Answer:
The Cdc42 guanosine triphosphatase is essential for cell polarization in several organisms and in vitro for the organization of polarized epithelial cysts. A long-standing question concerns the identity of the guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) that controls this process. Using Madin-Darby canine kidney cells grown in Matrigel, we screened 70 GEFs by RNA interference. Of these, six positives were identified that caused a multilumen phenotype, including Tuba, a Cdc42-specific GEF localized below the apical cortex. Loss of Tuba abolishes Cdc42 enrichment at the apical cortex. Normal lumen formation is rescued by human Tuba or active Cdc42 but not by a GEF-negative Tuba mutant. Silencing Cdc42 causes a similar phenotype, including multilumen formation and reduced atypical protein kinase C (aPKC) activity. Lumen disorganization after depletion of Tuba or Cdc42 or inhibition of aPKC is caused by defective spindle orientation. Together, our findings implicate Tuba as a key activator of the Cdc42 GTPase during epithelial ductal morphogenesis, which in turn activates apical aPKC to ensure that spindles orient parallel to the lateral plane.
When someone is experiencing hypoglycemia, the body attempts to compensate by using the fight-or-flight mechanism of the autonomic nervous system. Which one of the statements below is NOT one of the fight-or-flight responses?
A.Breathing accelerates.
B.Blood vessels constrict.
C.The skin is hot and dry.
D.The heart pumps faster.
Answer:
The answer is C.The skin is hot and dry.
Explanation:
When someone experiences hypoglycemia the skin isn't hot and dry. Otherwise, the breathing does accelerate therefore the heart pumps faster and the blood vessels constrict. These in order to, for example, avoid arterial and general vascular damage.
What are the consequences of having pyrimidine dimers in dna?
Pyrimidine dimers are forms of DNA damage caused by exposure to ultraviolet light, leading to cell death, mutations and the potential development of cancer. These dimers distort the DNA helix causing replication errors. Excessive cell death can also be detrimental.
Explanation:Pyrimidine dimers are forms of damage that can occur in DNA when it is exposed to ultraviolet (UV) light. Particularly, they form when two thymines or cytosines, which are pyrimidine bases in the DNA strand, get linked abnormally. Pyrimidine dimers can lead to problematic consequences.
Some of the main consequences include cell death, mutations and cancer. These result as the dimers cause distortion in the DNA helix. When the cells try to replicate, they can't correctly read the sequence of bases where a dimer is present, leading to mistakes or mutations. In some cases, these mutations can push cells to proliferate uncontrollably, a key characteristic of cancer.
Moreover, when cells recognize these dimers as damage, they can initiate a cascade of reactions resulting in cell death (apoptosis). This is another defense mechanism, but it can also be detrimental if too many cells die off.
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Pyrimidine dimers, especially thymine dimers, distort the DNA double helix structure. This can lead to issues during DNA replication, including mutations and stalled replication. Individuals with Xeroderma Pigmentosa cannot repair these dimers and are at increased risk of skin cancer.
Explanation:Pyrimidine dimers, particularly thymine dimers, in DNA occur when two adjacent pyrimidines become covalently linked following exposure to UV light. These dimers distort the structure of the DNA double helix, which can present issues during DNA replication, leading to point or frameshift mutations, and can result in stalled replication or transcription.
A well-known example of the effects of unrepaired pyrimidine dimers is the condition Xeroderma Pigmentosa. Affected individuals have a defect in the nucleotide excision repair enzymes which prevents them from effectively repairing these dimers. As a result, these individuals are at an increased risk of skin cancer due to a higher likelihood of DNA mutations arising from these errors.
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David sustained a complete avulsion of his hamstring tendons from their origin on the ischial tuberosity. Hamstrings are part of what class of lever at the knee?
a) The hamstrings are part of a first-class lever, where the fulcrum is between the applied force and the load.
b) The hamstrings are part of a second-class lever, where the load is between the applied force and the fulcrum.
c) The hamstrings are not part of the lever system.
d) The hamstrings are part of a third-class lever, where the applied force is between the load and the fulcrum.
Answer:
The answer is letter D.
