Wheat production W in a given year depends on the average temperature T and the annual rainfall R. Scientists estimate that the average temperature is rising at a rate of 0.15°C/year and rainfall is decreasing at a rate of 0.1 cm/year. They also estimate that, at current production levels, δW/δT = -2 and δW/δR = 8. Estimate the current rate of change of wheat production, dW/dt.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

-1.1

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Average temperature is rising at a rate, [tex]\frac{dT}{dt}[/tex] = 0.15°C/year

Rate of change  rainfall, [tex]\frac{dR}{dt}[/tex] = - 0.1 cm/year

[tex]\frac{\delta W}{\delta T}[/tex] = -2

[tex]\frac{\delta W}{\delta R}[/tex] = 8

Now,

we need to calculate [tex]\frac{dW}{dt}[/tex]

since,

The wheat production (W) is dependent on the rainfall (R) and the Temperature (T)

thus, Using the chain rule , we have

[tex]\frac{dW}{dt}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{\delta W}{dT}\times\frac{dT}{dt}[/tex] +  [tex]\frac{\delta W}{dR}\times\frac{dR}{dt}[/tex]

on substituting the respective values, we get

[tex]\frac{dW}{dt}[/tex] = -2 × 0.15 +  8 × (-0.1)

or

[tex]\frac{dW}{dt}[/tex] = -0.3 - 0.8

or

[tex]\frac{dW}{dt}[/tex] = -1.1


Related Questions

What proportion of emerging diseases is caused by zoonotic pathogens?

Answers

61% of emerging diseases is caused by zoonotic pathogens

Explanation:

Out of total emerging diseases zoonotic contributes 61%, that are originated from wildlife. The rate is increasing due to growth of human population, its mobility, frivolous, cultural and their socioeconomic purposes. Air is the major source for spread of infectious diseases. Zoonoses are generally caused by bacteria, viruses and pathogens that are blowout between animals and human beings. Modern zoonoses are Ebola virus and salmonella. One of such direct zoonoses is rabies, that is transformed directly from animal to human.

During DNA transposition by the cut-and-paste mechanism, the transposase cuts the two strands of the target site DNA several nucleotides apart. Cellular repair enzymes fill in these overhangs, resulting in the formation of________.

Answers

Answer:

Long terminal repeats.

Explanation:

Transposable element may be defined as the DNA sequence that can move from one place to the other place in the genome. These are also known as jumping genes.

These gene can move through the cut - paste mechanism and copy-paste mechanism. The gene consist of the transposase enzyme that cuts the DNA strand. The gaps are filed by the repair enzymes. This involves in the formation of the long terminal repeats at the DNA sequence.

Thus, the correct answer is long terminal repeats.

Many second messenger systems activate ________, enzymes that transfer a phosphate group from ATP to a protein. The phosphorylation of proteins sets off a series of intracellular events that lead to the ultimate cellular response

Answers

Answer:

Many second messenger systems activate kinases, enzymes that transfer a phosphate group from ATP to a protein. The phosphorylation of proteins sets off a series of intracellular events that lead to the ultimate cellular response.

Explanation:

For example, the second messenger cAMP activates the protein kinase A (PKA), which catalyzes the phosphorylation of other proteins.

The second messenger Ca²⁺ forms an active complex with a protein called calmodulin. This complex activates CaM kinases, that phosphorylate a group of target proteins, regulating its activities.

Quiz which condition could lead to drawdown below the level of existing wells?

Answers

Answer:

Continuous pumping of water causes drawdown. The water table lowers rapidly.

Explanation:

Water table is the level below which the ground is saturated with water. During rainfall the runoff water percolates into the ground through the gap in the soil particles and the water table is recharged. But when gallons of water are pumped continuously it leads to a drastic reduction in the water table because, water from the surrounding aquifers move towards the place where the vacuum is created by pumping. To prevent this, the groundwater should be recharged and over drawing should be avoided.

Which of the following best describes glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
a. the volume of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries per minute
b. the volume of filtrate created by the kidneys per minute
c. the volume of filtrate created at the glomerulus per liter of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries
d. the volume of urine leaving the kidneys per minute

Answers

Answer:

the volume of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries per minute

Final answer:

The Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is the volume of filtrate created by the kidneys per minute. It is a measure of kidney function and is crucial for the removal of waste materials from the body. Other options regarding blood flow through capillaries, filtrate per litre of blood, or urine output do not accurately define GFR.

