What is the main difference between meiosis 1 and 2?

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Answer 1
There is no interphase in meiosis 2 and there are 2 daughter cells at the end of meiosis 1, while 4 are formed at the end of meiosis 2

Related Questions

how is a universal genetic code similar to the hypothesis about the origin of life on Earth?

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A "universal genetic code" is best interpreted as the organic molecular information system that is part of every and all living organisms, most fundamentally within DNA, but having additionally coded elements in other assemblies within the cell.

The complexity and detailed coding of DNA is greater than any existing in any human designed entity, making DNA the logical product of a highly intelligent creator, especially when combined with all of the other detailed elements of a living organism.

There are no naturalistic processes capable of producing anything similar. To prove this, imagine you walk outside and find your name spelled out with small stones in the driveway. You will immediately, absolutely know that some intelligent being spelled it. Now realize that the simplest known organism contains over 1 million coded organic molecules sequenced precisely to encode the proteins and other components within the cell.

As a result, the only rational, logical conclusion for the origin of life is through the utilization of a universal genetic code created by an intelligent designer.

Which of the following best defines a gene pool

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A gene pool is the sum of all genetic traits in a population's individuals at a given time (option a), encompassing all the alleles for all the genes present within a population.

The best definition of a gene pool is a. the sum of all genetic traits in a population's individuals at a given time. Essentially, a gene pool includes all the genes and the different alleles for those genes that exist in a population. It is the complete set of unique alleles that every member of the population might contribute. The frequency of different alleles in the gene pool characterizes the population. This genetic variability is crucial for the process of natural selection and thus for evolution.

A gene pool is important because it contains the genetic variation that serves as raw material for evolution. During times of intense natural selection, some alleles might confer advantages for survival or reproduction, leading to a change in allele frequency in the population over generations. This accumulation of favorable mutations can result in the evolution of the population.

Smooth muscle in the walls of the urine move urine along to the bladder by

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Peristaltic waves. The ureters move urine from the kidney to the bladder by peristalsis. 

Bacteria reproduce in a process called binary fission. Which of the following statements is true about binary fission?
A. It is a form of sexual reproduction.
B. It increases genetic diversity in the offspring
C. The DNA of the parent cell is identical to the DNA of the offspring.
D. The offspring have half as much DNA as the parent cell had.

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The answer is C, asexual reproduction does not have any genetic diversity. Because of this, all the offspring of the parent are identical or clones of the parent.
I believe the answer would be C. 'The DNA of the parent cell is identical to the DNA of the offspring.' Since the only way they could be different would be a mutation.

In a population of a beetle species, you notice that there is a 3 : 1 ratio of shiny to dull wing covers. does this ratio prove that the shiny allele is dominant? (assume that the two states are caused by two alleles of one gene.) if not, what does it prove? how would you elucidate the situation?

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No, it the ratio does not prove that the shiny wing is dominant. The ratio only says that shiny wing is more common than the dull wings. 
To know which allele is dominant, you need to do an experiment by crossing various beetle and observe the ratio of the offspring phenotype.

Final answer:

The 3:1 ratio of shiny to dull wing covers does not prove the dominance of the shiny allele in the beetle population.

Explanation:

The 3:1 ratio of shiny to dull wing covers in the beetle population does not necessarily prove that the shiny allele is dominant. It only indicates that there is a higher frequency of shiny wing covers compared to dull wing covers in the population. To determine if the shiny allele is dominant, you would need to perform further experiments such as crossing beetles with known genotypes and observing the phenotypic ratios in the offspring.

During development embryonic cells will fuse to form muscle fibers. this will result in ________.
a. interlocking of cells that can prevent the filaments from sliding
b. the coordination of nerve signals to muscle fibers
c. the striations that appear in skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues
d. multinucleated muscle fibers that can extend as long as 30 centimeters

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D. multinucleated muscle fibers that can extend as long as 30 centimeters

Final answer:

Embryonic cells called myoblasts fuse to create multinucleated muscle fibers during development, which can measure up to 30 centimeters long in certain muscles.

