The sarcoplasmic reticulum is the organelle in skeletal muscle cells that stores calcium used for muscle contraction. When signaled, it releases the calcium into the cytoplasm, initiating muscle contraction.
Explanation:Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the organelle of skeletal muscle cells that stores calcium used in muscle contraction. This specialized type of smooth endoplasmic reticulum wraps around each myofibril in the muscle cell like a loose sleeve. When the muscle is signaled to contract, calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the surrounding cytoplasm, triggering a series of events that lead to muscle contraction.
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In skeletal muscle cells, the sarcoplasmic reticulum stores and releases calcium ions which are crucial for triggering muscle contractions. Post contraction, calcium ions are transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, with some remaining in the sarcoplasm to maintain muscle tone.
Explanation:The sarcoplasmic reticulum is an organelle found in skeletal muscle cells that plays a critical role in muscle contraction. This specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) stores, releases, and retrieves calcium ions (Ca++) which are necessary for triggering muscle contractions.
The process starts when an action potential reaches the muscle cell, prompting the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release stored calcium ions into the sarcoplasm (the cytoplasm of a muscle cell). Calcium ions then bind to the contractile proteins actin and myosin, generating a muscle contraction.
Once the contraction is over, ATP-dependent calcium pumps actively transport calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum and out of the cell, until the next contraction needs to be initiated. The remaining calcium in the sarcoplasm helps to maintain muscle tone, keeping the muscle slightly contracted.
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The hallmark manifestations of Cushing syndrome are a moon face, a "buffalo hump" between the shoulder blades, and a protruding abdomen. What other manifestations of Cushing syndrome occur?
Answer:
Other manifestations of Cushing syndrome are weight gain, purple stretch marks on the arms, thigh, breasts and abdomen.
Thinning skin, Acne, Muscle weakness, Fatigue and Skin injuries that are slow in healing.
Explanation:
Cushing syndrome is also known as hypercortisolism, and it occurs because of abnormal high levels of the hormone cortisol.
This hormone may be produced in the body due to malnutrition, alcoholism, depression and use of medication, Corticosteroids.
Unlike green algae which can only live in water, a waxy covering over the epithelial cells of plants, called the ________ help(s) them retain water and gave them the adaptation needed for terrestrial life.
Answer:
Cuticle
Explanation:
Plant cuticle is a waxy covering over the aerial epidermal cells of all the plants. Waxes are composed of cutin and a various organic solvent-soluble lipids. The cuticle is an extracellular hydrophobic layer which provides protection against desiccation and external environmental stresses. In other words the cucticle helps to retain water and give plants an adavanthe to live terrestrial life.
Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) and acetylcholinesterase degrades ACh in the synapse. If a neurophysiologist applies onchidal (a naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor produced by the mollusk Onchidella binneyi) to a synapse, what would you expect to happen?
The question is incomplete. The complete question is:
Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) and acetylcholinesterase degrades ACh in the synapse. If a neurophysiologist applies onchidal (a naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor produced by the mollusk Onchidella binneyi) to a synapse, what would you expect to happen?
A) paralysis of muscle tissue
B) convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation
C) decrease in the frequency of action potentials
D) no effect
Answer:
B. convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation
Explanation:
In response to an action potential, acetylcholine released at the neuromuscular junction or synapse. The release of acetylcholine is followed by its binding to the receptors in the motor endplate and finally triggering a muscle action potential which in turn leads to muscle contraction. Termination of activity of acetylcholine (Ach) is mediated by acetylcholinesterase which destroys ACh and thereby prevents firing of another muscle action potential.
If acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is administered to a synapse, acetylcholine will keep on triggering the muscle action potential causing continuous muscle contraction and irregular body movements (convulsions).
In Mediterranean climate regions like portions of California, a wetter than normal winter often leads to greater severity of fires the following summer. This seeming paradox occurs because increased rain leads to_____________.
A. a greater accumulation of chapparal biomass
B. higher pollination rates of annual flowers
C. greater recreational use of parklands
D. greater erosion and damage of access roads
E. decreased summer rainfall
Answer:
The correct answer is A. a greater accumulation of chapparal biomass.
Explanation:
The increase of rain leads to a greater accumulation of chapparal biomass, and then, when the winter is over, there's a big amount of dry biomass that can start fires.