Explanation:

The Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is best described as (b) the volume of filtrate created by the kidneys per minute. It represents the amount of blood cleaned by the kidneys every minute, measured in millilitres per minute (mL/min). GFR provides an estimate of kidney function and it’s crucial for the removal of excess fluids and waste materials from our body.

Just for the sake of clarity, options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect. The GFR is not about the volume of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries, nor the volume of filtrate created at the glomerulus per litre of blood. It also does not represent the volume of urine leaving the kidneys per minute.

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"The RNA polymerase II C-terminal domain (CTD) consists of multiple repeats of the heptapeptide sequence YSPTSPS, with the number of repeats varying among organisms. Hyperphosphorylation of the CTD is a key step in the transition of the enzyme complex from the initiation to the elongation stage. What does the term "hyperphosphorylation" mean in this context?

Answers

Answer:

Multiple copies of the heptapeptide repeat are phosphorylated on some combination of serine, threonine, and tyrosine residues.

Explanation:

Suppose that the human insulin protein that was produced by the bacteria was much shorter than it should be. Upon further investigation, it was found that the DNA of the human insulin gene had a mutation while in the bacterial cells.
What type of mutation could not result in these observations?
Group of answer choices
nucleotide insertion silent mutation
nonsense mutation nucleotide deletion

Answers

Answer:

Silent mutation.

Explanation:

A silent mutation usually does not affect the protein produced by the translation of a given gene, it means, it will not affect the aminoacid sequence of the protein, since the genetic code is degenerated.

A Nonsense mutation will derive in the formation of an early STOP codon, so, the protein will be truncated (shorter than it should be).

It is important to notice that nucleotide insertion and deletion COULD derive also in the formation of a stop codon, but not necessarily, since it can just move the reading frame, and of course it will derive in a different protein.

A phenotypically normal prospective couple seeks genetic counseling because the man knows that he has a translocation of a portion of his chromosome 4 that has been exchanged with a portion of his chromosome 12. Although he is normal because his translocation is balanced, he and his wife want to know the probability that his sperm will be abnormal. What is your prognosis regarding his sperm?

Answers

Answer:

50% of sperms will be abnormal with duplication and deletions. There are 25% chances of production of normal sperms without any translocation while the rest 25% sperms will have balanced translocation.

Explanation:

A person with balanced translocation forms four types of gametes. There is a 25% probability of the formation of normal sperm. Segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I would give 25% of the sperms with balanced translocation of chromosomes 4 and 12. Rest 50% sperms will exhibit deletion and duplication for the segments of chromosomes 4 and 12.

Out of the 50% abnormal gametes, half of the gametes will have a deleted segment of chromosome 4 and the duplicated segment of chromosome 12. Likewise, the rest of these gametes will have a deleted segment of chromosome 12 and a duplicated segment of chromosome 4. Therefore, there are 50% chances of the production of abnormal sperms.

Final answer:

The man's balanced translocation may affect the chromosomal arrangements in his sperm, potentially leading to abnormal configurations. Consulting with a genetic counselor or specialist is recommended to understand the specific probability and effects on offspring.

Explanation:

Based on the information provided, the prospective couple seeking genetic counseling has a man who has a balanced translocation of a portion of his chromosome 4 with a portion of his chromosome 12. A balanced translocation means that despite the rearrangement of genetic material, the man is phenotypically normal. However, there is a possibility that his sperm may be abnormal.



During meiosis, which is the process of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and eggs), the chromosomes are prone to assuming unnatural topologies. This can lead to the likelihood of nondisjunction, where chromosomes fail to separate properly. Nondisjunction can result in gametes with abnormal chromosomal configurations.



Therefore, there is a chance that the man's sperm may carry abnormal chromosomal arrangements due to the translocation. To determine the specific probability and the potential effects on offspring, it would be recommended for the prospective couple to consult with a genetic counselor or specialist.

Imagine you have a layer of limestone with high porosity but low permeability. What can you do to increase its permeability to allow water to be pumped from the layer and used as a source of drinking water?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is remove the overburden  so that there will be less pressure trapping the water.

