopic anatomy. The cytology also studies the structures at microscopic levels but looking only at cells. It is the histology that classfies the ephitelium and other tissues into a specialized classification. It is a great help beacause we can look at the microscopic changes in a disease in order to make a diagnosis.
The correct answer is B. Histology branch of microscopic anatomy is the study of tissues.
Histology is the branch of microscopic anatomy that deals with the study of tissues, including their structure, function, and composition. Tissues are groups of cells that perform specific functions in the body, and histology examines these tissues at a microscopic level to understand their organization and role in maintaining the body's homeostasis.
To clarify the other options:
A) Surgical anatomy is the study of anatomical structures with a focus on their relevance to surgical procedures. It is not specifically concerned with tissues at the microscopic level.
C) Cytology is the study of cells, including their structure, function, and pathology, but it does not specifically focus on tissues, which are composed of multiple cells.
D) Developmental anatomy is the study of the processes by which an organism forms and grows, including the development of tissues, organs, and systems, but it is broader than just the study of tissues.
E) Embryology is a subfield of developmental anatomy that specifically focuses on the development of an embryo from the time of fertilization until it becomes a fetus. While it involves the formation of tissues, it is not exclusively the study of tissues themselves.
Therefore, histology is the most appropriate term for the study of tissues at the microscopic level.
Why do you think people write one way and speak to people a different way?
Answer:
written and spoken language are different
Explanation:
Written and spoken language differ widely. Only some forms of writing are closer to speech. .During writing, the punctuation and layout of written texts often have no spoken equivalence. Technology is chaning this as, some forms of written language, like SMS instant messages and email, are getting closer to spoken language. (Think of the use of emoticons)
Still, written language will be more formal and follow the rules of the Grammar & Structures of any language. Spoken language will happen to be casual. While written words appeals more to a contemplative, deliberative style. Speeches can also be precise and indeed practice makes perfect.
People trained in speech or writing will communicate much more effectively.
Body Cavities:
For each organ below, identify the body cavities using the following: cranial, vertebral, thoracic, pleural, pericardial, peritoneal, abdominal and pelvic.
*Note: more than one term may be necessary to correctly answer the following below.
Stomach ________________
Ovaries _________________
Small intestine ___________________
Brain __________________
Kidneys _____________________
Lungs ____________________
Spinal cord _________________
Heart ________________
Urinary bladder _____________________
Liver _____________________
Answer:
The answer are:
- Stomach: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
- Ovaries: pelvis and peritoneal cavity
- Small intestine: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
- Brain: cranial cavity
- Kidneys: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
- Lungs: thorax and pleural cavity
- Spinal cord: spine
- Heart: pericardic and thorax
- Urinary bladder: Pelvis and peritoneal cavity
- Liver: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
Final answer:
The stomach, small intestine, kidneys, and liver are located in the abdominal cavity and peritoneal cavity, the ovaries and urinary bladder are in the pelvic cavity, the brain in the cranial cavity, the lungs in the thoracic and pleural cavities, the spinal cord in the vertebral cavity, and the heart in the thoracic and pericardial cavities.
Explanation:
Body Cavities and Organ Locations
For each organ listed, the body cavity or cavities in which it is located are specified
Stomach: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity
Ovaries: pelvic cavity, peritoneal cavity
Small intestine: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity
Brain: cranial cavity
Kidneys: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity (technically, they are posterior to the peritoneum, in the retroperitoneal space)
Lungs: thoracic cavity, pleural cavity
Spinal cord: vertebral (spinal) cavity
Heart: thoracic cavity, pericardial cavity
Urinary bladder: pelvic cavity
Liver: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity
The body is divided into two main cavities: dorsal and ventral. The dorsal cavity contains the cranial cavity and the spinal (vertebral) cavity. The ventral cavity includes the thoracic body cavity (further divided into the pleural and pericardial cavities) and the abdominopelvic cavity (which further divides into the abdominal and pelvic cavities). The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm.
Which disease is usually spread from infected animal to humans via a bite?
a) Polio
b) Small pox
c) Measles
d) Rabies
e) Amoebic dysentery
Answer:
D, rabies
Explanation:
Rabies is a very dangerous virus that is spread by a bite or scratch of an animal. It remains a problem in many countries in the world and people still die from its causes.
If a person is bitten by an animal in a rabies infected area, he should seek medical treatment immediately, as treatment must be given before the symptoms appear. The symptoms include fear of light and water, neurological problems and the most visible one, foam coming out of the mouth. The virus causes inflammation of the brain which leads to death.
Without early treatment, rabies is fatal.
Sterilization of surgical instruments is a process that renders the items free of:
A. spores.
B. blood.
C. oil
D. dirt
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Sterilization of surgical instruments is a process that renders items free of:___, would be, A: Spores.
Explanation:
Spores are a particularly difficult topic when talking about complete sterility, and an environment that is pathogen free, because spores, which are the inactive form that some bacteria take when they are attacked to be eliminated, are resistant to a lot of cleaning procedures, and once the circumstances are right, the spore will re-activate itself and infect. This is the reason why sterilization techniques have been developed, and improved; to be able to not just eliminate all living microorganisms on surgical equipment, but also spores. Without this, sterilization is incomplete, and infection to patients is possible.
