Answer:
Explanation: One thing is for sure: you would have a tremendous amount of weight loss. Water weight burns faster than that of the weight from what you eat. Without supplementing your body with other sources such as protein, calcium, sodium, and so forth, your body would start to consume itself, due to a lack of proper nourishment. On a psychological scale, it would cause your mind to have a whole lot of hallucinations, and anemia.
Fasting for a week would cause physical effects like using stored glucose for energy, switching to ketosis, weight loss, possible fatigue, dizziness, weak immune system and nutrient deficiencies. Psychologically, it might result in heightened focus and clarity, possible antidepressant effects, but could also lead to distress and obsessive food behaviors. Long-term fasting should be supervised by a medical professional due to health risks.
Explanation:If you decided to fast for a week, meaning abstain from eating and only drink water, there would be a number of psychological and physical effects. In terms of physical effects, initially, your body would use up the stored glucose for energy.
After the glucose stores are depleted, your body switches to ketosis to get energy. This is followed by significant weight loss (mostly water weight). However, prolonged fasts can lead to fatigue, dizziness, weak immune system, and nutrient deficiencies.
Psychologically, some people report heightened focus and clarity, possibly due to the body's response to perceived starvation. The ketogenic state induced by fasting may have some antidepressant effects as well. Prolonged fasts, however, might be distressing and lead to obsession over food and possibly even develop disordered eating habits.
Given these potential outcomes, it's advised to undertake long-term fasting under medical supervision due to possible health risks.
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Respond to the following question: What is the expected impact on this condition when disordered eating or an eating disorder is present over many years? Time spent in a treatment program
What is the expected impact on this condition when disordered eating or eating disorder is present over many years? Time spent in a treatment program
- 3 year
A 26-year-old recently underwent surgery and is now experiencing dyspnea, cough, fever, and leukocytosis. Tests reveal a collapsed lung caused by the removal of air from obstructed alveoli. Which term is used to document this condition?
Answer:
The symptomatic condition presented by the patient makes us the diagnosis of pulmonary thromboembolism. Pulmonary thromboembolism is a pathology that complicates many surgeries, hence whenever a post-surgical patient has dyspnea, fever, chest pain, we must think that this pathology may be doing.
A 12 year old female who is eating and behaving normally is found to have high fever. After a few days, the feer resolves and the infant breaks out in a maculopapular lacy rash. This is a description of which of the following conditinos?
(A) Erythema infectiosum
(B) Roseola infantum
(C) Fifth disease
(D) Scarlet fever
Answer: (A) Erythema infectiosum
(C) Fifth disease
Explanation:
Erythema infectiosum, is also called as fifth disease. It is a disease which is caused by the human parvovirus. It occurs in the spring season. It is commonly found disease in young children (5-7 years). The disease spread through the respiratory droplets, blood and blood products containing the pathogen.
The incubation period of the disease is 4 to 14 days. It exhibit flue like symptoms such as fever. It involves the development of the erythema in the cheeks and maculopapular lacy rashes over the cheeks, arms, trunk, legs, palms and soles.
These rashes are slightly raised. The area affected by the rashes extend by exercise, sunlight, heat, emotional stress and fever.
You and another responder find an unresponsive adult on the floor in the locker room. You size up the scene, form an initial impression and perform a primary assessment. You find the victim is not moving or breathing, but has a pulse. You should summon EMS personnel, then You find the victim is not moving or breathing, but has a pulse. You summon EMS.
Answer:
Once the individual is found lying on the floor and is asked "Sir, what do you have ?, answer please" , we have to check him to see if he have breathing or pulse. In this particular case, the patient is not breathing but has a pulse, the emergency system (EMS) is activated, we have to placed him in an appropriate position by opening the airway, mouth-breathing is given, and cardiac massages should be started, to treat that good blood reach vital tissues.
The clinical condition of this person deserves the urgent use of a cardiac defibrillator.