If you place a probe in the aorta what chamber will it exit
Answer:Through the Left ventricle
Explanation:
.
Anatomically, the left ventricle empty directly into the aorta. Therefore the probe will pass through the aortic valve to exist in left ventricle.
The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood out of the heart through the aorta into the systemic circulation. Consequently, there must be a closed link between the chamber which stores and empty the blood (left Ventricle), and the vessel which conveys blood to the target areas (Aorta) in the systemic circulation.
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What abiotic factors determine the type of terrestrial biome? Why is the tropical rainforest the most diverse terrestrial biome? Put the zones of freshwater lakes and ponds in order of most sunlight to least sunlight: profundal, littoral, limnetic. Why do different biomes have different plant and animal species?
The abiotic factors that determine the type of terrestrial biome are sunlight, wind, rainfall, humidity, level of pollution etc.
Tropical rainforest is the most diverse terrestrial biome because of the availability of enough rainfall and sunlight.
Littoral, limnetic, profundal.
Different biomes have different plant and animal species because they have different abiotic factors.
Explanation:
Abiotic factors like temperature, amount of sunlight, rainfall, humidity , level of pollution etc can determine the type of biome. Tropical rainforests are located at the tropical regions which receive greater amount of sunlight and rainfall. Availability of sunlight and rainfall in plenty supports diverse life forms making the tropical rainforests the most diverse terrestrial biome.
The zones of freshwater lakes and ponds arranged in terms of maximum sunlight availability to minimum sunlight availability is littoral, limnetic, profundal. Littoral zone is the region nearest to the shore and receives maximum amount of sunlight. Limnetic zone doesn’t receive sunlight till the bottom.
Profundal zone is underwater and covered by mud and thus receives minimal amount of sunlight.The species of plants and animals that can be found in a biome depends on the conditions of the biome. Several abiotic factors are crucial in determining the type of a biome.
Thus two different biomes will have different species types as well.
Answer:
The abiotic factors that determine a terrestrial biome are weather, climate, latitude and amount of sunlight an area receives, and nutrients available.
The amount of precipitation and the warm climate in the tropical rainforest support more organisms in that area. There are fewer limiting factors in the tropical rainforest.
The order of most to least sunlight is littoral zone, limnetic zone, and profundal zone.
Biomes are different because of their differing latitude, climate, weather, amount of sunlight, and precipitation. All organisms have a range of tolerance for the temperature, amount of sunlight, and precipitation in which they can survive.
Explanation:
Penn Foster
Which term best describes the interval between the birth of the newborn and the return of the reproductive organs to their normal nonpregnant state?
A. Involutionary period because of what happens to the uterus
B. Puerperium, or fourth trimester of pregnancy
C. Mini-tri period because it lasts only 3 to 6 weeks
D. Lochia period because of the nature of the vaginal discharge
Answer:
B. Puerperium, or fourth trimester of pregnancy
Explanation:
Puerperium or the fourth trimester of pregnancy is also known as the postpartum period. This period starts immediately after the mother gives birth to a child. During this period the size of the uterus and other reproductive organs along with the hormone levels return to their normal state.It is the phase where regression of all the anatomical and physiological changes that took place i in the reproductive organs of the females takes place.This phase is divided int three periods -1. Immediate puerperium, or the first 24 hours after parturition
2. Early puerperium, which extends until the first week postpartum;
3. Remote puerperium, which includes the period required for involution of the genital organs and return of menses, usually approximately 6 weeks.
This phase is highly critical for the mother as this requires rest and proper care as there are risks of bleeding. Therefore, the midwife or the nurse must take proper care of the mother.What mechanisms help infants survive before they have an opportunity to learn adaptive behavior?
Answer:
Reflexes
Explanation:
The complete question is :
What mechanisms help infants survive before they have an opportunity to learn adaptive behavior?
a. Dynamic systems
b. Motor skills
c. Reflexes
d. Vision and hearing
A muscle reaction that takes place automatically in response to stimulation is termed as a reflex action. The reflexes that are present in infants which helps them to survive before they display adaptive behavior are termed as infant reflexes.There are several reflexes that are displayed by the infants such as :Sucking reflex - the infant sucks when an area around the mouth is touchedStartle reflex - the infant pulls his arms and legs in after hearing a loud noiseStep reflex - the infant performs stepping motions when the sole of the foot touches a hard surfaceThere are many more such reflexes present in the infants that are absent in the adults.