Explanation:
The hamstrings are part of a third-class lever, where the applied force is between the load and the fulcrum.
Which of the following is the correct order of the five specific tasks accomplished by the digestive system?
a. ingestion, mechanical digestion, chemical digestion, absorption, and elimination
b. ingestion, chemical digestion, mechanical digestion, absorption, and elimination
c. ingestion, mechanical digestion, elimination, chemical digestion, and absorption
d. ingestion, chemical digestion, mechanical digestion, absorption, and elimination
Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
The first stage in digestion is intake of food either liquid or solid
The second stage is mechanical digestion in which the solid food material is broken down into smaller digestible pieces through chewing. There is no change in the chemical properties of food
The third stage is the chemical digestion. In this stage, the food is digested chemically by action of bio –enzymes, hormones, temperature and pH.
The next stage is absorption of nutrients in the blood through diffusion or absorption in the small intestine.
The last stage is excretion in which undigested or waste food is excreted out through the rectum via large intestine.
Hence, option A is correct
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A serum but not with the anti-B. Therefore, which of the following is true?a.Bill could receive type B blood in a transfusion.b.Bill could donate blood to an individual with type B blood.c.Bill is Rh positive.d.Bill's plasma contains B antibodies.e.Bill's plasma would cross-react with type O red blood cells.
Answer:
The correct answer is d Bill"s plasma contain B antibodies
Explanation:
As Bill"s plasma contain B antibodies that"s why his blood cells do not aggutinate when mixed with anti B serum.
Bill's blood type is A, so he could donate blood to a person with type B blood, but cannot receive type B blood in a transfusion.
Explanation:Based on the information provided, Bill's blood agglutinates with the anti-A serum but not with the anti-B serum. This indicates that Bill's blood contains the A antigen and does not contain the B antigen. Therefore, Bill's blood type is A. With blood type A, Bill could receive blood transfusions from individuals with type O or type A blood, but not from individuals with type B or AB blood. Therefore, option a. Bill could receive type B blood in a transfusion is not true. However, Bill could donate blood to an individual with type B blood, making option b. Bill could donate blood to an individual with type B blood true.
Siamese cats have pale, cream-colored bodies with dark brown fur on their extremities (their ears, face, legs, and tail). Siamese cats that live outside in warm climates tend to have lighter fur, and those that live outside in cooler climates tend to have darker fur. What is the best explanation for this pattern?
Answer:
Melanin
Explanation:
Some races that are genetically programmed in such a way that the color changes according to the ambient temperature, as is the case of the Siamese cat.
Siamese cats has a gene that produces melanin (gives hair color) depending on body temperature.
This gene stops painting color when the average temperature of cats is exceeded. This absence of color (that is, white cat) causes several curiosities to occur:
1) Siamese cats that are subjected to higher temperatures, for example in summer, can develop a partial albinism.
2) Siamese babies are usually born very white, because in the mother's womb the temperature is warm. As they come in contact with the outside, the gene begins to color their fur.
3) Cat's body is colder around the ears, legs and tail. For that reason they are usually the most colored areas of the Siamese.
Despite the law of independent assortment, when two loci are on the same chromosome, the phenotypes of the progeny sometimes do not fit the predicted phenotypes. This outcome can be explained by the phenomenon of__________.
Answer:
Linkage
Explanation:
Linkage occurs when 2 genes are found close to each other on the same chromosome. Due to their closeness to each other on the same chromosome, the chances of both genes being inherited together, instead of being independently assorted during metaphase I of meiosis, becomes very high. Gene linkage could cause the phenotypes of an offspring not to fit the predicted phenotypes.
The effect of soil organic matter on the amount of water available to plants is due to organic matter influence on total soil porosity as well as to the water-supplying power of the soil organic matter.True / False.
Answer:
The answer is true.
Explanation:
It was discovered that a silt loam soil with 6% organic matter will hold more than twice water of a the one with 2% organic matter.
This means that, the more the organic matter in the soil, the more the ability of the soil to hold water for the usefulness of the plants.
The individual with genotype aabbccddee can make many kinds of gametes. What could be the major reason for this?
Answer:
Explanation:
The major reason is due to the different and diverse possible arrangements of chromosomes into gametes.
