Answer:
The correct option is c. The sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex are located in carotid sinus and aortic arch.
Explanation:
Baroreceptors are primary sensors (or mechanosensitive nerve endings) that detect distention in vascular walls and are stimulated by mechanical deformations during blood vessel stretching. They are located in the carotid sinus and the aortic arch. The stretching the vessel walls at any of these locations causes vasodilation and bradycardia. The baroreceptors detect the stretching of the vessels due to changes in blood pressure, through them a more efficient control of blood pressure is achieved.
The sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex are found in the carotid sinus and aortic arch. They are responsible for detecting changes in blood pressure and initiating a response to maintain blood pressure homeostasis.
Explanation:The sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch. Baroreceptors are specialized stretch receptors within the walls of these vessels that respond to changes in blood pressure. When there is an increase in blood pressure, these receptors are stretched more and their rate of firing to the cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata increases. This leads to adjustments in heart rate and blood vessel dilation/constriction to maintain blood pressure homeostasis.
These baroreceptor sites are critical for the baroreceptor reflex, which adjusts blood flow and pressure by changing the balance of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system actions on the heart and blood vessels. With increased pressure and stretch, the cardiovascular center decreases sympathetic stimulation and increases parasympathetic stimulation, and vice versa when pressure and stretch decrease.
Learn more about arterial baroreceptor reflex here:https://brainly.com/question/32875790
#SPJ6
Which of the following environmental conditions would be MOST likely to result in transcription of the lac
operon in an E. coli cell?
A
low levels of lactose and high levels of glucose
B high levels of lactose and high levels of cyclic AMP
C
ow levels of lactose and low levels of cyclic AMP
D
high levels of lactose and high levels of glucose
Answer:
The correct answer is B high levels of lactose and high levels of cyclic AMP.
Explanation:
Lac operon contain 3 regulatory genes and 3 structural genes.In presence of lactose the repressor molecule that is encoded by Lac I gene cannot bound to the operator region.
Bacause the lactose interact with the repressor and change its conformation so that it cannot repress the expression of the structural genes of lac operon.
On the other hand cyclic AMP is a positive regulator of lac operon .The interaction of cyclic AMP with the promoter region of lac operon stimulates the binding of RNA polymerase in the promoter region to boost the expression of structural genes of lac operon such as Lac Z,Lac Y and Lac A.
Answer:
B. high levels of lactose and high levels of cyclic AMP
Explanation:
Just wanted to confirm. The explanation above me is correct.
Which part of the government has authority to enforce the Clean Water Act?
U.S. Forest Service
Congress
the president
the Environmental Protection Agency
Answer:
The Environmental Protection Agency
Explanation:
Answer:
Which part of the government has authority to enforce the clean water act? 4.- The Environmental ProtectionAgency
Explanation:
The 1972 amendments stablished that the Environmental Protection Agency was the responsible authority to supervise the Clean Water measures it developed. It was not the first time the government had established laws about it. However, the expansion of the amendments structured the modern system. Providing guidelines for water quality, standards and also to the acts of anyone that acted against the water state and condition. Qualifying them as polluters and criminals. It is known as the Clean Water law, amendment.
Which of the following is an example of biological mechanical action (or weathering?) A. Rocks breaking into smaller pieces due to growing salt crystals in their pores. B. Potholes forming on roads when water inside pavement joints freezes and expands. C. The heating and cooling of minerals inside rocks, fracturing them. D. Tree roots from a tree next to a sidewalk growing underneath it and uplifting and cracking the sidewalk. E. Acid and rain water producing an acidic solution that disintegrates gravestones.
Answer:
D. Tree roots from a tree next to a sidewalk growing underneath it and cracking the sidewalk.
Explanation:
This type of action is a biological weathering.
When one DNA molecule is copied to maketwo DNA molecules, the new DNA containsA) 75% of the parent DNA.B) 25% of the parent DNA.C) 100% of the parent DNA.D) none of the parent DNA.E) 50% of the parent DNA..
B) 100% of the parent because when DNA copies itself, everything is replicated exactly.
Susan, a mother with type B blood, has a child with type O blood. She claims that Craig, who has type A blood, is the father. He claims that he cannot possibly be the father. Further blood tests ordered by the judge reveal that Craig is AA. The judge rules that
Answer:
Craig is right and doesn't have to pay child support.