What structural modification of the small intestine slows the movement of chyme through the lumen? a) intestinal crypts b) villi c) microvilli d) circular folds.
Answer:
The correct answer is d) circular folds.
Explanation:
Circular folds slow food going through the small intestine so the villi and microvilli can help the food to be processed and digested properly. Also, the presence of these circular folds increases the surface where the nutrients are being absorbed.
The circular folds (d) of the small intestine are structural modifications that slow the movement of chyme, allowing for more time for digestion and nutrient absorption.
Explanation:The structural modification of the small intestine that slows the movement of chyme through the lumen is d) circular folds. These folds, also known as plicae circulares, are large, valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small intestine. Their primary function is to slow down the passage of food to allow for adequate time for digestion and absorption.
The villi and microvilli, on the other hand, are primarily responsible for increasing the surface area for nutrient absorption. Villi are small, finger-like projections that extend into the lumen of the small intestine, and microvilli are even smaller projections on the apical surface of epithelial cells of the villi, forming a brush border. While villi and microvilli are essential for nutrient absorption, they do not specifically function to slow the movement of chyme like the circular folds do.
The lumen is the inside of the small intestine where digestion and absorption take place. While all these structures – circular folds, villi, and microvilli – work together to optimize the efficiency of digestion and absorption, it is the circular folds that chiefly impede the flow chyme, providing more time for nutrients to be absorbed as it passes through the small intestine.
You get the results of Mrs. M’s blood tests and see that the osmolarity of her blood is higher than normal. What is the most likely explanation for the increased concentration of Mrs. M's blood?
Answer:
The correct explanation for high osmolatrity in Mrs M's blood is high percentage of particle than dilution. This mean blood and urine is more concentrated which result in more production of ADH (anti diuretic hormone)
Explanation:
Osmolarity is a test which determined the concentration level of particle and dehydration level in one body. Higher the percentage of dilution of blood more easy is the chance to move nutrient into the blood. High concentration of blood make easy to throw out waste product move out of the body.
The correct explanation for high osmolatrity in Mrs M's blood is high percentage of particle than dilution. This mean blood and urine is more concentrated which result in more production of ADH (anti diuretic hormone)
What are population dynamics?
a) Number of individuals born each year in a population.
b) Changes in populations through time.
c) Proportion of individuals at each possible age.
d) Regular fluctuations in the population size of some animals.
Answer: Changes in populations through time.
Explanation: Population dynamics is defined as the study of certain population as regards it's age composition and size and factors that influence the population such as the death and birth rate of the population.
Brian often interrupts his teacher while she is speaking and frequently forgets to complete his homework assignments. He also has difficulty taking turns in playground games with classmates. Brian most clearly exhibits symptoms of
Answer:
ADHD (attention deficit hyperactivity disorder)
Explanation:
ADHD is a neurodevelopmental disorder in which a person often acts inappropriately with regards to his age, has difficulty paying attention to things and often acts without taking into consideration the consequences of his/her actions. A person suffering from this syndrome exhibits symptoms that are often noticed in the school, home or during recreational activities such as playground games and mostly before 12 years of age. The child also shows restlessnesss and hyperactive behavior. Since Brain exhibits all these symptoms - hyperactivity (interrupts the teacher), forgets homework (lack of attention) and difficulty taking turns in playground games, he is most probably suffering from ADHD.Mucosae of a healthy intestinal tract _____. (Select all that apply.)
A. have a large number of activated T and B cells
B. harbor T cells bearing a very wide diversity of antigen specificities
C. contain intraepithelial lymphocytes
D. have large numbers of resident neutrophils
E. are populated with both α:β and γ:δ effector T cells.
Answer:
Option (A), (C) and (D).
Explanation:
A mucosa is the membrane that mainly lines the body cavities and covers the internal surface organ of the body. The mucosa is present in the whole intestinal tract.
This mucosa plays an important role in the immunity of the organisms. The mucosa contains both the B cells and T cells that plays an important role in humoral immunity and cell mediated immunity. The neutrophils plays an important role in the inflammation and also phagocytose the cell.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A), (C) and (D).
You recently identified a molecule that you believe is a primary messenger for a signal transduction mechanism. All you know about this ligand is that it is hydrophilic. Where would you expect to find initial interaction of the molecule with its receptor?