In the swallowing reflex the soft palate, larynx, and hyoid bone are raised. the epiglottis closes off the top of the trachea. the tongue presses against the uvula and soft palate. muscles pull the pharynx upward toward the food. all of the above are true.
Answer:
all of the above are true.
Explanation:
The phase of swallowing that occurs involuntarily is termed as swallowing reflex. The swallowing reflex occurs after mastication when the bolus has been formed and the food has to be swallowed in.This reflex begins when the tongue is raised and presses against the uvula and the soft palate.Following this, the epiglottis closes the top of the trachea to avoid the food to enter into the air passage and soft palate, larynx and hyoid bones get raised,Finally, the muscles pull the pharynx upward towards the food and the food gets swallowed.What characteristic does a spinocerebellar tract neuron share with a sensory neuron originating in the quadriceps femoris?
Both neurons lack myelin sheathing.
Both neurons pass through the dorsal root ganglion.
Both neurons carry afferent information.
Both neurons interface with gray matter nuclei.
Answer:
Both neurons carry different information
Explanation:
Both spinocerebellar tract neuron and sensory neuron originating in the quadriceps femoris carry different information to the brain.
spinocerebellar tract neuron has a function of transmitting information from Golgi Tendon organ and muscle spindle to brain for coordination in movement. Whereas sensory neuron originating in the quadriceps femoris have function sending sensory signals to the brain. Both neurons have myelin sheathing and both pass through dorsal root ganglion.
Thus, we can say that Both neurons carry different information.
Given the following events involved in the regulation of blood volume, which one of the following answers best represents the order in which these events occurs? 1. sodium reabsorbed from distal tubules and collecting ducts 2. secretion of aldosterone 3. secretion of renin from juxtaglomerular apparatus 4. decrease in blood volume 5. production of angiotensin II
Answer:
The correct answer will be-
1. decrease in blood volume
2. secretion of renin from juxtaglomerular apparatus
3. production of angiotensin II
4. secretion of aldosterone
5. sodium reabsorbed from distal tubules and collecting ducts
Explanation:
The RAAS pathway or Renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone pathway gets activated in the human body to maintain the osmolarity and blood volume.
When the receptors in the blood sense the low volume of water in the body sends signals to the brain which activates the secretion of the renin from the juxtaglomerular cells. Renin helps converts the inactive angiotensin to angiotensin I and II which help reabsorption of sodium ions. This activates the production of aldosterone which increases the reabsorption of the sodium ions into distal and collecting ducts.
In anterograde amnesia ______. a. there is an inhibition of afferent inputs to the cerebral cortex b. LTM (long term memory) is not disrupted c. communication between the medial temporal lobe and the association cortex remains unaffected d. declarative memory is not significantly altered
Answer:
The correct option is b. LTM (long term memory) is not disrupted.
Explanation:
Amnesia is a type of disorder that affects our memory, we talk about anterograde amnesia when it involves a serious damage/lost in our short-term memory (the long term memory is not disrupted), that is, it is the inability to create new memories. This selective memory deficit is caused by a brain lesion located in the hippocampus and in the areas of the medial temporal lobe. The hippocampus has the function of generating new memories, if it is affected, then it will be impossible to establish the memories.
Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories after a brain trauma. It does not disrupt long-term memory, but it hampers the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory. Declarative memory is primarily affected, while procedural memory remains intact.
Explanation:Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to form new memories from a particular time forward. It is commonly caused by brain trauma, which affects the hippocampus. With anterograde amnesia, long-term memory (LTM) is not disrupted, but there is a loss of memory for events that occur after the brain trauma.
In anterograde amnesia, communication between the medial temporal lobe (where the hippocampus is located) and the association cortex remains unaffected. However, there is an inhibition of afferent inputs to the cerebral cortex, which hampers the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory.
While anterograde amnesia primarily affects declarative memory (the conscious memory of facts and events), it does not significantly alter procedural memory, which involves skills and habits.
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Which area of the brain stem is in contact with the spinal cord?