Explanation:

During development, embryonic cells known as myoblasts derived from the mesoderm undergo fusion to form muscle fibers. This results in multinucleated muscle fibers that can extend up to 30 centimeters in length, particularly in the Sartorius muscle of the upper leg. As multiple myoblasts, each with its own nucleus, contribute to the formation of a single muscle fiber, they create a cell with multiple nuclei, providing numerous copies of genes necessary for protein and enzyme production critical for muscle function.

The presence of multiple nuclei is a distinctive characteristic of skeletal muscle fibers, while the striated appearance arises from the organized pattern of contractile proteins such as actin and myosin.

The person responsible for the current system of naming organisms is

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The person is Carolus linnaeus.

In spermatogenesis, meiosis results in the formation of

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4 sperm cells with 23 chromosomes each

Meiosis in spermatogenesis results in the formation of sperm cells or spermatozoa.

Spermatogenesis is the process by which male germ cells called spermatogonia undergo meiosis to produce mature sperm cells. Meiosis is a specialized form of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in the formation of haploid cells. In the testes, spermatogonia undergo two rounds of meiotic division to produce four haploid cells called spermatids.

These spermatids then undergo a series of morphological changes, including the development of a head, midpiece, and tail, ultimately transforming into fully functional sperm cells. These sperm cells are highly specialized for fertilization, with the head containing the genetic material (DNA), the midpiece providing energy through mitochondria, and the tail enabling motility to reach and fertilize the egg.

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The complete question is:

In spermatogenesis, meiosis results in the formation of what?

A disorder in which cells are unable to obtain glucose from the blood is

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A disorder in which cells are unable to obtain glucose from the blood is diabetes.

The fusion of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the

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The fusion of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the common bile duct. The common bile duct carries bile from the gallbladder and empties it into the small intestine, specifically the duodenum. It is also known as the choledochus. It is part of the biliary duct system. 

Common bile duct

Common bile duct is formed by the fusion of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct. Common bile duct functions by transporting bile from the gallbladder and releasing it into the duodenum. The common hepatic duct and the cystic duct that forms common bile duct are enclosed by the muscular sphincter of Oddi.






A newborn has just been delivered. he is centrally pink with pale​ extremeties, has a heart rate of​ 110, and is actively crying and moving. the appropriate apgar score for this infant​ is:

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Apgar score is a quick test performed on a  baby at 1 and 5 minutes after his birth. It determines how well the baby survived the birthing process and how well he is doing outside the mother's womb.

 The baby is examined and scored from 0-2 using the following categories: Breathing effort, heart rate, Muscle tone, Reflexes and Skin color.

Baby’s observed condition  and their  corresponding scores:

Skin: He is centrally pink with pale extremities (2)

Heart Rate:   heart rate of 110 (2)

Reflexes:  actively crying (2)

Muscle tone: moving (2)

Breathing Effort: crying (2)

Total Apgar Score: 10 (Normal)

Which type of movement has the greatest need for thoracic mobility?

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Rotational movements need the most thoracic mobility. This is because a rotational movement (such as twisting) because the movements are more three dimensional, and this is where the most can go wrong. For example, if you were holding a 35lb child and simply bent forward to put him/her down, this is less likely to cause injury than if you were to twist your torso to the right and put the child down. There is a lot more spinal stability and mobility needed for the second motion than the first.

The type of movement that has the greatest need for thoracic mobility is rotation. The thoracic region of the vertebral column allows for the greatest range of rotation due to the orientation of the articular processes of the thoracic vertebrae. This region enables extensive rotatory movement essential for various activities.

During decomposition, high-energy organic molecules from the bodies of plants and animals are converted to molecules such as carbon dioxide and water, which are __________.