-in endosome vesicles-on the outer surface of the plasma membrane-within the cytoplasm of the cell-on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane-within the nucleus of the cell
Answer: within the cytoplasm of the cell
Explanation:
There are four main types of receptors, these are:
G-protein linked Receptors
Enzyme-Linked Receptors
Nuclear Receptors
Ligand-Gated Ion Receptors
Out of these four types; It has become apparent that ligand-gated ion channels (ionotropic receptors) in the neuronal plasma membrane interact via their cytoplasmic domains (i.e within the cytoplasm of the cell) with a multitude of intracellular proteins. Another fact is that, Intracellular receptors are located in the cytoplasm of the cell. Also, Ligand-Gated Ion Receptors is the only Hydrophilic Ligand.
Unlike the G-protein linked Receptors (transmembrane protein (TP)). A transmembrane protein (TP) is a type of integral membrane protein that spans the entirety of the cell membrane. Many transmembrane proteins function as gateways to permit the transport of specific substances across the cell membrane. They frequently undergo significant conformational changes to move a substance through the membrane. They usually highly hydrophobic and aggregate and precipitate in water.
Enzyme-Linked Receptors are transmembrane proteins as well, with their ligand-binding domains on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. They are also hydrophobic in nature.
Nuclear Receptors are nuclear hormone receptors that directly binds within the nucleus of the cell to regulate the expression of targeted genes.
Ecologic studies_________________.
a. are expensive and require a great deal of time to conductb. are a good approach for generating hypotheses
c. provide accurate measurements of exposure
d. yield results that can be applied directly to individuals
Answer:
b. are a good approach for generating hypothesesb. are a good approach for generating hypotheses
In the lizard species L. vivipara, most females from the colder, mountainous part of the range live much longer than do individuals from warmer, lowland regions. Compared to the lowlands, what life-history trait is expected in lizards living in the mountains?
A. Equivalent fecundity
B. Increased fecundity
C. Decreased fecundity
Answer:
C Decreased fecundity
Explanation:
Decreased fecundity.
Fecundity is nothing but the ability to reproduce.
Lizards living in colder climates cannot reach the body size required for reproduction. As a result, they invest available energy to increase the body size as a result of which, they enter reproduction later.
Linda is conducting a research study on osteoporosis, and she wants her study to create awareness among those most affected by the disease. In this scenario, her target group would most likely be:
Answer: Case control analysis
Explanation:
There should be 3 target groups, 1 of them is optional.
1) Patients of osteoporosis undergoing medical and physical therapy
2) Patients of osteoporosis not undergoing medical and physical therapy
3) Control group
1. A _____ is placed at the beginning of the word (applies always).2. A _____ is placed at the end of the word (applies always).3. The _____ plane divides the body into front and back portions.4. Adip/o means _____ .5. The main shaft-like portion of a long bone is known as the _____ .6. The prefix ecto- means _____ .7. A medical scientist who specializes in the study of tissues is a _____ .8. The prefix hydro- means _____ .9. The outer layer of the skin that contains no blood or nerve supply is the _____ .10. The suffix that means blood condition is _____ .11. The suffix that means pregnancy is _____ .12. The three layers of protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord are known as the _____ .13. The middle, muscular layer of the heart is the _____ .14. The _____ is a pear-shaped, hollow, muscular organ that houses the fertilized implanted ovum as it develops throughout pregnancy.15. Another name for fever is _____ .
Answer:Answer:
1.prefix
2. Suffix.
3. The coronal plane.
4. Adipo means fatty tissues.
5. Diaphysis.
6. Ecto means external.
7. Pathologist.
8. Prefix hydro means water.
9. The dermis.
10. emia.
11. Cyesis.
12. The dura mater, arachnoid mater and the pia mater.
13. The myocardium.
14. Uterus or womb.
15. Pyrexia
Explanation:
1. Prefix is added at the beginning of the word.
2. Suffix is placed at the end of the word.
2. Coronal plane is the plane that divides the body into dorsal and ventral portion(front and back).
4. Adipo means fat or fatty tissues.
5. Diaphysis is the shaft of long bone. It is made of cortical tissues and contains bone marrow and adipose tissues.
6. Ecto means external or outside.
7. Pathologist is a scientist that specialized in the study of body tissues. Histopathology is the study of diseased tissues.