Explanation:

You can remove the overburden  so that there will be less pressure trapping the water.

Final answer:

To increase the permeability of limestone with high porosity but low permeability, you can use hydraulic fracturing to create fractures in the limestone, or use reverse osmosis water purification as a workaround to the low permeability problem.

Explanation:

To increase the permeability of a layer of limestone with high porosity but low permeability, one method could be hydraulic fracturing or fracking. This process involves the injection of water, sand, and chemicals into the layer under high pressure. This high-pressure injection creates fractures in the limestone layer, which will increase the permeability.

Alternatively, you can use reverse osmosis water purification if the low permeability of the limestone layer is a problem and you cannot alter the geological structure. Reverse osmosis is a process where water is forced through a semipermeable membrane from a more concentrated solution to a less concentrated solution, effectively purifying the water. Used in many applications, reverse osmosis can be adapted to a variety of scales, from large desalination plants to small, hand-operated pumps.

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pancreatic and intestinal enzymes operate optimally at a ph that is slightly alkaline yet the chyme entering the duodenum from the stomach is very acid. How is the proper pH for the functioning of the pancreatic-intestinal enzymes ensured?

Answers

Answer:

The pancreas delivers its enzymes to the small intestine in an alkaline-rich fluid.

Explanation:

The pancreas deliver the necessary enzymes required for digestion in a fluid. This fluid has an alkaline pH so that the enzymes are able to get their optimal alkaline pH at which they can function. Beyond these pH, the enzymes will become denatures and will not be able to carry out the process of digestion.

The pancreatic juice contains the alkaline bicarbonate in it. This bicarbonate neutralizes the acidic condition in the small intestine.

Final answer:

The pancreas secrets bicarbonate-rich juices to neutralize the acidic chyme from the stomach, providing an alkaline pH for the optimal activity of pancreatic-intestinal enzymes like trypsin in the small intestine.

Explanation:

The proper pH for the functioning of pancreatic-intestinal enzymes is ensured by the secretion of bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juices into the small intestine. These juices are produced by the pancreas and help to neutralize the acidic chyme coming from the stomach, providing an optimal environment for enzymatic activity. The enzyme pepsin functions well in the acidic conditions of the stomach, but other enzymes such as trypsin and chymotrypsin, which are active in the small intestine, require a more alkaline environment. The alkalinity is achieved mainly due to sodium bicarbonate in the pancreatic juices, which brings the pH to a level suitable for enzymes that operate in the small intestine, such as trypsin with an optimal pH of about 8.

At age 79, Mrs. X is diagnosed with a disorder that severely impairs her logical judgment. Medical imaging techniques show that this has been most likely caused by brain damage in a ___

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is frontal lobe.

Explanation:

The frontal lobe is the largest lobe a human being has and is responsible for each person having certain abilities such as reasoning, criteria, and all that behavior that has an objective. It is in charge of giving us the ability to anticipate and prepare us to react quickly to stimulus.

If the frontal lobe is injured, these capacities will be affected.

A person's daily behavior would be totally affected if he had an injury to the frontal lobe. He would present symptoms such as those in the example, where he could not have a logical judgment, but also other symptoms such as a deficit to perform all his executive functions and his behavior would be difficult to regulate.

With such damage, the person may also be irritable or cranky, and even have symptoms of memory loss.

Final answer:

Medical imaging indicates that damage to Mrs. X's prefrontal cortex is most likely the cause of her impaired logical judgment, a region associated with judgment, reasoning, and impulse control.

Explanation:

At age 79, Mrs. X is diagnosed with a disorder that severely impairs her logical judgment. Medical imaging techniques show that this has been most likely caused by brain damage in the prefrontal cortex. This area of the brain is associated with functions like judgment, reasoning, and impulse control. Damage to the prefrontal cortex can lead to a range of behavioral changes and deficits in cognitive abilities. Moreover, conditions such as dementia and Alzheimer's disease are characterized by progressive neurological changes that often include significant loss of cognitive abilities, and these conditions are related to changes in the cerebral cortex. In the case of Alzheimer's, distinct neurodegeneration can be observed in affected regions of the brain, like the hippocampus and ventricles, through medical imaging.