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During decomposition, high-energy organic molecules from the bodies of plants and animals are converted to molecules such as carbon dioxide and water, which are used by plants as  raw materials for the photosynthesis that is used by plants to make food. Carbon dioxide produced is released to the atmosphere where plants use is in photosynthesis, while water is absorbed by the plants through the roots and used in the same process. Decomposers are organisms such as bacteria and fungi that change wastes and dead organisms into usable nutrients which are then made available to other organisms.
 the answer is
Low energy

Which hormone plays a major role in protein synthesis and also supports the action of cortisol by decreases glucose uptake, increases ffa mobilization and enhances gluconeogenesis?

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The correct answer is Growth Hormone (GH).
Growth hormone (GH) which is also known as somatotropin is a peptide hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its role is to stimulate growth as well as cell reproduction, and cell regeneration. GH belongs to a group of stress hormones, it raises the concentration of glucose and free fatty acids.

How can you tell if a food has been irradiated to preserve it? look for the radura symbol on the package smell the food and note any "off" flavors test the food for nutrient losses observe any unusual color changes in the food?

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Look for the Radura symbol on the package

Wildfires have both negative and positive effects on an ecosystem. Which is a negative effect of wildfire on any ecosystem? A) reduced animal habitats B) increased plant diversity C) germination of tree seeds D) removal of thick underbrush

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The answer is A. The wildfire decimates abiotic and biotic factors in a populations' habitat hence  reducing the resources required to sustain the entire population. This devastates the population numbers due to increased competition for reduced  resources. Wildfire especially decimates primary producers hence affecting the organisms up  the food chain.






the answer is A reduced animal habitat

which is the first step in the titration process

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The first step in the titration process is; A measured volume of an acid or base of (un)known  concentration is added to a flask. The second step is several drops of indicator are added to the solution, and the third step is ; the measured volumes of a base or acid of known concentration are added, using a burette, until the indicator just barely changes color (end point or the equivalence point).
Final answer:

The first step in the titration process is to add the titrant solution to the analyte solution in increments, gradually monitoring the changes in the solution to determine the equivalence point of the titration.

Explanation:

Titration is a laboratory technique used in analytical chemistry to determine the concentration of a substance (the analyte) in a solution by reacting it with a standardized solution (the titrant) of known concentration. The process involves gradually adding the titrant to the analyte until a chemical reaction's endpoint is reached, typically indicated by a color change or other observable change.

The first step in the titration process is to add the titrant solution to the analyte solution in small increments. The titrant is a solution with a known concentration that reacts with the substance being analyzed. By gradually adding the titrant and monitoring the changes in the solution, the equivalence point of the titration can be determined.

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Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disease that affects the respiratory and digestive systems. cystic fibrosis occurs when two recessive genes (cc) are present. a person with one allele for cystic fibrosis is called a carrier (cc) of the disease. if the mother is a carrier of the disease and the father is homozygous dominant, what are the chances that their first child will be a carrier of cystic fibrosis?

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If a mother is a carrier of the disease, her genotype is Cc (heterozygous). Father’s genotype is CC (dominant homozygous)  
Parents:  Cc   x   CC
F1: CC CC Cc Cc
This means that the chances are 50% that their first child will be a carrier of cystic fibrosis (Cc).

Final answer:

A child has a 50% chance of being a carrier for cystic fibrosis when one parent is a carrier (Cc) and the other is homozygous dominant (CC), as determined by a Punnett Square.

Explanation:

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder, meaning that a person needs to inherit two copies of the defective gene to develop the disease. If someone only inherits one defective gene, they are carriers who do not exhibit symptoms. When one parent is a carrier (Cc) and the other parent is homozygous dominant (CC), their children can neither have CF (cc) nor be homozygous dominant (CC), but can be carriers (Cc).

To determine the chance that their first child will be a carrier of cystic fibrosis, we can use a Punnett Square. The carrier mother (Cc) can pass on either the mutant (c) or normal (C) allele, and the homozygous dominant father (CC) can only pass on the normal allele (C). When we cross these possibilities, we find that all offspring have a 50% chance of being carriers (Cc) because the possible combinations are CC and Cc, with CC as the homozygous dominant and Cc as the carrier state. Therefore, the probability that their first child will be a carrier is 50%.