8. Hydro means water.
9. The dermis is the outer layer of the skin that contains blood and nerve supply. It is water proof and is a defence against infection.
10. Emia is a suffix that means blood condition. Anaemia means absence of blood and hypervolemia means too much of blood.
11. Cyesis means pregnancy and its a stage between fertilization and birth.
12. The meninges is the layer that surrounds the brain and the spinal cord. It consist of three layers which are dura mater, arachnoid mater and pia mater.
13. The myocardium is the external muscular layer of the heart that contains the cardiac muscle tissues. It also take part in pumping of blood.
14. The uterus or womb is a peer shaped muscular organ of female reproductive system that house the implant ovum as its develop through out the pregnancy period.
15. Pyrexia or febile response is when the temperature of the body is higher than the normal body temperature due to increased body temperature.
Desmosomes connects keratinocytes to each other. Why is this important?
Answer:
Desmosomes as structured are two adjacent attached cells formed in the cell membranes from protein plaques while connected by filaments. The function of separating an organism from its environment is performed by epithelial keratinocytes.
To protect the organism, the keratinocytes are connected by the desmosome filaments through adherence. The adhered keratinocyte / desmosome connection produces prekeratin, a fibrous protein that adds to the epidermis a soluble structure
A researcher is comparing the species diversity of two islands. Both islands are roughly equal in size. However, one island is much closer to the mainland. She determines that the S value for the island closer to the mainland is _____ the S value for the island located farther from the mainland. In addition, she finds that the closer island's extinction rate is _____ the extinction rate on the farther island.
Answer:
The S value for the island closer to the mainland is higher/bigger than the S value for the island located farther from the mainland.The closer island's extinction rate is equal to the extinction rate on the farther island.Explanation:
Island biogeography theory establishes that the two factors that affect species richness in natural communities on an island are the distance from the mainland and the size of the island.
At the same time, these factors affect inmigration and extinction rates.
According to the theory, islands that are closer to the continent have higher possibilities of receiving immigrants than those islands that are located farther from the mainland. This is the effect of distance.
The effect of size is reflected in the relation between island size and species diversity. In smaller islands, the probability of extinction is higher than in bigger islands. Bigger islands can have more species than smaller ones.
In the case of two islands of the same size and different distance to the mainland, both of them will have the same extinction rate, but the one closer to the continent will have a higher immigration rate, and so, a higher amount of species. The S value will be higher on the island closer to the continent.
Why are telomeres a necessary component of linear chromosomes?
Answer:
Bacause they protect the chromosomes
Explanation:
A telomere is a repetitive region located at the ends of a chromosome, their function is to act as caps to protect the inner regions when the chromosome is worn down during DNA replication. This worning out happens because a short stretch of DNA is not covered by an Okazaki fragment and therefore is not copied, eventually over multiple rounds of division the telomers will prevent the shortening to reach the important inner part that contains the genetical information.
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Telomeres play a vital role in the protection of genes present in chromosomes during cell division. They prevent the deletion of genes at the ends of chromosomes. The enzyme telomerase facilitates this process, elongating the lagging strand template so DNA polymerase can replicate chromosome ends.
Explanation:Telomeres are a crucial part of linear chromosomes, serving a protective function to stop the deletion of genes during cell division. The ends of the chromosomes, known as telomeres, consist of noncoding repetitive sequences. In humans, a sequence -TTAGGG- repeats between 100 and 1000 times within these telomeres.
The enzyme telomerase plays a significant role in the maintenance of chromosome ends. This enzyme, which was discovery led to a Nobel Prize in 2009 for Elizabeth Blackburn, Carol W. Greider, and Jack W. Szostak, contains a catalytic part and an inbuilt RNA template. It attaches itself to a chromosome's end, then adds complementary bases to the RNA template on the DNA strand's 3' end.
Once the 3' end of the lagging strand template is extended enough, DNA polymerase can add nucleotides that match the chromosome ends, enabling the replication of chromosome ends. Therefore, the role of telomeres is crucial in preserving our genes and preventing potential chromosomal degradation over time due to cell division.
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Which statement is true about evolutionary success? a) A successful organism can find food, escape predators, and reproduce. b) Vertebrates are the most evolutionarily successful. c) Any species that arises on earth is evolutionarily successful. d) Humans are the crowning achievement of evolution. e) Darwin said that some species are better than others.