Dora has agreed to go skydiving with her boyfriend to help him celebrate his 30th birthday, but she is absolutely terrified to do so. The morning of the big jump she wakes up and reports that she cannot feel or move her feet. She is upset by this, and her boyfriend takes her to the hospital. Doctors in the emergency room cannot find anything physically wrong with her. After the time for the sky-dive has passed, Dora's feeling of her feet seems to return without explanation. This could be an example of _______________.
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This could be an example of Conversion Disorder
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Why is sexual education, sex ed etc. Important?
Answer:
Younger generations need to learn how to safely and properly partake in sexual acts and educate others on sex in general
How to remove nail glue from skin without acetone
Answer: put your hands in warm water, after 10 minutes start to peel it from the skin
Explanation:
The water softens up your skin by increasing blood flow to your hands
Hope this helps
How to get period blood out of underwear without hydrogen peroxide
Answer:
You should probably throw it away, but you can use some other methods, such as running the underwear under some cold water.
Consider a situation in which a woman comes down with a case of rubella (German measles) in the eleventh week of pregnancy, as opposed to the thirtieth week of pregnancy. The difference in the way rubella affects the unborn child at these two times is an example of a _
Rubella infection in early pregnancy can lead to Congenital Rubella Syndrome with severe fetal defects, particularly before the eleventh week, with a decreased risk after the first trimester.
The difference in the way rubella affects the unborn child at the eleventh week of pregnancy as opposed to the thirtieth week of pregnancy is an example of the risks associated with Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS). If a pregnant woman contracts rubella early in pregnancy, particularly before the eleventh week, there is a very high risk of severe congenital defects or other adverse outcomes like stillbirth or spontaneous abortion due to the rubella virus being teratogenic. After the first trimester, especially past the 16th week, the risk of CRS markedly diminishes. Screening for rubella in the United States is common during prenatal care to prevent these severe fetal complications.
Define depersonalization.
Answer:
Depersonalization is a mental state in which a person feels disconnected from his or her personal identity or self.
Explanation:
A person feels disconnected or detached from the real world.
While performing a primary assessment on an unresponsive adult who has been rescued from the water, you find that they have only occasional gasps, no pulse and no severe life- threatening bleeding. Which of the following should you do next? (A) Immediately begin CPR, starting with chest compressions.(B) Give 5 abdominal thrusts.(C) Place the victim in the recovery position.(D) Give 2 ventilations and begin CPR.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
When a person is rescued from water, then it is sure that there will be no breathing, no pulse with only occasional gasps. While performing the primary assessment on a unresponsive adult who has been rescued from water must be given 2 rounds of ventilation and then immediately CPR should be started.
The cardiopulmonary resuscitation is a life saving technique which is used in emergency conditions including heart attack or in case of drowning conditions.
In this condition the chest compression is carried out after 2 ventilation( mouth to mouth breathing) until further help arrives.
Arnold is 56 years old and considers himself to be in good health. He has a family history of heart disease, stroke, and diabetes. He recently had a routine physical exam. He was told that his blood pressure was 130/85, his total cholesterol was 210 (LDL was 175 and HDL was 35), and his glucose levels were normal. Arnold was also informed that his weight of 190 pounds made him about 10 pounds overweight. Arnold's physician expressed some concern about the results of the exam. What finding is most likely the key cause of her concern?
He’s eating too much
Mike likes to drink a commercially prepared milk-based beverage. According to the label, the flavored milk contains 2% milk, water, high-fructose corn syrup, molasses, vegetable oil, saccharin, and natural vanilla flavoring. The ________ in this beverage are its sources of carbohydrate.
Final answer:
The sources of carbohydrate in the milk-based beverage are lactose and high-fructose corn syrup (HFCS). Lactose is a natural sugar found in milk, while HFCS is an added sugar commonly used in processed foods and beverages.
Explanation:
The sources of carbohydrate in the milk-based beverage are lactose, which is the milk sugar, and high-fructose corn syrup (HFCS).
Lactose is a natural sugar found in milk, including cow's milk. It is broken down by the body into glucose, which is a simple sugar. HFCS is an added sugar commonly used in processed foods and beverages, including flavored milk. It is a sweetener made from corn starch.
