where is earths next ocean most likely to form

Answers

Answer 1
Red Sea/East Africa. It is the only place on Earth where a rift zone isn't already under an ocean. IE here new basaltic crust is being created while continental landmasses are being pushed away from the rift.

Related Questions

After Frida stops exercising, she continues to breathe heavily. What is most likely occurring in her body? Heavy breathing during exercise has produced an oxygen surplus in her muscles. This oxygen is being transported to her lungs. This is a result of aerobic respiration. Heavy breathing during exercise has produced a carbon dioxide surplus in her muscles. Lactate is being transported to her liver. This is a result of aerobic respiration. Strenuous exercise has caused her body to be in carbon dioxide debt, and she is breathing hard while lactate is transported to the liver. This is a result of anaerobic respiration. Strenuous exercise has caused her body to be in oxygen debt, and she is breathing hard while lactate is transported to the liver. This is a result of anaerobic respiration.

Answers

anaerobic respiration

Final answer:

Frida's heavy breathing after exercise indicates her body is trying to pay off an 'oxygen debt' incurred by ATP production during vigorous muscle activity. This is possible due to anaerobic respiration wherein the body, demanding a high oxygen intake, continues with an escalated breathing rate post-exercise until the oxygen debt is repaid.

Explanation:

Following intense exercise, the heavy breathing that Frida continues to experience is a result of her body trying to repay an oxygen debt. Oxygen debt is created during intense muscle activity, where ATP - the primary source of energy for cellular reactions - is produced without oxygen during muscle contraction. This is due to a process called anaerobic respiration.

To restore ATP and creatine phosphate levels, convert lactic acid to pyruvic acid, and in the liver, to convert lactic acid into glucose or glycogen, a substantial amount of oxygen is required. These processes all contribute to the increased breathing rate even after exercise has stopped. The body continues to demand a high intake of oxygen until the oxygen debt is repaid.

Thus, the scenario described represents an instance of anaerobic respiration following a strenuous exercise that led Frida's body to fall into an oxygen debt, thereby causing a high breathing rate, with lactate being transported to the liver after the exercise completed.

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Identify the region of the humerus that articulates with the ulna. head capitulum medial epicondyle trochlea

Answers

The correct answer is the trochlea. The trochlea is a protuberation on the distal humerous that attaches on the trochlear notch of the ulna. The trochlear notch is formed on the proximal head of the ulna; the attachment of the trochlea of the humerus to the trochlear notch forms a hinge joint.

Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between blood and tissue cells is the primary function of _____. question 4 options:

Answers

This describes the function of the capillaries. Capillaries are the smallest of the body's blood vessels. They are one cell thick, and are the sites of the transfer of oxygen and other nutrients from the bloodstream to other tissues in the body. Additionally they collect carbon dioxide, waste materials and fluids for return to the veins. They connect the tiny muscular branches of arteries called arterioles, with tiny veins called venules. 

VO2max is

A. a test used to help people lose unwanted weight.
B. the highest level of oxygen consumption that can be sustained during exercise.
C. a measurement of how much blood the heart pumps during exercise.
D. not a good test of cardiorespiratory fitness.

Answers

VO2max is the highest level of oxygen consumption that can be sustained during exercise.

The Neanderthal skeleton known as the "old man" showed evidence of many injuries over a long life. Several broken bones had healed, and almost all of his teeth had fallen out. What does this most likely indicate?
A. Neanderthal bones were very delicate and easily broken.
B. The Neanderthals practiced cannibalism.
C. The Neanderthals cared for the wounded and the elderly.
D. The Neanderthals ate a lot of sugary foods, causing tooth decay.

Answers

The answer is C: The Neanderthals cared for the wounded and the elderly. The fact that the skeleton showed signs of broken bones that had healed indicated that the individual had been nurtured back to health after injury. The loss of teeth showed that the individual had lived to an old age.

The given scenario indicates that the Neanderthals practiced cannibalism. The correct option is C.

What is cannibalism?

Cannibalism, also known as anthropophagy, is the consumption of human flesh by humans. The term is derived from the Spanish name (Carbales, or Canbales) for the Carib, a West Indian tribe famous for cannibalism.

It has since been expanded to include individuals of a species who consume individuals of the same species. Anthropophagy literally means "man-eater," so it is limited to humans.

Archaeologists from France and the United States discovered clear evidence of cannibalism.

"This is conclusive evidence that at least some Neanderthals practiced cannibalism," said paleontologist and integrative biology professor Tim White.

Thus, as there are several broken bones had healed, and almost all of his teeth had fallen out means option B is correct.

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Cracks in a rock from exposure to pressure are an example of

Answers

I believe it is an example of frost action. A frost action is a type of mechanical weathering-as water freezes it expands which causes an increase in pressure and a crack, joint or fracture as the ice expands. Repeated freezing and thawing of the water may lead to fragmentation of the rock or frost/ice wedging.

In an experiment to study the effect of proteases on proteins, what is the MOST LIKELY effect of a major change in pH? A) increased rate of product formation B) a change in the substrate concentration C) the formation of new active sites of the enzyme D) a change in shape of the active sites of the enzyme

Answers

Answer: The correct answer is-

D) a change in shape of the active sites of the enzyme.

Enzymes are primarily protein molecules that drive various chemical reactions ( by increasing the rate of reaction) within the body of living organisms.

Protease is a protein digesting enzyme that works on specific pH ( such as pepsin works on pH 2 within stomach, which is highly acidic) .

Shape of an enzyme determine its function as they have active sites ( which have unique shapes) that fit in the substrate and carry out the chemical reactions.

A major change in pH can alter the shape of the active sites of the enzyme, making it inactive.

Thus, option D) is the right answer.