Final answer:
A successful organism's ability to find food, escape predators, and reproduce encapsulates true evolutionary success, emphasizing survival and reproductive capabilities over any species-ranking metrics.
Explanation:
The true statement about evolutionary success is a) A successful organism can find food, escape predators, and reproduce. Evolutionary success is assessed by an organism's ability to survive and continue its lineage through reproduction.
The success of an organism is not influenced by an inherent ranking of species or the belief that humans are the peak of evolution; rather, it depends on adaptability and the ability to thrive within specific environmental conditions. Concepts such as evolvability, the struggle for existence, and inherited variations reinforce the understanding that an organism's reproductive success is the true measure of its evolutionary fitness.
After mixing A heat-killed, phosphorescent (light-emitting) strain of bacteria is mixed with a living, non-phosphorescent strain. Further observations of the mixture show that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which of the following observations would provide the best evidence that the ability to phosphoresce is a heritable trait?
Answer:
Phosphorescence in descendants of the living cells.
Explanation:
The DNA acts as the heritable molecule that pass down from the parents to their offsprings and move from one generation to the next generation. Different experiments had been done to identify the heritable molecules.
In an experiment, non fluorescent become fluorescent when mixed with the dead fluorescet cells. This means the material has been transformed to the non fluorescent cells. The phosphorescent acts as the descendants in the living cells and may be inherited to the future generations as well.
While traveling through the rain forests of Peru, you are introduced to a rare and exotic plant. You discover that it contains a toxin that blocks the reabsorption of sodium ions from the proximal tubule. If administered, what affect would this toxin have on the reabsorption of water and other electrolytes? While traveling through the rain forests of Peru, you are introduced to a rare and exotic plant. You discover that it contains a toxin that blocks the reabsorption of sodium ions from the proximal tubule. If administered, what affect would this toxin have on the reabsorption of water and other electrolytes? The toxin would significantly decrease the amount of water reabsorbed but would significantly increase the number of other electrolytes reabsorbed by the proximal tubule. The toxin would significantly increase the amount of water absorbed and the electrical gradient for reabsorbing chloride. The toxin would significantly decrease the amount of water and certain electrolytes reabsorbed by the proximal tubule. The toxin would significantly increase the amount of water and calcium ions reabsorbed by the proximal tubule.
Answer:
A. Oedema and ion imbalance
Explanation:
The proximal tubule is very important to the maintenance of homeostasis in the renal microenvironment. The alterations of the physiological functions will therefore distort the reabsorption of other ions. The blockage of sodium reabsorption into the channel will leads to an hypotonic internal environment. This will afterward leads to reduction of the reabsorption of water into the organ and increase the reabsorption of other ions into it. This will have clinical effect on the organism. Which is oedema of the extracellular surrounding of the tubules through accumulation of fluids and could lead to imbalance in neurological sense due to the imbalance in other ions.
Why does pulse (and breathing rate) increase during exercise? (relate to cellular respiration)
Answer:
Explanation:
During exercise, the rate of breathing increases in order to fulfill the needs of oxygen required by the body for the release pf energy required. The body activity and muscles are in movement and required more energy than at rest. The absorbance of oxygen in to the blood increases which will increase the heart beat and also carbon dioxide starts removing from the blood. the lungs must provide more oxygen to the blood during the exercise.
so as the activity level increases, the demand for oxygen increase which will increase the breathing to take in more oxygen from outside in to lungs so that the lungs pump more oxygen to the hearth which will deliver to the muscles for activity.
Pulse and breathing rates increase during exercise to meet the higher oxygen demands of the muscles and repay the oxygen debt incurred. This heightened respiratory activity is due to several neural and chemical factors, including the immediate neural response to exercise and the need to restore cellular ATP. Breathing remains elevated post-exercise until the body's oxygen levels are normalized.
Explanation:During exercise, the body's demand for oxygen increases to support the intensified activity of the muscles. This increased demand leads to an oxygen debt, a condition where the body needs more oxygen than what has been supplied during the exercise. To meet this demand and repay the oxygen debt, there is a rise in pulse and breathing rate.