Elderly individuals, such as Mrs. X, are more susceptible to neuropsychological disorders that can lead to severe cognitive impairments. Lesions from strokes or other vascular problems can result in specific losses of function, depending on the brain regions affected. The prefrontal cortex, when damaged, can lead to a decline in logical judgment, indicating the critical role this region plays in higher-order cognitive processes.

The eggs released by sponges during reproduction have proteins on their surfaces that prevent sperm from different sponge species from binding to the eggs. What type of reproductive isolation would include this example?

Answers

Answer:

Gamete compatibility

Explanation:

Function with games is important for sexual reproduction. Wolbachia are endosymbiotic bacteria that are maternally transmitted and exploit gamete function in many types of arthropod.

In Drosophila, Wolbachia-infected males ' fertilization of uninfected eggs by sperm often results in an early developmental arrest.

Therefore the answer is -

Gamete compatibility

The ciliary body is a modified part of this layer (tunic) of the eyeball. The ciliary body is a modified part of this layer (tunic) of the eyeball. fibrous layer (sclera) vascular layer (uvea) sensory layer (retina)

Answers

Answer:

vascular layer

Explanation:

The wall of the eyeball is made up of three layers which are a fibrous tunic, vascular tunic, and retina, also known as an inner tunic. The middle layer of the eyeball is the vascular tunic or uvea which in turn is composed of three parts: choroid, ciliary body, and iris.

Choroid becomes the ciliary body in the anterior portion of the vascular tunic. The ciliary body is a dark brown structure and contains melanin-producing melanocytes. Other structural components of the ciliary body are ciliary processes and ciliary muscle. The ciliary processes arise as protrusions or folds on the internal surface of the ciliary body.

Which best defines homeostasis? a.modifying the external environment b.maintaining a stable internal environment
c.controlling what enters and exits the cell
d.movement of materials into the cell

Answers

Answer:

B. maintaining a stable internal environment

Explanation: The purpose of homeostasis is to maintain a stable internal environment by careful regulation of bodily temperatures and other methods.

Amino acids with hydrophobic r groups are most often found buried in the interior of folded proteins. true or false

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Hydrophobicity is the aversion to the water of a molecule (or part of it). Amino acids with a hydrophobic R group (glycine, alanine, valine, leucine, isoleucine, proline, phenylalanine, methionine, and tryptophan) will fold with the R groups in the interior to avoid water. This behavior is one of the most important forces in protein folding. You can see it exemplified in the image I added.

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Final answer:

Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups are most often found in the interior of folded proteins to minimize their interaction with water in aqueous environments, confirming the statement as true.

Explanation:

The statement is true. Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups are typically found buried within the interior of folded proteins. This is because in an aqueous environment, such as the cytoplasm, it is energetically favorable for proteins to fold in a way that the hydrophobic side chains are shielded from water, thus reducing the ordered structure of surrounding water molecules and increasing entropy. On the other hand, the exterior of proteins is generally hydrophilic, allowing interaction with the aqueous environment.

Hydrophobic R groups interact with each other through van der Waals forces and contribute to the stability of the protein's three-dimensional structure. This structural organization is a key aspect of protein folding, in the context of both globular proteins in aqueous environments and membrane proteins within the hydrophobic interior of lipid bilayers.

The conditions on earth around the time of the of the molecules present were likely produced by volcanic eruptions. Critical formation of small molecules containing which of the following? origin of life were very different from those of today. Most to the origin of life was the
a. nitrogen and methane
b. oxygen and hydrogen
c. sulfur and carbon
d. ammonia and methane
e. carbon and hydrogen

Answers

Answer:

The aswer is letter E

Explanation:

Most to the origin of life was the carbon and hydrogen

Final answer:

Volcanic eruptions on early Earth likely produced the conditions necessary for the origin of life. The molecules present during this time contained nitrogen and methane.

Explanation:

The conditions on Earth around the time of the origin of life were likely produced by volcanic eruptions. The critical formation of small molecules needed for the origin of life were very different from those of today. The molecules present during this time contained nitrogen and methane, so the correct answer is a. nitrogen and methane.

Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a motor neuron at a single

Answers

Answer:

Neuromuscular joint

Explanation:

At the neuromuscular joint, an impulse is transmitted through the synaptic cleft. When an impulse reaches the synaptic knob, it stimulates the vesicles to move towards the presynaptic membrane releasing the acetylcholine. A resulting action potential is transmitted as a nerve impulse along the neuron.

An elk herd is observed over many generations. Most of the full-grown bull elk have antlers of nearly the same size, although a few have antlers that are significantly larger or smaller than this average size. The average antler size remains constant over the generations. Which of the following effects probably accounts for this situation?

Answers

Answer:

Stabilizing selection

Explanation:

Stabilizing selection can be described as a kind of natural selection in which a specific trait remains constant over generations and it is shown more than the other traits. We can say that stabilizing selection favours those traits that are seen to be in majority in a population. It does not support the extreme phenotypes. The stabilizing trait can also be known as the average trait of that particular population.

The fertilized egg is totipotent, which means: it forms the membranes that surround and support the developing embryo. it can give rise to a complete organism. it can be removed and donated to a surrogate womb. it only contains genetic material from the female. the Y chromosome does not create interference to the expression of X-linked genes.

Answers

Answer:

It can give rise to a complete organism.

Explanation:

The zygote is the product of the sexual reproduction formed by the union of the sperm and ova. The zygote is the diploid in nature whereas the gametes are haploid in nature.

The fertilized egg has the ability to differentiate into the different cell type. The single cell can give rise to all the different organ of the body is known as totipotency. The fertilized egg has the ability to give rise to the whole organisms and shows totipotency.

Thus, the correct answer is option (2).

Which layer of the alimentary canal contains not only glands and blood vessels but also a nerve plexus that helps regulate digestive activity? Group of answer choices serosa muscularis externa submucosa mucosa

Answers

Answer: The external submucosa I'd the layer of the alimentary canal that contain the blood vessels,glands and nerve plexus that help to regulate digestive activity.

Explanation:

The alimentary canal or gastrointestinal tracts is the organ in the body that helps to break down ingested food into pieces that can be absorbed by human body and expels unwanted food as wastes. The alimentary canal consists of structures from mouth to the anus. The alimentary canal have four distints layers which are the the mucosa, submucosa,muscular layer and serosa.

The mucosa is the inner layer of alimentary canal and it surrounds the lumen. This layer have direct contact with digested food.

The submucosa consists of dense connective tissues, blood vessers, glands and nerve plexus. It regulate digestive activity.

The muscular layer consists of inner circular layer and longitudinal circular layer. It prevents food from going backward.

The serosa is the external layer of the alimentary canal and iits have several connective tissues.

Final answer:

The submucosa is the layer of the alimentary canal containing glands, blood vessels, and the submucosal plexus that helps regulate digestive activity.

Explanation:

The layer of the alimentary canal that contains not only glands and blood vessels but also a nerve plexus responsible for regulating digestive activity is the submucosa. The submucosa layer consists of dense connective tissue that binds the overlying mucosa to the underlying muscularis. It includes blood and lymphatic vessels which facilitates the transport of absorbed nutrients. This layer also contains submucosal glands that release digestive secretions. Furthermore, the submucosa houses the submucosal plexus (plexus of Meissner), which is part of the enteric nervous system and plays a crucial role in regulating digestive secretions and responses to the presence of food.

The most likely explanation for the observation that round is dominant to wrinkled in Mendel's peas is
a. the wrinkled allele encodes a functional enzyme, the round allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the round trait could arise with only one functional gene for the enzyme.
b. the round allele has an uppercase letter.
c. the round allele poisons the wrinkled allele.
d. the wrinkled allele encodes a functional enzyme, the round allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the wrinkled trait could arise with only one functional gene for the enzyme.
e. the round allele encodes a functional enzyme, the wrinkled allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the round trait could arise with only one functional gene for the enzyme.

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is e) the round allele encodes a functional enzyme, the wrinkled allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the round trait could arise with only one functional allele for the enzyme.

Explanation:

The allele in a gene which suppresses the effect of the other allele is known as the dominant allele. The allele which gets masked by the dominant allele is called as a recessive allele.

As we can observe that only one allele was enough to show the round types, hence the round types should be considered dominant.