Icd 10 code for lumbar stenosis with radiculopathy
Answer:
Radiculopathy which was a nonspecific code of 724.4 now is covered with the following ICD-10-CM codes: M54.15 Radiculopathy, thoracolumbar region. M54.16 Radiculopathy, lumbar region.
Explanation:
Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response icd 10
Answer
In some cases of afib, the fibrillation of the atria causes the ventricles, of lower chambers of the heart, to beat too fast. This is called a rapid ventricular rate or response. (RVR) if you have afib with RVR you'll experience symptoms, typically a rapid or fluttering heart beat.
Explanation:
Rolling friction is less than sliding friction.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The given statement is TRUE
Explanation:
Friction is a force experienced by a body that resists its motion.
In other words, Friction is the force experienced by the two bodies (with uneven or rough surfaces) when moving against each other.
When an object slides on a surface, the surface area of the object in contact with the surface is more as compared to an object which is rolled on the surface. Therefore, the friction force experienced by the sliding body is greater than the rolling body.
Therefore, we can say that the rolling friction is less than the sliding friction.
Please provide a definition of an unconditioned reflex.
Answer: Hola my name is Marissa and im here to help!:)
Explanation: an unconditioned reflex is basically an instinctive response to something it is NOT a taught reflex in example "justin yanks his hand back from the hot stove" his stimuli tell his nerves that it is hot and to quit touching it"
brainliest?
A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for a daily dose of lovastatin extended release. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Report to the clinic for quarterly monitoring of kidney function while taking this medication.
b. Mix with applesauce after crushing if the medication is difficult to swallow.
c. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
d. Take the medication with the evening meal.
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching, would be: D: Take the medication wiht the evening meal.
Explanation:
Lovastatin is a medication that is used to lower the production of cholesterol by the body, in order to reduce is depositing on the blood vessel walls. Given its form of action, and its effects, and since the medication given to the patient is the extended-release version, then the indications are to instruct the patient that he should be taking it once a day, and it needs to be during a meal, preferably the evening meal. He should never chew, split, or crush the tablet, no matter what. This is why the correct answer is D.
The universal blood donor is:
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type O
D. Type AB
Answer:
c
Explanation:
it is blood group o, it can donate to other group
Answer:
C. Type O
Explanation:
The universal blood donor is type O.
O can either be an O-Positive or an O-Negative blood type.
O-Positives typically are better for donation.
Select the correct statement concerning the trachea, it:
A) conducts air from the larynx into the bronchi.
B) is lined with pseudostratified cillated columnar epithelum
C) is usually located posterior to the esophagus.
D) A and B are correct
E) A, B and C are correct.
Answer:
The answer is A conducts air from the larynx into the bronchi.
Explanation:
The trachea, component of the respiratory system is formed by cartilaginous rings and goes from the larynx in front of the esophagus to the middle of the chest, approximately where it is divided into the right bronchus and left bronchus.
Being overweight can contribute to high blood pressure primarily by increasing blood vessel length.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Being overweight contributes to high blood pressure but the internal blood vessel length is smaller. The high blood pressure result is due to the obstruction of the vessels caused by the cholesterol accumulated in those vessels. If the cholesterol keeps obstructing the vessels, the heart must beat faster getting hypertrophyed, by the time the vessels should become bigger because of the hypertrophy os the muscle but the lumen will be always smaller.
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
We should be concerned about obesity because it is associated with a number of serious health problems. Obesity is known to be related to various types of cancer, orthopedic problems, varicose veins of the lower limbs, and especially the development of adult diabetes (type 2) and high blood pressure or high blood pressure. In relation to hypertension, obesity reduces the length of blood vessels, due to the excess fat that accumulates in these vessels.
Which is the most numerous type of blood cell?
a. erythrocyte
b. plasma cell
c. leukocyte
d. macrophage
Answer:
A. erythrocytes
Explanation:
Erythrocytes are red blood cells. There are about 600x as many RBCs as there are white blood cells (leukocytes) in the blood. Plasma cells and macrophages are both types of leukocytes. If there's more RBCs than WBCs, there's definitely more RBCs than plasma cells or macrophages.
The most numerous type of blood cell is the erythrocyte, which is responsible for transporting oxygen to the body's tissues.
Explanation:The most numerous type of blood cell is the erythrocyte, which is also known as a red blood cell. These cells are responsible for transporting oxygen to the body's tissues. In a healthy individual, there are about 4-6 million erythrocytes per microliter of blood.
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Which word means elevated blood pressure?
a. hypercholesterolemia
b. hypolipidemia
c. hypertension
d. hypotension
The correct answer is C. Hypertension
Explanation:
In medicine, the tension or pressure blood generates on the walls of blood vessels is commonly known as blood pressure. Additionally, concerning blood pressure in medicine a low blood pressure is known as hypotension, considering "hypo" means under; while a high or elevated blood pressure is known as hypertension as "hyper" means over or in excess. Indeed, hypertension occurs because there is excessive pressure on the wall of blood vessels which is a medical condition that can lead to diseases such as vision loss, artery disease, heart failures, among others. On the other hand, hypercholesteremia refers to high levels of cholesterol and hypolipidemia refers to low levels of lipids. Therefore, the word that means elevated pressure is Hypertension.