The increased breathing rate or hyperpnea, which includes both an increased rate and depth of breathing, ensures that more oxygen is taken into the lungs and transported to the muscles, while more carbon dioxide is expelled. This response is driven by several factors, including the body's immediate neural responses to exercise involving psychological stimuli, activation of motor neurons, and stimulation of proprioceptors, as well as the need to restore ATP and creatine phosphate levels, convert lactic acid to pyruvic acid, and maintain appropriate blood pH levels.
Taxol is an anti-cancer drug that prevents uncontrolled cell proliferation by stabilizing microtubules, which causes arrest of the cell cycle. If dividing cells are treated with Taxol, at what stage of the cell cycle would you predict the arrest would occur?a. prophase
b. telophase
c. anaphase
d. metaphase
e. G1 of interphase
Answer:
C. Anaphase
Explanation:
Taxol's primary action is to bind to microtubules, especially β-tubulin, and prevent their depolymerization, thereby stabilizing mitotic spindle during anaphase of mitosis which leads to arrest of cell cycle.
Option d.
Taxol, an anti-cancer drug, disrupts cell division by stabilizing microtubules and thus preventing chromosome alignment. This results in a cell cycle arrest predicted to occur in metaphase when cells are treated with the drug.
Explanation:The anti-cancer drug Taxol prevents uncontrolled cell proliferation by stabilizing microtubules. This stability prevents the chromosomes from aligning properly in the middle of the cell. Given this mechanism of action, when dividing cells are treated with Taxol, it is predicted that the arrest would occur in metaphase (choice d). Metaphase is the specific phase of the cell cycle in which the chromosomes align in the middle of the cell, a process facilitated by the normal functioning of microtubules. When this process is disrupted by Taxol, the cell cannot proceed to the next stage of the cell cycle, causing an arrest in cell division.
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A researcher has crossed two dihybrid fish with the genotype d+/d ; t+/t. He notices that the progeny of this cross demonstrate a phenotypic ratio of 9:7. What type of gene interaction do these results suggest?
A. dominant epistasis
B. suppression
C. recessive epistasis
D. The two genes do not interact in any way.
E. The two genes act in the same pathway.
Answer:
The correct answer is C: recessive epistasis. Double recessive epistasis.
Explanation:
Gene interactions happen between genes at different levels and have implications in the phenotypic expression, causing a wide genetic variability.
Epistasis means "interruption" and refers to interactions between genes located in different loci in the same chromosome. An “epistatic gene” can alter, influence, or suppress the expression of a "hypostatic gene". When the epistatic gene is recessive, the interaction is known as "recessive epistasis".
Observing the altered phenotype proportions of the offspring can reveal which interaction is operating in the trait determination.
In simple recessive epistasis, the proportion is 9:3:4. But in "double recessive epistasis", the phenotypic proportion is 9:7. In this case, both recessive alleles in any of both loci, are capable of suppressing the phenotype. Those individuals that present two recessive alleles for any loci have the same phenotype. These are dd / T --, D --/tt, dd/tt.
DT Dt dT dt
DT DDTT DDTt DdTT DdTt
Dt DDTt DDtt DdTt Ddtt
dT DdTT DdTT ddTT ddTt
dt DdTt Ddtt ddTt ddtt
Phenotypic proportion: 9/16 (D-T-)
7/16 (D-tt, ddT-, ddtt)
You have learned that the fusion of egg and sperm produces a zygote. But how does the sperm reach the egg, and how does the zygote develop into a seed, which eventually germinates and grows into a mature sporophyte? In this activity, you will demonstrate your understanding of double fertilization and seed development in angiosperms.
Drag the statements to their appropriate locations on the flowchart of pollination, fertilization, and seed development.
a. pollen tube grows down the style
b. generative, cell divides, forming 2 sperm
c. 2 sperm are discharged into the female gametophyte
d. sperm fuse with the egg & 2 polar nuclei
e. zygote forms & divides into a terminal cell & a basal cell
f. cells of the embryo differentiate into three tissue types
Answer:
Pollination: a. pollen tubes grow down the style.
Fertilization: c. 2 sperm are discharged into the female gametophyte.
d. sperm fuse with the egg & 2 polar nuclei
Seed development: b. generative, cell divides, forming 2 sperm.
e. zygote forms & divides into a terminal cell & a basal cell
f. cells of the embryo differentiate into three tissue types
Explanation:
Fertilization is the fusion of one or more sperm with an egg or the female gametophyte in the case of vegetables as option C and D describes.