Explanation:
The complete question is
Susan, a mother with Type B blood, has a child with Type O blood. She claims that Craig, who has Type A blood, is the father. He claims that he cannot possibly be the father. Further blood tests ordered by the judge reveal that Craig is AA. The judge rules that:
a. Susan is right and Craig must pay child support
b. Craig is right and doesn't have to pay child support
c. Susan cannot be the real mother of the child; there must have been an error made at the hospital
d. it is impossible to reach a decision based on the limited data available
The blood type of a child is determined by the blood type of the parents, and the rules are as given in the attached diagram.Based on these rules, it can be observed that a person with type O blood group must have the genotype OO and from this, it can be concluded that both the parents must carry an O allele. Since the blood typing has revealed that Craig is AA, he can't be the father of the child and hence, he doesn't have to pay child support.You might infer from packages of commercial fertilizer that which nutrients are most limiting to plant growth?
a. hydrogen, phosphorus, and magnesium
b. carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorous
c. phosphorus, potassium, and calcium
d. iron, magnesium, and nitrogen
e. nitrogen, phosphorous, and potassium
Which of the following hypotheses is the best predictor of tree species diversity?
A. Species richness will related to temperature and potential evapotranspiration
B. Species richness will be related to precipitation
C. Species richness will be related to actual evapotranspiration.
D. Tree species richness is related to mammal species richness.
Tree species diversity is influenced by a combination of factors including temperature, evapotranspiration, and precipitation. Although each of the given hypotheses could predict tree species richness under certain conditions, it's important to consider the specific ecosystem. In science, hypotheses are tested and evaluated based on evidence, rather than ranked.
Explanation:Determining which of the following hypotheses is the best predictor of tree species diversity can be complex because it largely depends on the particular ecosystem being considered. Nonetheless, species richness is generally influenced by a combination of biotic and abiotic factors, including temperature, precipitation, and availability of resources.
Hypothesis A, which posits that species richness is related to temperature and potential evapotranspiration, is a viable predictor as these factors can influence where species can thrive. Similarly, Hypothesis B, which suggests species richness is related to precipitation, is also a considerable predictor because water availability is crucial for plant survival. Hypothesis C, which connects species richness to actual evapotranspiration, could also be strongly predictive because it ties into the available energy and water in the ecosystem. Lastly, Hypothesis D, which claims that tree species richness is related to mammal species richness, could have less predictive power as it is more dependent on complex interactions between different species and might not directly relate to tree species richness.
However, it's important to note that in science, hypotheses are not ranked as best or worst, but rather, they are tested to determine if they are supported or not by the evidence.
Learn more about Tree species diversity here:https://brainly.com/question/9874769
#SPJ12
All of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry are true, except
1. radiation dose is considerable.
2. two x-ray photon energies are used.
3. photon attenuation by bone is calculated.
Answer:
Option (1).
Explanation:
Dual x-ray absorptiometry technique is used for the evaluation of the bone mineral density. The bone densitometry is normally used in this technique to estimate the mineral content of bone.
The radiation dose in the absorptiometry is considerable and only small or low amount of radiation dose is considered. The heavy dose may cause health problems in the individual. The photon energies are used for the bone and soft tissue. The treatment of osteoporesis can be done by this technique.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
Proton flow through the ATP synthase enzyme
A. provides the energy for adding a phosphate to ADP to make ATP. results in the release of ATP from its tightly bound state in the active site.
B. produces local pH changes in the active site which alter the equilibrium constant for the reaction.
C. provides the free energy needed for ADP to bind to the enzyme.
The flow of hydrogen ions through the ATP synthase enzyme provides the energy for adding a phosphate to ADP to make ATP.
Explanation:The flow of hydrogen ions through the ATP synthase enzyme provides the energy for adding a phosphate to ADP to make ATP. The energy released by the hydrogen ion stream allows ATP synthase to attach a third phosphate group to ADP, forming a molecule of ATP. This process is called chemiosmosis, as the hydrogen ions move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through ATP synthase.