Heritability describes the:
a. genetic composition for a trait in a particular population.
b. phenotypic variation of a trait in a particular population.
c. variation in a phenotype caused by the environment.
d. proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population.
Heritability describes the proportion of variation in a trait in a particular population that is due to genetic influences. It does not account for the direct influence of the environment on a phenotype, but rather the genetic contribution to a trait.
Explanation:Heritability describes the proportion of variation in a trait in a particular population that is due to genetic influences. Thus, the correct answer is (d) the proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population.
The variation in a phenotype could be influenced by both genetic and environmental factors. However, heritability specifically refers to the degree to which genetic differences contribute to differences in the trait among people.
For instance, if we say the heritability of height is 0.6, it means that approximately 60% of the variance in height within a population can be attributed to genetic influences.
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Heritability describes the genetic contribution to a trait's variability within a population. It's a estimation of how much variability is due to genes or environment.
Explanation:Heritability describes the proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population. It gives us an estimate of how much of the variation of a trait in a population is due to genes versus the environment. For example, if heritability of a trait like height is 0.6, it means that 60% of the variation in height in the population is due to genetic factors.
The alternative options a, b and c are different from heritability.
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Renal failure may lead to:
a. nevous system problems
b. high blood pressure
c. azotemia or an increase in nitrogenous wastes
d. all of the above
Answer: Option D.
Explanation:
Renal failure can be defined as the condition of kidneys in which the functional ability of kidneys to remove waste and balance fluids is loss.
Renal failure can lead to azotemia, high blood pressure, and nervous system problems.
In renal failure, blood vessels of kidneys get narrower that increases the amount of force through the blood vessels and results in hypertension (high blood pressure), Uraemic toxins produced during chronic renal failure contribute to central nervous system (CNS) injury, and Azotemia is severe cause of renal failure that allows elevation of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels.
Hence, the correct option D.
Describe the effects of aging on joints.
Answer:
With the aging of the joints, wear on them occurs. The most affected joints are those with greater mobility and weight support, such as the knee, shoulders and elbows. The changes that occur most are:
- decrease in synovial fluid.
- reduction of intra articular space.
- joint stiffness.
The joint becomes arthrosic, that is to say a worn joint, which will manifest itself with pain, functional limitation and inflammation.
An abnormal sound (murmur) due to narrowing or stenosis of the mitral valve might be heard during:
a. diastole
b. systole
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: An abnormal sound (murmur) due to narrowing or stenosis of the mitral valve might be heard during:____, would be, A: Diastole.
Explanation:
It is first important to know that a murmur comes from the sound the blood makes as it passes either through a hardened tissue, like is the case of stenosis of a valve, or because it leaks back from where it came, due to regurgitation, because the valve is defective and cannot close properly. During the cardiac cycle, there is a process of systole, and of diastole, that ensure the filling and expulsion of the blood inside the heart towards the body, and from the body into the heart, so that a constant flow is ensured. In the process of filling and emptying, two sets of valves, the mitral and tricuspid, and the aortic and pulmonary, open and close to allow blood flow towards the different chambers of the heart, and out into the blood vessels of the body, and prevent the blood from returning towards where it came. In the case of mitral stenosis, which is the toughening of the mitral valve of the heart, the blood flowing through it makes a murmuring sound that can be caught up through a stethoscope. This sound is prominent during diastole, and that is why medically this murmur is known as a diastolic murmur.
The adrenal medullarry hormones mimic the effects of sympathetic discharge because they increase:
A. glycogenolysis
B. lipolysis
C energy production
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer:
D. A and C
Explanation:
The adrenal medullarry hormones mimic the effects of sympathetic discharge because they increase glycogenolysis and energy production.
Why do the different skeletal muscle fiber types vary in the speed and duration of their twitches?
a) They vary in the flow of K* across the membrane.
b) They vary in the rate of hydrolysis of ATP
c) They vary in the removal of Ca+ from the cytosol
d) a & b
e) a & c
f) b & c
g) a, b & c
Answer:
The different skeletal muscle fiber types vary in the speed and duration of their twitches due to -
b) They vary in the rate of hydrolysis of ATP
c) They vary in the removal of Ca+ from the cytosol
Explanation:
There are mainly two types of muscle fibers , i.e.
a) slow twitching, long contraction duration( type I fibers)
b) First twitching but short duration of contraction. ( type II fibers).
Now think of the physiology of muscle. Two components are important, cytosolic Ca++ concentration and Availability of ATP. K+ is related to the action potential ( none or all law, there is no relation to the duration with respect to the potassium). For long contraction muscle fibers need a more steady supply of ATP, and also consistent high concentration of cytosolic Ca++ for muscle contraction to happen. So, these two factor is important for the duration of twitching. So the answer is option f .