Both the alleles should be recessive for the wrinkled trait to occur. Hence, it is a recessive trait.

Comb jellies may not be the most familiar animal to you, but they are critical in the food chain because they make up a significant portion of the planktonic biomass. Their feeding strategy is predatory and involves adhesives or mucus on their tentacles or other body parts. What feeding tactic do these animals use?A) suspension feeder B) fluid feederC) deposit feederD) food-mass feeder

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is A) suspension feeder

Explanation:

In biological terms, suspension feeder can be described as an organism which has the ability to feed on the organic matter present in water. The comb jellies have mucus or adhesives on their tentacles which makes them better adapted to engulf food. The mucus or adhesives stick the organic particles from the water to the tentacles and other body parts of the comb jellies. The comb jellies then engulf these particles.

A power lifter has been advised by his coaches that he needs to lose some weight while still maintaining his rigorous training schedule. When evaluating this athlete's diet, which macronutrient will likely need to be monitored closely and possibly limited?
A. Fat
B. Carbohydrate
C. Protein
D. Water

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is A. Fat

Explanation:

Fat is one of the macronutrient that is present in our food and fat is accumulated in the body on the liver and in adipose tissue and provide storage form of energy to the body. So fat accumulation contributes to weight gain.  

Fats contributes to more calory per gram than other macronutrient like carbohydrates and proteins, therefore, reducing the amount of fat by taking low calory diet which have less fat amount is important to reduce weight.  

Therefore here to lose some weight by powerlifter fat will likely need to be monitored closely and possibly limited.

Microtubules contribute to each of the following except A) mitotic spindles. B) filopodial structure. C) the human red blood cell disklike shape. D) orientation of plant cellulose microfibrils. E) intracellular transport.

Answers

Option B) filopodial structure

Explanation:

The microtubules are made up of tubulin proteins and are hollow tubes that gives shape to the cell and organelle place in the cell. The movement of organelles occurs due to the transport function provided by the microtubules.  

Microtubules contribute to spindle apparatus involved at the time of cell division. The RBCs size is maintained by stiffness of microtubules. The microfibrils walls are arranged  parellely with cortical microtubules. The microtubules also function in intracellular transport of organelles and vesicles (membrane-bound). Thus, option b is correct.

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Which receptors is not a membrane receptor?

Answers

Final answer:

Intracellular receptors, such as steroid hormone receptors and thyroid hormone receptors, are examples of receptors that are not membrane receptors. They are located within the cell, as opposed to being on the cell's surface.

Explanation:

In biology, the types of receptors that are not categorized as membrane receptors are commonly called intracellular receptors. Unlike membrane receptors, which are located on the cell’s surface and interact with external signaling molecules, intracellular receptors are located inside the cell. Typical examples of intracellular receptors include steroid hormone receptors and thyroid hormone receptors. These receptors bind to hormones that have the ability to cross the cell membrane due to their lipid-soluble nature.

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Final answer:

Intracellular receptors are the type of receptors that are not membrane receptors. These receptors are housed inside the cell and bind to nonpolar molecules like steroids. In contrast, membrane receptors are located in the plasma membrane and interact with external ligand molecules.

Explanation:

In the context of cell biology, the receptors that are not membrane receptors are called intracellular receptors. These types of receptors are located within the cell rather than on its membrane. One example is the steroid hormone receptor. Molecules that are nonpolar, such as steroids, can diffuse across the cell membrane and bind to these intracellular receptors. The receptor-ligand complex then moves to the nucleus and interacts with cellular DNA, influencing gene expression. On the other hand, cell-surface receptors or membrane receptors are embedded in the plasma membrane of the cell. They interact with external ligand molecules and are involved in signal transduction processes that convert external signals into intracellular ones.

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The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that _____.

Answers

Answer:

Differentiated cells retain all the genes they had before development

Explanation:

Plant cells have the ability to keep their plasticity and development potentialities after fully develop, this means that they can dedifferentiate and assume different cellular phenotypes. This differentiation responds to endogenous stimuli modifying the gene program of the cell resulting in whichever cell the researches want, this makes possible the somatic cloning.

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When applying rigid-body mechanics to the study of human beings, which assumption is made?A. All of the above are assumed.B. The body does not deform by bending, stretching, or compressing.C. The body deforms by bending, stretching, or compressing.D. The segments are flexible links.E. The joints provide friction during movement.