Which of the following organisms would have the HIGHEST predicted gene density (most genes per megabase of DNA) in genomic DNA?A. ChickenB. E. coli bacteriaC. MouseD. Human
Answer: E.coli bacteria has the highest predicted gene density in genomic DNA.
Explanation:
Gene density of an organism in a genomic DNA is the ratio of the number of genes per number of base pair, it is written in megabase. Bacteria DNA has a higher gene density ranging from 500-1000/mb. This is because bacteria DNA has no introns and few codons in their gene. Humans has a gene density of 12-15gene/mb. The chicken karoytype has 6pairs of large macrochromosomes and 33 pairs of smaller microchromosomes.
In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, what do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common?
Answer:
The correct answer is - position of the centromere, length, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes
Explanation:
The two chromosomes that are present in a pair of autosomes that are 22 in numbers in human and one sex-linked chromosome that is not like other autosomes.
Any two chromosomes of a pair of chromosomes like chromosome 14 are similar in shape and size, the staining pattern of both the chromosomes and the most important traits that they code for the same trait.
Thus, the correct answer is - position of the centromere, length, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes.
A population of scarab beetles has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.8 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.5. Estimate the number of individuals added to or lost from a population of 1,000 individuals in one year. Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. 3,000 individuals added 50 individuals lost 300 individuals added 30 individuals added 500 individuals lost
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Given the annual per capita birth rate is [tex]0.8[/tex]
Annual per capita death rate is [tex]0.8[/tex]
Net per capita growth or reduction in the population will be equal to the difference between the birth rate and death rate.
Hence, net per capita increase in the population is equal to
[tex]0.8 -0.5\\=0.3[/tex]
Thus, the total number of individuals added to the population of 1000 is equal to
[tex]0.3 * 1000\\= 300[/tex]
Hence, option C is correct
_________ threshold is also called the ________ threshold, the point at which lactic acid produced in muscles begins to accumulate in the blood. It defines the upper limit that can be sustained _________.
Answer:
1. Anaerobic
2. lactate
3. Aerobically
Explanation:
During excessive muscular activities such as a marathon, lactate fermentation occurs in muscles to serve as a source of ATP to sustain muscle contraction. The lactate produced during lactate fermentation is removed aerobically from muscles. Lactate threshold or anaerobic threshold refers to the intensity of physical activity that produces the blood lactate at a fast rate than its removal.
Increased intensity of exercise or physical activity increases lactate production. As the intensity reaches the point at which lactate cannot be removed from the body fast enough, it is accumulated and causes fatigue in muscles. Therefore, the lactate threshold is the upper limit that can be sustained aerobically by the body without any accumulation of lactate.
What factor of phylogenies enable us to determine that all terrestrial mammals are quadrupedal (walk on all four legs) except humans, the one bipedal twig on the many branches of the mammalian tree?
Answer:
Common ancestor is the main factor that determines that all terrestrial animals are quadrupedal.
Explanation:
Phylogeny means the evolution of the organisms or genetically related organism and how they are related. The study of phylogeny is called as phylogenetics. Terrestrial means those who live on land. Mammals are one who gives birth to their offspring directly. They are generally warm-blooded, breath air. Studying each state of the ancestor and also tracing the organism characteristics during evolution.All the offspring of a cross between a tall pea plant and a dwarf pea plant are tall. This means that the allele for tall plants is ________ the allele for dwarf plants.
Answer:
All the offspring of a cross between a tall pea plant and a dwarf pea plant are tall. This means that the allele for tall plants is DOMINANT OVER the allele for dwarf plants.
Explanation:
Mendel's law of dominance state that the heterozygous genotype expresses only one allele of a gene out of the two alleles present together. The allele that is expressed in a heterozygous genotype is said to be the dominant one as it does not allow the expression of another allele of the gene.
The allele of a gene that is not expressed in the presence of its dominant allele is said to be the recessive one. Under such conditions, a heterozygous genotype expresses the dominant phenotype. When a tall and dwarf pea plants are crossed, all the F1 progeny is tall. This means that the allele for the tallness is dominant over the allele for the dwarfism.
Crossing over often occurs during prophase. How could scientists use an easy to measure trait that is linked to the gene responsible for a certain genetic condition to locate the disease causing gene?