Mike likes to drink a commercially prepared milk-based beverage. According to the label, the flavoured milk contains 2% milk, water, high-fructose corn syrup, molasses, vegetable oil, saccharin, and natural vanilla flavouring. The high-fructose corn syrup and molasses in this beverage are its sources of carbohydrate.
In the given milk-based beverage, the ingredients that serve as sources of carbohydrate are high-fructose corn syrup and molasses. Carbohydrates are a class of macronutrients found in many foods and beverages, and in this beverage, they are specifically provided by the high-fructose corn syrup and molasses, which are both sweeteners rich in sugars. High-fructose corn syrup is a common sweetener in many commercially prepared foods and beverages, while molasses is a by product of sugar refining and is also used for its sweetening properties. These two ingredients contribute to the carbohydrate content of the beverage, making them the correct answer to the question.
A 12-year-old child at a soccer game grabs their chest and begins to make wheezing noises. After you obtain consent to provide care, the child’s parent informs you that the child has a history of asthma, but does not have an inhaler nearby. What care should you provide? (A) Give 5 back blows(B) Summon more advanced medical personnel and place the victim into a position that helps breathing.(C) tell the victim to use an inhaller borrowed from bystander(D) wait 20 minutes to see if the breathing difficulty goes away
Answer:
B: Summon more advanced medical personnel and place the victim into a position that helps breathing.
Explanation:
Summon more advanced medical personnel and place the victim into a position that helps breathing.
Inflammation and narrowing of the small airways in the lungs cause asthma symptoms.What is asthma?Asthma is a major non communicable disease (NCD), affecting both children and adults, and is the most common chronic disease among children.Contact with allergens, certain irritants or exposure to viral infections as an infant or in early childhood when the immune system isn't fully mature have been linked to developing asthma. Exposure to certain chemicals and dusts in the workplace may also play a significant role in adult onset asthma.Hence, B option is correct.
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Giving out all of my points, before I delete my account.
How is acne formed?
Answer:
Inflammatory disease of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles of the skin.
Explanation:
Acne is a common skin condition that affects all age groups. Also known as zits, pimples, and blemishes. It is a chornic inflammatory skin disorder of the sebaceous glands characterized by comedones and blemishes. Usually related to hormonal changes.
Dr. Black is interviewing a client. The client displays only the following symptoms: he rarely responds to the doctor’s questions, shows no emotions, and does not make eye contact. Is Dr. Black able to make a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
Answer:
The answer is NO
Explanation:
Psychiatric diseases are pathologies whose signs and symptoms may be specific for a given disease, but most of the time, the same symptom can appear in more than one. The lack of emotion, inadequate response, little interest, no fixed gaze, do not give the doctor enough grounds to consider that it is a definitive schisophrenia.
Although the client shows signs that could be associated with schizophrenia's negative symptoms, diagnosing schizophrenia requires a comprehensive evaluation, considering both positive and negative symptoms over time. A diagnosis cannot be made based solely on the brief description provided.
Explanation:The question asks if Dr. Black is able to make a diagnosis of schizophrenia based on a client displaying only the symptoms of rare responses to questions, no emotional display, and lack of eye contact. It is crucial to understand that although these signs may suggest the presence of negative symptoms associated with schizophrenia, such as flat affect, alogia, and social withdrawal, a comprehensive assessment is required for a diagnosis.
Diagnosing schizophrenia is complex and involves ruling out other mental health disorders, assessing the functionality impact of the symptoms, and confirming the persistence of symptoms. According to guidelines, symptoms must be present for a significant duration, usually at least 6 months, and include a combination of positive and negative symptoms.
Therefore, while the client exhibits certain negative symptoms potentially indicative of schizophrenia, a diagnosis cannot be confidently made without a more thorough evaluation covering a broader range of symptoms and ruling out other possible conditions.
Why is it necessary for the stomach contents to be so acidic
Answer:
to break down FOOD
Explanation:
enzymes of the stomach need to be acidic so food/drinks/medicine can be broken down and the nutrients can be stored/ used throughout the body
Answer:
To digest food
Explanation:
Now if we never had acid in our stomach we wouldn't be able to digest anything.