Answer:
Medulla Oblongata
Explanation:
The brain stem is the posterior part of the brain that connects the cerebrum and cerebellum to the spinal cord. It is an area at the base of the brain located between the cerebral hemisphere and the spinal cord. The brain stem is composed of the following in order of inferiority: diencephalon (sometimes included but not main), midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata.
This parts of the brain stem connects to one another upwardly and downwardly. The medulla oblongata is the lowest part of the brain stem which connects the pons to the spinal cord. It is the part of the brain stem that message is conveyed through to and from the brain and the rest of the body as it is continuous with the spinal cord.
Hence, it is the part of the brain stem that directly comes in contact with the spinal cord.
A mutation occurs such that a spliceosome cannot remove one of the introns in a gene. What effect will this have on that gene?
Answer:
Translation is the process by which protein product will form from the RNA molecule with the help of enzymes and protein. The three important process of translation are initiation, elongation and termination.
The mutation that prevent the removal of spliceosome from the intron, the introns will reside within the exons. The translation of this type of RNA a non dunctional protein product can be formed due to the insertion of the introns within the exon sequence.
A mutation preventing a spliceosome from removing an intron in a gene will result in an mRNA that includes the intron, leading to a potentially nonfunctional protein or altered protein function due to incorrect amino acid incorporation during translation.
Explanation:If a mutation occurs such that a spliceosome cannot remove one of the introns in a gene, the resulting messenger RNA (mRNA) will retain that intron. Since introns are non-coding regions, their inclusion in the final mRNA can disrupt the proper sequence of the encoded protein. This can lead to a nonfunctional protein or change in protein function because the ribosome may incorporate incorrect amino acids during the translation process, ultimately altering the sequence of the protein product. Mutations in the spliceosome recognition sequence or in the components of the spliceosome itself can impair splicing, leading to retained introns that should be removed. These splicing errors could potentially result in severe consequences, including genetic diseases, as they can critically alter gene expression and the functionality of proteins, which are the workhorses of the cell.
How do lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries?
a.Fluid flows in one direction in lymphatic capillaries.
b.Lymphatic capillaries are dead-end tubes.
c.The walls of lymphatic capillaries are composed of endothelium.
d.Lymphatic capillaries are highly permeable.
Lymphatic capillaries and blood capillaries differ in fluid flow direction, structure, and permeability. Lymph flows in one direction in lymphatic capillaries and these are dead-end tubes unlike the looped structure in blood capillaries. Also, lymphatic capillaries are more permeable.
Explanation:Lymphatic capillaries and blood capillaries have several key differences in their structure and function, which is reflected in their roles within the body's circulatory and immune systems.
Firstly, the fluid in lymphatic capillaries, known as lymph, only flows in one direction – from the tissues to the heart, which contrasts with the blood in blood capillaries that flows in two directions. This difference reflects a fundamental difference in their functions: while blood capillaries circulate oxygen and nutrients to tissues and remove waste products, lymphatic capillaries primarily transport immune cells and excess interstitial fluid from tissues back to the bloodstream.
Secondly, lymphatic capillaries start as dead-end tubes which is different from blood capillaries that are part of a loop. This unique structure allows lymphatic capillaries to absorb fluid from tissues.
Thirdly, even though walls of both lymphatic and blood capillaries are composed of endothelium, lymphatic capillaries are more permeable due to the loose junctions between endothelial cells. This high permeability allows lymphatic capillaries to absorb larger molecules, such as proteins, and cellular debris.
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Lymphatic capillaries, unlike blood capillaries, are one-way, dead-end tubes that are highly permeable and collect fluids from tissues. These capillaries have a unique structure with overlapping endothelial cells that function like valves, allowing fluid and larger particles to enter but not exit.
Explanation:The lymphatic and blood capillary systems are two different plumbing systems in our bodies, each serving its unique set of functions. Lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries in several ways.