Answer:
Crossing over is the phenomena of the exchange of the genetic material between the non sister chromatid of the homologous chromosomes. The crossing over results in the formation of recombinant progeny.
Linked traits are close to each other and present on the same chromosome. The linked traits that are very close to each other and will not separate by the process of crossing over. This information is used to locate the disease condition.
In a particular environment there is plenty of food, water, cover, and space to support a large population of pheasants, but a larger quantity of predators are introduced. The predators become the _______ for pheasants in that environment.a. carrying capacity.b. abiotic factor.c. limiting factor.d. biotic factor
Answer:
c. limiting factor.
Explanation:
The limiting factors are environmental or ecological factors that act directly on the living beings of a population, limiting their size, since these factors determine their birth, mortality, migrations, etc. They are the ones that regulate the growth and expansion of a species.
If environmental factors are optimal for the development of a living being, they favor the growth of that organism in that biotope. But if any of these factors prevents the growth of a species, there is talk of a limiting factor.
Among these physical and chemical factors that determine the biotope include:
- Abiotic factors (do not depend on population density):
Climate:
Light. Only the most superficial organisms access it in water. On land, there is also competition in leafy areas to access it.
Temperature. Some living beings cannot live at the temperature that others live.
Water: It is necessary that it rains or that living beings can access water in order to live. If there is no water, they die.
Atmospheric pressure.
Non-climatic:
Soil factors: The chemical composition of the soil, its pH, salinity, etc. It makes some plant species may or may not survive in it.
Factors of the aquatic environment: The concentration of O2, dissolved CO2, the degree of salinity, the existence of currents, etc., limits the development of some organisms.
- Biotic factors (depend on population density):
Food. If they do not have enough food, the population will have to be smaller.
Interspecific relationships. The number of predators limits the number of prey, and vice versa.
Intraspecific relationships. The relationships established between individuals of the same species can also limit their existence.
Answer:its c
Explanation: on edg
A is a DNA sequence where RNA polymerase binds and begins the process of transcription. A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription. A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that inhibit transcription. is the protein complex that is part of the RNA interference (RNAi) mechanism. It denatures short double-stranded RNAs to single strands that carry out RNAi. is the enzyme complex that is active in RNAi, where it cuts double-stranded regulatory RNAs into 21-bp to 26-bp segments that are subsequently denatured by RISC.
Answer:
A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription.
Explanation:
Background Knowledge:
DNA contains genes which is a particular segment of DNA. A gene usually has regulatory regions and a structural region.
Promoter: The regulatory region located to the 5 prime end of coding strand of the gene which is called as promoter that controls the binding RNA Polymerase during transcription.
The Terminator is the other regulatory region, located to the 3 prime end of coding strand of the gene. The terminator region causes RNA polymerase to stop transcription.
Structural region is the region present between the promoter and terminator.
Answer of the question is:
A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription.
Transcription is initiated at a promoter, where RNA polymerase binds, and regulated by transcription factors that act as activators or repressors. Enhancers and repressors control the transcription process by modifying DNA structure or affecting RNA polymerase activity.
Explanation:Transcription is initiated at a specific DNA sequence known as the promoter, which is found upstream of the gene it regulates. A promoter is crucial because it determines the exact location where RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription, starting the synthesis of RNA from the DNA template. The formation of this initiation complex involves unwinding the DNA to create a transcription bubble, where the DNA strand is read and transcribed into mRNA.
Transcription is also regulated by transcription factors, which can function as either activators or repressors. These regulatory proteins bind to sequences known as regulatory elements near the promoter. Activator proteins enhance the interaction between RNA polymerase and the promoter, facilitating transcription, while repressors inhibit this process, thereby impeding RNA synthesis. Methylation and DNA-bending due to protein interactions also play a role in facilitation and control of these regulative actions.
Enhancers and repressors influence transcription by altering the DNA's shape or by recruiting other regulatory elements to control the availability and activity of RNA polymerase at the promoter region. The overall regulatory mechanisms ensure that transcription is precise and responsive to the cell's needs, allowing for efficient and controlled gene expression.
A normal chromosome and its homolog carrying an inversion are given. The dot (•) represents the centromere. Normal: M N • O P Q R S T Inversion: M Q P O • N R S T What type of inversion is present and what is the name of the structure that will form during synapsis?