A covalent compound is composed of a nitrogen atom True or False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
A Covalent compound is a compound that forms as a result of covalent bonding between atoms. Covalent bond is an interatomic bond in which two or more atoms having zero or very small electronegativity difference combines. Due to the nature of the atoms involved, the bonds exists between atoms that are sharing their valence electrons to achieve a stability.
Not only atoms of Nitrogen can form covalent bonds. Other atoms can combine also to form covalent bonds.
Bernard is an ambitious, highly competitive corporate lawyer who recently had a heart attack. He tends to be impatient and a perfectionist, and he gets angry over little things. Research suggests that Bernard's susceptibility to heart attacks may be most closely linked to his ____
(A) Impatient
(B) Perfectionist
(C) Anger
(D) details oriented
(E) sympathetic
Answer:
C Anger
Explanation
The answer is anger because it increase heart rate, blood pressure and narrowing of blood vessels.
When do you begin planning what food to serve for dinner?
A. 2 days beforehand
B. 30 minutes before you serve dinner
C. that morning
D. when you write your grocery list
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Knowing what to cook for dinner for the whole week is when you're purchasing ingredients for the week.
A does not make sense because why would you plan 2 days before?
B doesnt make sense because it does not give you enough time
C doesnt make sense because you would need to prepare everything and assure that you have all ingredients ready.
The planning of what food to be served for dinner should be done 2 days beforehand. The correct option is A.
What is menu planning?Menu planning is the procedure to compile the list of food items going to serve in any type of meal whether it is breakfast, lunch, brunch or dinner.
Planning the menu in advance can ensure that menu items are prepared on time. It helps the chefs to set up their kitchen personnel to be most productive when preparing both specialities and brand-new dishes in addition to restaurant classics.
A menu plan will also help the business save money by reducing food waste.
Balance, nutritional value, aesthetics, and variety—including food's colour, texture, flavour, shape, and size—are among the principles of menu planning. Planning the menu for dinner should be done at least two days in advance.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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Vera age 70 has isolated systolic hypertension calcium channel blocker dosages for her should be
Answer:
Vera age 70 has isolated systolic hypertension calcium channel blocker dosages for her should be started at about half the usual dose.
You are called to an injured person to find a 27-year-old male with a laceration on his anterior forearm. Bleeding is dark red, steady, and fast. You control bleeding with direct pressure and then dress the wound. After you dress the wound, the bleeding restarts.
Juan suffers from alcoholism and has not responded to other types of treatment. Juan’s therapist suggests aversive conditioning in which Juan will take a nausea-inducing drug at the same time he sniffs beer. In this treatment strategy, the beer is the ______ during conditioning and the _____ after conditioning.
Hi !
In this treatment strategy, the beer is the neutral stimulus during conditioning and the conditioned stimulus after conditioning.
According to the scenario of the question, in this treatment strategy, the beer is the neutral stimulus during conditioning and the conditioned stimulus after conditioning.
What is Conditional stimulus?The conditional stimulus may be defined as a type of learned stimulus that can eventually trigger a conditioned response with respect to some condition and criteria.
The conditioned stimulus was the ringing of the bell, and the conditioned response was salivation. It is important to note that the neutral stimulus becomes the conditioned stimulus.
In chemical aversion, a doctor administers a drug or alcohol that causes nausea or vomiting in response to alcohol. They then give them alcohol so that the person gets sick. This is repeated until the person begins to associate drinking alcohol with feeling ill and thus no longer craves alcohol.
Therefore, in Juan's condition, beer or alcohol is the neutral stimulus during conditioning and the conditioned stimulus after conditioning.
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A client suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is being scheduled for testing. The client asks which of the tests ordered will determine positivity for the disorder. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate?
The antinuclear antibody test (ANA), along with tests for anti-double-stranded DNA (ds-DNA) and anti-Sm antibodies, are the most accurate indicators for diagnosing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE).