Fluid direction: Unlike blood capillaries where blood flows in two directions, fluid known as lymph in lymphatic capillaries flows in only one direction—from the tissues back to the circulatory system.Structure: Lymphatic capillaries are more like dead-end tubes or cul-de-sacs which collect fluids from cells and tissues. This is unlike blood capillaries which are part of a closed loop system.Composition: Both the lymphatic and blood capillaries are composed of a type of epithelium tissue known as endothelium, but lymphatic capillaries have a unique structure with overlapping endothelial cells, acting like one-way flaps allowing fluids and larger particles to pass into the lymphatic capillary but not exit.Permeability: Due to their unique structure, lymphatic capillaries are highly permeable, allowing proteins, microbes, and other material to be taken up, which is in contrast to blood capillaries.Learn more about Lymphatic Capillaries here:https://brainly.com/question/34406044
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Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium transmitted to people by deer ticks. Deer ticks are almost never born infected with the bacterium, but they can pick it up from feeding on an infected host in any of the tick's three successive stage of development: larva, nymph, adult. Once infected, a tick remains infected through any subsequent developmental stages, but since a tick feeds on only one host in each stage, it follows that ______________
A. People can be infected only by being bitten by a tick that is either in larval stage or in the nymph stage
B. People cannot be infected by a tick that picked up the Lyme disease bacterium in the adult stage
C. It is not possible for a person to be infected by a tick that is in the nymph stage or by a tick that was infected with the bacterium while in the nymph stage
D. People infected with the Lyme disease bacterium cannot transmit bacterium to adult deer ticks
E. Only deer ticks that are adults can transmit the Lyme disease bacterium to people
Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
Tick that contract the bacterium in the adult stage from its host then will not be able to infect humans as it will stay will that infected host for its adult phase and subsequently die as there are no other developmental phases.
Which ion most readily leaks across a neuron's membrane, helping to establish the resting potential? Which ion most readily leaks across a neuron's membrane, helping to establish the resting potential? Na+ Ca2+ Cl− K+ SubmitR
Answer:
K+
Explanation:
Leak channels are the gated channels that randomly open and close. The plasma membranes have many more potassium ion (K+) leak channels than the leak channels for other ions such as sodium ion. Also, the potassium ion leak channels are leakier than the sodium leak channels and allow exit of more and more K+ from the neurons. This makes the inside the neuron negative at rest and outside becomes more positive. In this way, the leakage of K+ across the K+ leak channels is mainly responsible for maintaining the resting potential.
According to the opponent-process theory, cells that are stimulated by exposure to ________ light are inhibited by exposure to ________ light. a red; blue b blue; green c yellow; green d blue; red e yellow; blue
Answer:
The correct answer is e yellow; blue.
Explanation:
According to the opponent-process theory, cells that are stimulated by exposure to yellow light are inhibited by exposure to blue light. The opponent-process theory states that some colors suppress other colors. In this case, yellow is suppressed by blue.
According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, cells stimulated by exposure to green light are inhibited by red light. This theory explains why we don't perceive colors like greenish-red or yellowish-blue and causes the phenomenon of negative afterimages.
Explanation:According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, cells are excited by exposure to light of one color and inhibited by exposure to the complementary color within the opponent pairs: black-white, yellow-blue, and green-red. Hence, for the specific pair that typically causes confusion, the correct answer is that cells stimulated by exposure to green light are inhibited by exposure to red light, and vice versa. There are no opponent cells for greenish-reds or yellowish-blues because our visual system is based on this opponent-process theory, which also explains the phenomenon of negative afterimages.
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A graph titled "Average hamster weight (kg) vs. Amount of drug (mg/day)"
shows a downward-sloping line that reaches a minimum value and then stays there over the remainder of the graph.
what noticeable trend from this graph might be used to make a conclusion?
A. average hamster weight is not affected by the daily amount of a drug.
B. average hamster weight causes the amount of drug to increase daily.
C. average hamster weight doubles every time the daily amount of a drug is doubled until all of the drug has been used up.
D. average hamster weight decreases with an increase in the daily amount of a drug until the hamsters reach a minimum possible weight.
Explanation:
D. average hamster weight decreases with an increase in the daily amount of a drug until the hamsters reach a minimum possible weight.
Trend: There was a gradual decrease in the hamster's weight til a minimum was reached, after with the rate of its change in weight with treatment over time plateaued.