Which of the choices below is not a function of testosterone?
a. contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis
b. stimulates the male pattern of development
c. stimulates mammary gland development
d. stimulates protein synthesis?

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The choice that is not a function of testosterone is that they stimulate mammary gland development. Testosterone is the male sexual hormone that regulates sexual development, muscle mass, and red blood cell production. Testosterone is responsible for the development of male sexual characteristics. It is a type of androgen produced mainly by the testicles in the Leyding cells. The hormone regulates a number of functions alongside sperm production in males; include; bone mass, fat distribution, muscle size and strength and the production of red blood cell.
Final answer:

Testosterone does not stimulate mammary gland development.

Explanation:

The correct answer is c. stimulates mammary gland development.

Testosterone is a male sex hormone that is primarily responsible for the development of male characteristics and reproductive functions. It plays a crucial role in male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis, stimulating the male pattern of development, and protein synthesis. However, testosterone does not stimulate mammary gland development, as this is primarily regulated by female hormones like estrogen and progesterone.

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Howard m. burgers is a 54-year-old male who is 5' 6" tall, weighs 185 pounds, and has hypertension. the single most effective dietary measure howard can take is to:?

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Answer: Reduce his weight

Weighing more than the prescribed Body Mass Index (BMI) and has a hypertension condition is alarming. Mr. Howard must choose to have a healthy lifestyle by eating less sodium and more on fruits and vegetables. The correct selection of food and routine exercise is essential to help reduce his weight and alleviate his hypertension.

A student is planning a field study of a pond in which a large increase in algae populations has been observed. large numbers of dead fish have also been observed in the pond. to find out what caused the death of the fish, the student should do each of these except -

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measure the amount of light at various levels in the pond

Multiple choices :

A. test for chemicals that might poison fish and cause algae to grow

B measure the dissolved oxygen content in pond-water samples

C look for sources of pollution that may be affecting the pond

D measure the amount of light at various levels in the pond


Answer;

D. measure the amount of light at various levels in the pond


Fish in the pond feeds on the algae that grows in the pod.

Therefore; death of fish in the pond caused a large increase in algae populations.

Measuring the amount of light in the pond would not tell the student what caused the death of the fish in the pond.


Which of the following foods is the most nutrient-dense per serving? olive oil, french fries, grape juice, soy milk?

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i believe that the answer would be {soy milk}
Final answer:

Olive oil is the most nutrient-dense food per serving among the given options.

Explanation:

The most nutrient-dense food per serving among the given options is olive oil. While it is a fat, it is considered healthy and contains monounsaturated fats that are beneficial to the body. French fries, on the other hand, are deep-fried and high in unhealthy trans fats. Grape juice and soy milk may have some nutrients, but they are not as nutrient-dense as olive oil.

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The part of the brain that cooredinates our muscles so we can walk is the

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you're answer is the cerebellum

Which 25-year-old is most likely to move back home with his or her parent?

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A male with a college GPA of 2.5

Oscar likes to run at night. even though it is dark, oscar can see because his eyes have specialized cells that convert the low levels of light energy into neural activity. these cells are known as

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The retina is the back part of the eye that contains the cells that respond to light. These specialized cells are called photoreceptors. There are 2 types of photoreceptors in the retina: rods and cones.

The rods are most sensitive to light and dark changes, shape and movement and contain only one type of light-sensitive pigment.
Final answer:

Oscar is able to see in the dark because of rod photoreceptors in his eyes, which are specialized for low-light vision. These rods contain the photosensitive pigment rhodopsin, which undergoes a chemical change when light hits it, signaling the brain to interpret the light. This, in combination with photosensitive retinal ganglion cells, allows Oscar to perceive his surroundings in the dark.