Answer:
Pericentric, inversion loop.
Explanation:
Chromosomal inversion may be defined as the rearrangement of chromosome that may get reversed and attached. Two main types of inversion are pericentric inversion and paracentric inversion.
The pericentric inversion involves the inversion of chromsome and centromere is involved in this inversion. M Q P O • N R S T , in this case centromere is present and shows the pericentric inversion. The structure that forms during the synapsis is known as inversion loop.
Thus, the answer is pericentric, inversion loop.
Which of the following is NOT considered part of the body's nonspecific lines of defense against disease?A) antibodiesB) mucous membranesC) intact skinD) bloodborne chemicalsE) phagocytic cells
Answer:
The answer is A. Antibodies!
Explanation:
The following is not considered part of the body's nonspecific lines of defense against disease antibodies. The correct option is A.
What are antibodies?In response to infection, the immune system creates antibodies, which are proteins. They play a crucial role in the body's defense mechanism by eliminating pathogens (such as viruses or bacteria) and preventing them from invading human cells.
The second layer of protection then deals with pathogens that get past the physical barriers. Immune cells and proteins are mostly used in this innate immune response to broadly recognize and get rid of any pathogen that enters the body.
Thus, the correct option is A. antibodies.
To learn more about antibodies, refer to the below link:
https://brainly.com/question/24321118
#SPJ2
A simple nervous system has information flow in only one direction:
a) toward an integrating center.
b) has information flow in only one direction: away from an integrating center.
c) includes sensory information, an integrating center, and effectors.
d) must include chemical senses and vision.
e) includes sensory information but no effectors.
Answer:
The correct option is a) toward an integrating center.
Explanation:
A simple nervous system has information flow in only one direction: toward an integrating center. The integrating center is a part of our central nervous system (formed by the brain and spinal cord) that is responsible for receiving stimulations from the afferent pathway, that is, it's where the afferent or sensory information is centralized and the adequate response is elaborated, so through one or multiple synapses communicate it with the efferent pathway, through this pathway composed of nerve fibers, the information travels to the effect organ, which is responsible for manifesting the final response.
what bond holds each amino acid together to make a protein?
Answer:
PEPTIDE BOND.
Explanation:
Amino acids can link with each other through a peptide bond to form a protein or polypeptide .
this is a condensation reaction that involves the elimination of water molecule.i.e a H2O molecule is produced in this reaction.
the peptide linkage occurs when the OH group of acidic side of one amino acid reacts with the H-atom of the other amino acid and C-N link to form a bond called a PEPTIDE BOND.
Give a brief explanation of why food webs are preferred over food chains for representing the flow of energy in an ecosystem.
Need help asap
If a biological father has little to do with his biological offspring, and instead spends most of his time with his sister’s children who call him by a term meaning "father" rather than "uncle," the descent system of these people is most likely_______.
If a biological father has little to do with his biological offspring, and instead spends most of his time with his sister’s children who call him by a term meaning "father" rather than "uncle," the descent system of these people is most likely Matrilineal.
Explanation:
Matrilineal is made up of two words ‘Matri’ means mother ‘lineal’ means link or ancestry. So matrilineal means the generation of people that origin or come before a person i.e. female. Matrilineal means maintaining the generation through the mother-line rather than father-line.
In matrilineal family relationship can be record through female. Tradition that that follows to give mother last name to children is a matrilineal tradition. This type of tradition is found in countries like Ghana, Indonesia, Cameroon, Malaysia, Costa Rica, and India etc. Akon, Alor, Betek, Bribri, Billava, Garo are some groups that follows the matrilineal tradition.
You identify a new fish species in the UCSB pond. The fish is diploid and shows 40 chromosomes in its somatic cells. Following mitosis, each daughter cell will have ____ chromosomes. After meiosis I, each daughter cell has ___ chromosomes, each formed by _____ chromatid(s). After meiosis II, each daughter cell is ___.
Answer:
40 chromosomes, 20 chromosomes, 2 chromatids, haploid
Explanation:
Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. The fish is a diploid with 40 chromosomes (80 chromatids), after the separation of sister chromatids during the anaphase of mitosis, each sister chromatid becomes a chromosome i.e 40 chromatids (chromosome) each moves to the opposite poles and after the cell divides (cytokinesis), each daughter cell will have 40chromosomes each.
Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in four daughter cells with each having half of the parental number of chromosomes. It involves two divisions; Meiosis I and Meiosis II
In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes lie side by side to form a structure called tetrad or bivalent consisting of 4 chromatids. During anaphase I, 20 chromosomes are pulled apart to each pole with each chromosome containing 2 chromatids. After cytokinesis in meiosis I, each of the two cells will have 20 chromosomes (40 chromatids) i.e 1 chromosome = 2 chromatids
At the end of meiosis II, which is similar to mitosis, chromatids are pulled apart and each becomes a chromosome, meaning 20 chromatids will be separated to each pole and become 20 chromosomes in each cell after cytokinesis. Since the parental organism was a diploid with 40 chromosomes, and the resulting daughter cells now have 20 chromosomes each, it shows that the chromosomal number has been reduced by half. 2n ---- n
Diploid organism produce haploid daughter cells
In an asexually reproducing organism it is expected that the offspring will be genetically identical to the parent. However, in one particular event of asexual reproduction the offspring was found to be differing from the parent. The reason behind this could be __________.
Answer:
Mutation
Explanation:
I believe it is a mutation. A mutation is when the DNA is copied with a small mistake. Ex: AGCC => AGGC
Then, after a mutation, the DNA isn’t exactly identical because of this mistake in the DNA after copied.
I hope this helped! Happy Thanksgiving! GOBBLE GOBBLE!
Match each vocabulary word with its definition. 1 . photosynthesis the process of burning in the presence of oxygen 2 . nucleus a nucleus surrounded by electrons 3 . combustion a process that splits the atom 4 . fission central part of an atom 5 . solar energy capacity for doing work 6 . atom process that plants produce sugar 7 . energy energy from the sun
Answer:
1. Photosynthesis: process that plants produce sugar
2. Nucleus: central part of an atom
3. Combustion: the process of burning in the presence of oxygen
4. Fission: a process that split atom
5. Solar energy: energy from the sun
6. Atom: a nucleus surrounded by electron
7. Energy: capacity for doing work
Explanation:
1. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, some bacteria and some protistans use the energy from sunlight to produce glucose(sugar) from carbon dioxide and water
2. The protons and neutrons cluster together in the central part of the atom, called the nucleus
3. Combustion is the process of burning something.
4. Fission is a nuclear reaction or a radioactive decay process in which the nucleus of an atom splits into two or more smaller, lighter nuclei.
5. Solar is a form of energy gotten from the sun.
6. Atom: every atom is composed of a nucleus and one or more electrons bound to the nucleus.
7. Energy is the ability to do work
Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase, hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute(s) to the ability of S. aureus to invade the body?
A) coagulase
B) enterotoxin
C) hemolysin
D) hyaluronidase
E) coagulase and hemolysin
Answer:
A) coagulase
Explanation:
Diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus may be due to direct tissue invasion, or exclusively due to toxins produced.
The mechanism of invasion of S. aureus, in the first moment, depends directly on the fact that this bacterium adheres to the skin or mucosa, thanks to coagulase (a component of the cell surface that ensures adherence to the epithelia), to then break through the barriers of the epithelium, compromising intercellular link structures, as desmosomes and adhesion joints.
After invasion of the epithelium, S. aureus uses several strategies to enable their survival and proliferation in the host organism, corresponding to the other virulence factors.
When Casey opens her eyes in the morning she sees a photograph by her bedside. At that point, her eyes are receiving light energy. Her eyes then change the light energy into neural messages for the brain to process. This conversion of one form of energy into another is called:
Answer:
This conversion of one form of energy to another is called energy transformation.
Explanation:
Eye is one of the most important sensory organ of our body that helps in the perception of light.
When we see a light at that time light energy is converted into neural messages and then carried to the brain by ophthalmic nerve for processing.
Here the law of conservation of energy is maintained which states that energy cannot be created nor destroyed, energy can only be transformed.
how do inselbergs develop
Inselbergs arise from rocks which erode at a slower rate than that of the surrounding rocks