The most accurate statement a nurse can make regarding tests for determining positivity for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is centered around the antinuclear antibody test (ANA) and tests for specific autoantibodies like anti-double-stranded DNA (ds-DNA) and anti-Sm antibodies. The ANA test is considered a primary screening tool because it looks for antibodies that bind to the nucleus of cells, which are present in more than 95% of patients with SLE. The presence of anti-ds-DNA and anti-Sm antibodies are unique to SLE, making them critical for classification and confirmation of the disorder. The detection of these antibodies through blood tests provides a fundamental basis for diagnosing SLE, supporting clinical findings with specific immunological evidence.
Is gabapentin a controlled substance in ohio
Which classification system is used by most mental health professionals in the united states of america?
Answer:
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
Explanation:
the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders is used by most mental health professionals in the United States is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)
Answer:
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
Explanation:
The classification system that is used by most mental health professionals in the united states of america is called the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders.
Antioxidants work by stabilizing free radicals or opposing oxidation true or false
Antioxidants work by stabilizing free radicals or opposing oxidation:
The answer is true.
A 3-month-old infant has irritability, facial edema, a 1-day history of diarrhea with adequate oral intake, and seizure activity. During assessment, the parents state that they have recently been diluting formula to save money. Which is the most likely cause for the infant's symptoms? 1. Hypernatremia due to diarrhea 2. Hypoglycemia due to dilute formula intake 3. Hypokalemia due to excess gastrointestinal output 4. Hyponatremia due to water intoxication
Answer:
The correct answer is option 4. Hyponatremia due to water intoxication
Explanation:
Drinking an excessive amount of liquid or water in a short period of time can be dangerous for the individual. Excess amount of water in the body can result in a drop in salt or sodium in the blood. That's a condition called hyponatremia call which can be very serious and can be fatal too.
The drinking extreme level of water which can be lethal to an individual is called water toxication.
Thus, the correct answer is option 4. Hyponatremia due to water intoxication.
BRAINLIST AND 10 POINTS
Eleanor Roosevelt said, "Nobody can make you feel inferior without your permission." What does this mean? Is it true? Are there times when it might not be true? When might it be useful to think of this quote?
I believe it means that in order for someone to make you feel bad about yourself, you have to agree with what they are saying, and by agreeing you are giving them permission. Everyone has a right to their own opinion but we don't have to buy into other people's opinion of us.
Eleanor Roosevelt's quote, "Nobody can make you feel inferior without your permission," conveys a powerful message about the importance of self-belief and self-worth. It means that no one has the power to diminish your self-esteem or make you feel less valuable unless you allow their words or actions to affect you.
In essence, the quote emphasizes that your perception of yourself and how you interpret others' behavior plays a significant role in how you feel about yourself. The quote holds a great deal of truth in the context of self-confidence and resilience. It reminds us that we have the ability to control our emotional reactions and how we internalize external criticism or negativity. By recognizing our inherent worth and not giving power to others' opinions, we can protect our self-esteem and maintain a positive self-image.
However, there may be instances when this quote might not apply or might be more challenging to practice. For example, individuals who have experienced severe emotional abuse or persistent negative reinforcement may struggle to maintain a strong sense of self-worth, regardless of their permission. In such cases, the impact of external influences can be profound and difficult to overcome.
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As Jose was running down the road, he tripped and his left ankle twisted violently to the side. When he picked himself up, he was unable to put any weight on that ankle. The diagnosis was severe dislocation and sprains of the left ankle. The orthopedic surgeon stated that she would perform a closed reduction of the dislocation and attempt ligament repair by using arthroscopy. (a) Is the ankle joint normally a stable joint
Answer:
a) no, because there are 3 bones creating the joint instead of two, and there are not as many strong ligaments and muscles to stabilize it as compared to the hip
The ankle joint is typically considered to be a stable joint due to its structure and the presence of strong ligaments that help hold the bones together.
It allows for smooth up and down movement, providing stability during activities like walking and running. However, in the case of Jose's injury, his left ankle experienced a severe dislocation and sprains, which caused the normal stability of the joint to be disrupted. The ligaments that usually support the joint were damaged, leading to his inability to bear weight on the ankle.
To address the issue, the orthopedic surgeon planned to perform a closed reduction to realign the joint and use arthroscopy to potentially repair the injured ligaments, aiming to restore stability and function to the ankle joint.
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