Pollination is the process that flower plants use to reproduce with the help of insects that transport pollen from one flower to other depositing it in the pollen tubes that grow down the style in order to connect with the ovary of the flower as option A describes.
As regards seed development once that the fertilization is finished the seed starts to grow as option E and F describes. Option B describes the development of sperms, this process occurs before fertilization and through mitosis and meiosis.
What accounts for the uniform diameter of the DNA molecule? A.The two sides of the DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds.
B.A purine always bonds with a pyrimidine.
C. One side of the DNA molecule has an unconnected 5' phosphate group and the opposite end has an unconnected 3' hydroxyl group.
D. The 3' carbon of one deoxyribose and the 5' carbon of another deoxyribose bond together.
E.The alternating sugar and phosphate backbone coils around the outside of the helix.
Answer:
B. A purine always bonds with a pyrimidine.
Explanation:
DNA is a polymer of deoxyribonucleotides each of which has a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and phosphate group. There are two types of nitrogenous bases present in DNA. Adenine and guanine are the purine bases and have two rings in their structure while the cytosine and thymine are the pyrimidine bases with a single ring structure.
A purine base of one DNA strand always pairs with the pyrimidine base of another DNA strand. Adenine (purine) makes two hydrogen bonds with thymine (pyrimidine) while guanine (purine) makes three hydrogen bonds with cytosine (pyrimidine). The pairing of a purine with a pyrimidine base keeps the diameter of a DNA double helix uniform throughout the length. For instance, the diameter of B-DNA is around 20 angstrom.
Match the following. 1. the condition of having gametes similar in shape, but different in size gymnosperm 2. the condition of having anisogametes gonad 3. the part of the stamen of a flower that bears the pollen antheridium 4. an organ in simpler plants that produces sperm cells isogamete 5. an organ in lower vascular plants, gymnosperms, mosses, and liverworts which produces an egg cell motile 6. a reproductive organ of gymnosperms having a central axis with radiate scales and bracts; can either produce pollen or ovules anisogamy 7. an act of fertilization involving the transfer of cell contents to another cell; usually occurs in simpler organisms flagellum 8. a large gamete with stored food anther 9. a long, whip-like structure extending from a cell used for locomotion cone 10. an organ of lower plants, some protists and some fungi that produces gametes gametangium 11. gamete producing organs in animals anisogamete 12. cone-bearing plant; often called evergreen conjugation 13. incapable of independent movement immotile 14. gametes that are the same in size and shape aronium 15. capable of independent movement
Answer:
The correct match is given below:
Explanation:
The condition of having gametes similar in shape, but different in size – anisogametes.The condition of having anisogametes - anisogamyThe part of the stamen of a flower that bears the pollen – antherAn organ in simpler plants that produces sperm cells – antheridium An organ in lower vascular plants, gymnosperms, mosses, and liverworts which produces an egg cell - archegonium A reproductive organ of gymnosperms having a central axis with radiate scales and bracts; can either produce pollen or ovules – cone An act of fertilization involving the transfer of cell contents to another cell; usually occurs in simpler organisms – conjugation A large gamete with stored food - Egg A long, whip-like structure extending from a cell used for locomotion- Flagellum An organ of lower plants, some protists and some fungi that produces gametes - gametangium Gamete producing organs in animals – gonads Cone-bearing plant; often called evergreen – GymnospersIncapable of independent movement - immotile Gametes that are the same in size and shape - isogametes Capable of independent movement- motileFinal answer:
In biology, isogamy involves identical gametes, whereas anisogamy features distinct male and female gametes, typically larger eggs and smaller sperm. A gametophyte is a life stage that produces gametes, and a sporophyte produces spores leading to gametophyte development in plants.
Explanation:
The terms provided are fundamental to understanding plant reproduction and life cycles in biology. Isogamy refers to the production of gametes that are equal in size and shape, while anisogamy, also known as oogamy, involves gametes of different sizes and shapes, typically a larger non-motile egg and smaller motile sperm. The gametophyte is the plant or phase in the plant's life cycle that produces gametes.
Gametangium is the structure within which gametes are produced, commonly found in multicellular protists, algae, fungi, and the gametophytes of plants. The sporophyte is the diploid phase that bears a sporangium, which produces spores that will develop into gametophytes, leading to sexual reproduction through the production of male and female gametes.