Trends are gradual notable changes or patterns over a series of data points on a line or curve of a graph. These allow for summarizing data and predicting results. A data summary provides a comprehensive report of experimental findings. This makes the analysis of data easier by answering key research objectives outlined in the experimental procedure. Summaries allow for tracking trends and procedural changes, observations and potential; this makes it easier to arrive at conclusions faster.
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Answer:
the answer is D
Explanation:
just took it
Why would the cells of the palisades layer have more chloroplasts in them
Answer:
Because they re located in the leaves, the part of the plan with wider area to receive the sunlight
Explanation:
Palisade cells are the plant cells that contain the largest amount of chloroplast per cell, this is convenient because they can be found on leaves, the portion of the plant with a wider superficial area, this means that a larger number of chloroplasts will receive the sunlight and therefore this will benefit the photosynthesis process.
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Identify the following statements as True or False.
Sympatric speciation:
I. is common in animals but rare in plants.
II. initially involves physical geographic separation of individuals from a single population into two separate populations.
III. can result in the formation of a new species within a few generations.
Answers & explanation:
I - False
A sympatric speciation can occur commonly in both animals and plants. Sympatric speciation events are very common in plants because it is normal for them to develop multiple sets of chromosomes.
II - False
Sympatric speciation occurs without geographic variation. When two populations of the same species live in the same area but there is no crossing between populations, sympatric speciation occurs.
III - True
Sympatric species may indeed lead to the formation of new species. Sympatric speciation is believed to be responsible, for example, for the large number of cichlid fish species found in Lake Victoria on the African continent. According to research, this lake was colonized by only one ancestral species.
You are sound asleep. Your dog decides to get up and walk around the house and in the process steps on a lose floor board and causes it to make a cracking sound. You wake up! What structure was responsible for waking you up from sleep?
Answer:
Reticular activating system.
Explanation:
Reticular activating system may be defined as the system containing different nerves stimulation and located in the mesopons. This system interacts with thalamocortical systems and basal forebrain.
The reticular activating system is involved in the resting sleep, dreaming and asleep. The sound of a particular object or living organism play important role in the reticular activating system. The individuals asleep and waking and its regulation is controlled by this system of nervous system.
Thus, the correct answer is reticular activating system.
Which of the following variations on translation would be most disadvantageous for a cell?A) translating polypeptides directly from DNA.B) using fewer kinds of tRNA.C) having only one stop codon.D) lengthening the half-life of mRNA.E) having a second codon (besides AUG) as a start codon.
Answer:
The correct answer is A) translating polypeptides directly from DNA.
Explanation:
Transcription process is important for the production of proteins because mRNA is synthesized during the transcription process which has the correct sequence of codon which is read by ribosomes to make proteins.
DNA does not contain the right codon sequence for the formation of proteins and does not have uracil nucleotide which is found in mRNA therefore if DNA is used for translation then the wrong amino acids will be added into the polypeptide chain which can generate non-functioning proteins or mutated protein.
Therefore translating polypeptide directly from DNA would be more disadvantageous to the cell.
Cellulose and glycogen are both homopolymers of glucose units. Humans cannot digest cellulose but can break down glycogen into individual glucose units. Which type of enzyme is lacking in humans that would allow them to break down cellulose? Hint: Look at the name of the enzyme to see the type of bond they are involved in breaking down through catalysis.
Answer:
the lacking in human is called Cellulase which is any of several enzymes produced chiefly by fungi, bacteria, and protozoans that catalyze cellulolysis and bring about the decomposition of cellulose and of some related polysaccharides.
In what stage of respiration does the exchange of gases between the lungs and the blood occur?
Answer:
External
Explanation:
External or expiration is brought about by the external intercostal muscles relax while the internal intercostal muscles contract causing the rib cage to move downwards and inwards. At the same time the muscles of the diaphragm relax and the diaphragm regains its original dome shape. These movements decrease the volume of the thoracic cavity and increase the pressure inside it thus air is forced out of the lungs into the atmosphere and gaseous exchange is completed.
The exchange of gases between the lungs and blood happens during gas exchange, which is facilitated by the concentration gradient in the alveoli within the lungs.