Answers

When applying rigid-body mechanics to the study of human beings, the assumption made is Option B.The body does not deform by bending, stretching, or compressing.

Explanation:  

Rigid body mechanics is a body in which the gap between any two points will be constant in time, despite of external forces. The body cannot be deformed at any circumstances be it under application of any force. The forces acting over the body gets divided into two groups one is external, which shows the action of different bodies on the rigid body under force and internal force that binds the body together making it rigid. Body changes its motion only in case of pull against some external object.

A particular recessive genetic disorder is fatal before birth, so there are no homozygous recessive individuals. In a particular population, one in 15 individuals is a carrier for this disorder. What are the allele frequencies of the dominant (p) and recessive (q) alleles in this population?
A) p = 1.0, q = 0.0B) p = 0.933, q = 0.067C) p = 0.955, q = 0.045D) p = 0.967, q = 0.033

Answers

Answer:

The answer is letter D.

Explanation:

The allele frequencies of the dominant population is: p = 0.967

And the recessive population is: q= 0.033.

What are zinc fingers, and why are they frequently encountered in descriptions of genetic regulation in eukaryotes?

Answers

Answer:

A zinc finger is also known as zinc-binding repeats or ZnF that are molecular scaffold which is characterized by the coordination of Zn²⁺ ions so it can stabilize the fold.

The zinc fingers consist of several amino acid sequence 2 histidine and 2 cysteine residues at intervals. These residues bind to the zinc atom covalently and form finger-like motifs.

They are a major family of eukaryotic transcription factors. These are identified in a significant regulatory state such as developmental control genes and proto-oncogene by binding to the DNA, RNA, or protein.

whats a longer way to say Photosynthesis

Answers

Answer:

Well there is a equation of photosynthesis:6CO2 + 6H20 + (energy) → C6H12O6 + 6O2

Explanation:

Other Questions
Trials in an experiment with a polygraph include 96 results that include 22 cases of wrong results and 74 cases of correct results. Use a 0.01 significance level to test the claim that such polygraph results are correct less than 80% of the time Based on the results should polygraph test results be prohibited as evidence in trials? Identify the null hypothesis, alternative hypothesis, test statistics, p value, conclusion about null hypotheses and final conclusion that address the original claim. Use the p value methos. Use the normal distribution as an approximation of the binomial distribution. A. I dentify the Null and alternative hypothesis B. The test staistic is z= (round to two decimals) C. The P value is=( rounds to four decimals) D. Identify the conclusion about the null hypotheses and the final conclusion that address the original claim. Choose (fail to reject, reject) h0. There choose(is, is not) sufficient evidence to support the claim that the polygraph result are correct less than 80% of time. answer H0: P 0.80 Ha: P < 0.80 Estimated p = 74 / 98 = 0.7551 Variance of proportion = p*(1-p)/n = 0.8(0.2)/98 =0.0016327 S.D. of p is sqrt[0.001633] = 0.0404 z = ( 0.7551 - 0.8 ) / 0.0404 = -1.1112 P-value = P( z < -1.1112) = 0.1335 Since the p-value is greater than 0.05, we do not reject the null hypothesis. Based on the results there is no evidence that polygraph test results should be prohibited as evidence in trials. 20 points for this question:Find the domain. When the concentration of PCl3(g) is increased to 1.2 M, the ratio of products to reactants is 4.0. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is 24. In which direction will the reaction shift to regain equilibrium? toward the reactants toward the products After watching a news story about a man struck by lightning on a golf course, you decide that you will never play golf to avoid being struck yourself. What is this thinking strategy called? (Temperature is negative) How many liters of NO2 (at STP) can be produced from 149 grams of Cu reacting with concentrated nitric acid, HNO3 (aq)?(The equation is balanced) Cu + 4 HNO3 Cu(NO3) 2 + 2 H2O + 2 NO263.55, 63.02, 187.57, 18.02, 46.01^ g/mol A woman is 1.6 m tall and has a mass of 50 kg. She moves past an observer with the direction of the motion parallel to her height. The observer measures her relativistic momentum to have a magnitude of 2.1 1010 kgm/s. What does the observer measure for her height? In macroeconomics courses in the 1960s and early 1970s, some economists argued that one of the U.S. political parties was willing to have higher unemployment in order to achieve lower inflation and that the other major political party was willing to have higher inflation in order to achieve lower unemployment. Such views of the trade-off between inflation and unemployment might have existed in the 1960s because the Phillips curve was widely viewed as A. upward sloping. B. vertical. C. stable. D. horizontal. Such views are rare today because A. both political parties agree that higher inflation is acceptable if it means lower unemployment. B. the Phillips curve has been found to be upward sloping. C. in the long run there is no tradeoff between inflation and unemployment. D. the Phillips curve is viewed as a policy menu and a stable relationship. Tom simplified an expression in three steps, as shown:Which is the first incorrect step and why? Step 1, all the exponents are increased by 4 Step 2, the exponents of the same base are added during multiplication Step 3, the exponents of the same base are subtracted during division Step 3, all the exponents are added during division What is the standard to slope intercept form 4x - 4y = -8 Which expression is equivalent to3(x + 6)?F. x + 3 + 6G. 3x + 6H. x+6J. 3x + 18 The price of an item yesterday was $140. Today, the price fell to $91. Find the percentage decrease. Which of the following statements are true? A. Heat is converted completely into work during isothermal expansion. B. Isothermal expansion is reversible under ideal conditions. C. During the process of isothermal expansion, the gas does more work than during an isobaric expansion (at constant pressure) between the same initial and final volumes.WHAT I KNOW:Curve C= Isothermal process and A=Isobaric processThe first law of thermodynamics is a form of conservation of energy where the change of internal energy of a closed system will be equal to the energy added to the system minus work done by the system on its surroundings. deltaU=Q-W. Isothermal process is when the temperature doesnt change and the system is in contact with a heat reservoir. delta U=0 b/c because temperature is constant so the first law can be rewritten as Q=W, because Q=W that means #1 is true, right?.I think that the process could be reversible if heat is added or lost? which would make #2 true..?Work can be calulated by equation W=PdeltaV or by the area under the PV diagram curve. so is #3 false? How do sulfonylureas and meglitinides help to lower blood glucose levels? A) Promoting beta cell secretion of insulin B) Decreasing the insulin sensitivity of the receptor cell C) Increasing glucose formation from liver glycogen D) Decreasing deamination of protein Melissa is purchasing a $160,000 home and her bank is offering her a 30-year mortgage at a 4.9% interest rate. In order to lower her monthly payment, Melissa will make a 20% down payment and will purchase 3 points. What will her monthly mortgage payment be? The relationship of structure to function is one of the major themes in biology. For three of the following structure/function pairs, describe the structure and then explain how the function is related to the structure. a. enzyme structure/catalysis b. mRNA structure/protein synthesis c. cell membrane structure/signal transduction d. membrane protein structurelactive transport or facilitated diffusion The Art Nouveau style was reflected in all of the following EXCEPT: Question 7 options: A) Paris subway stations B) English Mens suits C) Italian posters D) American Magazine covers An atom has 8 protons, 9 neutrons and 8 electrons. What is the mass of this atom?Question 11 options:8 amu9 amu17 amu16 amu Giving 33 points ^^ will give brainly :P A bullet fired from a pistol with a barrel of 0.30 m travels at 800.0 m/s determine the time it takes the bullet to travel down barrel Recent research has demonstrated a correlation between the presence of certain types of Gram-positive bacteria in the human gut with obesity and type 2 diabetes. These findings best support which of the following statements?a. Normal microbiota may significantly impact human health and diseaseb. The presence of Gram-positive bacteria in the human gut causes obesity and type 2 diabetesc. Gram-positive bacteria compose the majority of normal microbiota in the human gut of people with obesity and type 2 diabetes.d. Obesity and type 2 diabetes are caused by normal microbiota in the human gut A simple harmonic oscillator consists of a block of mass 4.10 kg attached to a spring of spring constant 240 N/m. When t = 1.70 s, the position and velocity of the block are x = 0.165 m and v = 3.780 m/s. (a) What is the amplitude of the oscillations? What were the (b) position and (c) velocity of the block at t = 0 s?