Explanation:

Oscar is able to see at night because of the specialized cells in his eyes that can convert low levels of light energy into neural activity - these are known as rod photoreceptors. There are two types of cells in the human eye that are responsible for vision, namely rods and cones. However, the rod photoreceptors are the ones that allow vision in very low-light conditions. Each human retina contains about 120 million rods, which are more sensitive than cones by a factor of about 1000. While rods don't provide color information, they're essential for peripheral vision, motion detection, and vision in dark environments.

The outer segments of these rod photoreceptors house a stack of membrane-bound discs, which contain the photosensitive pigment rhodopsin. When light falls on the retina, it triggers chemical changes in rhodopsin that ultimately lead to changes in the activity of retinal ganglion cells (RGCs). This process is how the eye converts light into neural signals for the brain to interpret, allowing Oscar to see at night. Additionally, a small number of photosensitive RGCs also respond to the presence or absence of light, playing a role in setting the body's circadian rhythm.

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If you observe a population and find that 16% show the recessive trait, you know the frequency of the aa genotype. this means you know q2. what is the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype in the population above?

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If the population is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, then the frequency of the recessive genes would be:
aa=0.16
a= √0.16= 0.4

Then, the frequency of dominant genes would be:
0.4+q=1
q= 1-0.4= 0.6

The frequency of homozygous dominant genotype would be:
qq= 0.6*0.6=0.36= 36%

larger ______ vessels are similar to veins

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Inferior and superior vena cava

Larger lymphatic vessels are similar to veins.

Lymph vessels are the vessels which are structurally similar to the blood vessels. They filter and carry the lymph back from the tissues into the circulatory system unidirectionally.

One of the characteristic feature of the lymphatic vessels that make them resemble the veins is the presence of the valves in them. The presence of the valves prevent the blackflow of the lymph. The other similarity between the lymph vessels and the veins is the layers present in them. Similar to a vein, a lymph vessel is also made up of an outer layer called the tunica adventitia or the tunica externa, a middle layer called the tunica media and an inner layer called the tunica intima.

Thus, the presence of the three layers and the valves make the larger lymphatic vessels resemble the veins.

Explain repression of the tryptophan operon. how does it work when tryptophan is present and when tryptophan is not present

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Trp operon is controlled by both repression and attenuation. If we just look at repression, then:

Present of Tryptophan: you don't need the biosynthetic genes to be expressed (think being lazy and only doing what you absolutely have to do - why spend energy when you don't have to!).
So, when tryptophan is present it binds the trp repressor (they are dimers) which changes the conformation of the dimer so it can now bind and repress transcription for the operon.
No Tryptophan, the repressor proteins still dimerize but without tryptophan binding to them, the shape is wrong and the dimer cannot bind and inhibit transcription of the operon.

Attenuation is also important...not sure if you need this but;
There is a leader peptide that is transcribed upstream of the trp operon. Within this leader sequence are two back-to-back trp codons - pretty unusual 
If there's lots of tryptophan the ribosome that comes along isn't slowed down because there are lots of charged tRNA-TRP. When the ribosome isn't slowed down, then the mRNA hairloop structure that forms is called 3-4 and is a termination signal for the RNA polymerase - the ribosome pops off and the operon is not transcribed.
When there's little tryptophan, the ribosome comes across those two TRP codons and stalls. This then forms a 2-3 hairloop structure which allows the RNA polymerase to continue transcription of operon.

Research on galapagos finches by peter and rosemary grant showed that a type of natural selection called

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The form of natural selection is called adaptive radiation

The type of natural selection is Directional Selection.

In directional selection, the phenotype which is more suitable to the existing environmental conditions is favored more over the other phenotypes. Thus, population of a particular phenotype increases gradually.

These birds changed from the ancestral bird in terms of the beak size, shape, etc.

What is NOT an impact that an invasive non-native species has on an ecosystem?

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The impact that they give is predation, disease, and habitat alteration. But the things they don't do are the opposite of predation, disease, and habitat alteration.

C) increase biodiversity

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