The exchange of gases between the lungs and blood during respiration occurs in a stage known as gas exchange. This vital process takes place in the lungs, specifically within the tiny air sacs called alveoli. The alveoli are surrounded by a network of pulmonary capillaries, where the blood is low in oxygen concentration and high in carbon dioxide concentration. This creates a concentration gradient that facilitates the diffusion of oxygen from the air in the alveoli into the blood, and carbon dioxide from the blood into the air in the alveoli. Hence, gas exchange plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis by supplying cells with oxygen, carrying away carbon dioxide waste, and maintaining the proper pH of the blood.
Reflexes that control skeletal muscle are called __________.
Answer:
Reflexes that control skeletal muscle are called stretch reflex.
Explanation:
The stretch reflex (osteotendinous reflex) is a medullary reflex that occurs when the body responds to a mechanical stimulus, it is produced by stretching a skeletal muscle. Usually, this reflex occurs on the tendons and, in some cases, on the bone. Muscle fibers and muscle spindles extend during stretching. The latter activate the muscle that contracts. The muscle spindles are those that are responsible for sending the signal to the spinal cord, it receives and transmits messages to the brain. The spinal cord is responsible, among other things, for the control of movements.
Somatic reflexes are the type of reflexes which control the skeletal muscles. These are rapid, automated responses from the somatic nervous system for safety measures.
Explanation:Reflexes that control skeletal muscle are called somatic reflexes. These are rapid, involuntary muscle reactions that are performed by the somatic nervous system. Somatic reflexes involve skeletal muscles and include actions like withdrawing your hand from something hot, or an automatic blink when something moves towards your eye. These reflexes are essentially automated responses to keep you safe from harm.
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To enter the citric acid cycle, pyruvate must enter the mitochondria by active transport. Three things are necessary to convert pyruvate to acetyl CoA. Explain the three steps in the conversion process.
Answer:Decarboxylation, the Reduction of NAD+, and the attachment of CoA.
Explanation:
Step 1 Decarboxylation: the co-enzyme thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) catalyzes the decarboxylation of the carboxyl group of pyruvate and given off as a molecule of CO2. The two carbon unit remains attached to the enzyme.
Step 2 Reduction: The remaining two-carbon (hydroxyethyl group) is oxidized to form acetyl group. The extracted electrons are transferred to NAD+, storing energy in the form of NADH.
Step 3. The last step is the attachment of coenzyme A, a sulfur compound derived from a B vitamin, is attached to the acetyl group to form acetyl CoA, the Co-enzymes TPP, Lipoamide and FAD will be regenerated.
The acetyl CoA will go into TCA for complete oxidation.
The treatment phase for substance abuse generally consists of:
A. detoxification (removal of physical dependence on drugs from body).
B. stabilization (treating the psychological craving for the drug).
C. aftercare (helping the user to obtain education or job training, find a job, and remain drug free).
D. All of these are correct.
Answer:
D. All of these are correct.
Explanation:
Depending on the institution, substance-abuse treatments may vary in regard to duration and phases. Generally, treatments for substance abuse consist of four phases:
Initiation: This first stage focuses on providing helpful information to the person/patient about all treatments and options. During this phase, the person goes through a process of detoxification, that is, preventing them from using the drug to remove their dependence.Abstinence - first phase: This stage is one of the most difficult ones as the person usually exhibits a variety of emotions associated with depression, sadness, anxiety because of the withdrawal of the drug. During this phase, they received psychological help to prevent any relapse and to become more stable, that is, to control drug cravings.Abstinence - second phase: This stage is focused on maintaining abstinence and stability. In conjunction with the second phase, this is also difficult but rewarding. The person receives behavioral therapy so he/she can acknowledge how the drug intake resulted in numerous issues and, in contrast, stopping its use can change her/his life in a diversity of positive ways.Aftercare: This stage focuses on long-term goals and, through therapy and counselling, helps the person to obtain education, find a job, and continue their stability and abstinence.Suppose a heterozygous woman with blood type A married a heterozygous man with blood type B. What phenotypes and genotypes would you expect to observe in their offspring, and in what proportions?
Explanation:
d. 1 : 1 IAi (type A) : IBi (type B)