Final answer:

A major change in pH is most likely to result in a change in shape of the active sites of the enzyme (D), as enzymes have an optimal pH range and changes can affect their tertiary structure and catalytic activity.

Explanation:

In an experiment to study the effect of proteases on proteins, the most likely effect of a major change in pH is a change in shape of the active sites of the enzyme (D). Enzymes, which are proteins, have an optimal pH range in which they operate most effectively. Deviating from this optimal pH range affects the ionization of acidic and basic side groups, particularly those in the active site, altering the enzyme's tertiary structure and consequently its ability to bind to the substrate. This modification in structure can drastically reduce the enzyme's catalytic activity.

Devise a logical argument for why it is beneficial to use names for hurricanes over latitude longitude identification methods

Answers

How many people understand where longitude and latitude locations? Maybe if you lived in the path of the hurricane it would matter, but somebody would know that.

A name is easier to remember than a location. What would it matter to a newspaper reporter to read the lat and long? What kind of a comment could he make? Eventually he would relate it to something that is not a number. 

Which of the following statements about the nucleus is true?
A. The nucleus stores the coded instructions for making the cell’s proteins.
B. The nucleus usually contains a nucleolus region which is where mitochondria assembly begins.
C. The nucleus is the site of protein assembly.
D. The nucleus is surrounded by cell membrane that lets materials in and out.

Answers

The correct answer is D

Answer:

The correct answer is option A. The nucleus stores the coded instructions for making the cell’s proteins.

Explanation:

Hello!

Let's solve this!

The nucleus is the central part of the cell. It contains all the instructions for the cell to work. It also contains the DNA. Among its functions, is to store the instructions of the cell to be able to produce proteins. It is covered by a nuclear membrane.

After the analysis, we conclude that the correct answer is option A. The nucleus stores the coded instructions for making the cell’s proteins.

Help?

Explain the influence that Darwin's idea of natural selection had on the modern theory of evolution.

Answers

Well, once, people thought that evolution had a goal, and was not random. That belief was called goal oriented evolution. Darwin's theory of natural selection stated that evolution happened because of how species adapt to their environment. If they cannot adapt, they'll die, which leaves those who can adapt. So now thanks to him, our idea of how the natural world came to be today is much more developed.

Which immunoglobulin class has a dimeric structure with a secretory component? igm iga ige igg?

Answers

The answer is IgA. 
IgA is the immunoglobulin that consists of a dimer or a tetramer, a J-chain polypeptide, and a polypeptide chain called the secretory component. IgA is the principal antibody class in the secretions that bathe the mucosal surfaces, acts as an important first line of defense. It is also an important serum immunoglobulin, mediates a variety of protective functions through interaction with specific receptors and immune mediators.

What are the job prospects for students with either a bachelor’s degree, master’s degree, or a doctoral degree in psychology? (

Answers

Final answer:

Psychology graduates can pursue a wide range of careers based on their highest degree attained. Bachelor's graduates often work in human resources or education, master's graduates can become therapists and school psychologists, and doctoral graduates can enter academia, research, and clinical practice.

Explanation:

Job Prospects for Psychology Graduates at Different Degree Levels:

The job prospects for students with a degree in psychology vary depending on the level of education attained. Bachelor's degree holders can find careers as case managers, sales representatives, human resource personnel, and high school teachers, contributing to fields such as healthcare where knowledge of psychology is beneficial. With a master's degree, careers expand to include professional counselors, school psychologists, sport psychology consultants, and industrial organizational consultants. Students interested in a career in academia or in becoming practicing clinical psychologists should consider pursuing a doctoral degree, either a PhD for research-focused roles or a PsyD for clinical practice. A PhD opens doors to careers in academia, research, legal consultancy as forensic psychologists, or working in pharmaceutical companies as biopsychologists, among others. Those with a master's qualification can also teach at community colleges, while a doctorate is preferred for tenure-track positions at 4-year institutions.

Postdoctoral training programs are common for recent PhD graduates looking to develop their research skills and prepare for academic or specialized professional careers. Each degree level in psychology also lends itself to different opportunities beyond the traditional paths; for example, psychology undergraduates can leverage their education in becoming psychiatric social workers or nurses.

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What are the roles of mucus? Check all that apply.

A)to trap pathogens
B)to start fevers
C)to prevent pathogens from moving into deep tissues
D)to stimulate B-cells to make antibodies
E)to identify antigens

Answers

Answer:

A, C

Explanation:

mucus acts as a barrier! all of the other things mentioned (D and E) are caused by white blood cells.

The role of mucus is to trap pathogens and to prevent pathogens from moving into deep tissues. So, the correct options are A and C.

What is Mucus?

When we're sick or feel like we have too much mucus, also known as snot, it might be bothersome, but the body needs it to keep healthy. Our lungs, throat, mouth, nose, and sinuses are lined with mucus, which is a sticky, gelatinous substance.

Its primary purpose is to trap germs, viruses, or allergens such dust or pollen in your nose and stop them from spreading throughout your body and making you sick. It is produced via membranes inside the nose and sinuses. The mucus will eventually move to the stomachs and leave the body, along with the chemicals it has caught. The role of mucus is to trap pathogens and to prevent pathogens from moving into deep tissues.

Therefore, the correct options are A and C.

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1-A species of marine snails have either solid or striped shells. Scientists found that 57 percent of the snail population was striped, and 33 percent was solid. Sea birds are the main predator and when scientists studied their diet, they found that the birds ate more striped snails than solid snails. What could scientists conclude about the snails?
Birds preferred the solid snails. Rates of predation determine shell pattern. The shell pattern is due only to environmental variation. There may be other factors in the ecosystem that favor striped snails. Question 4(Multiple Choice Worth 3 points)
2- In 1989, the Exxon Valdez spilled nearly 42,000,000 liters of oil into Prince William Sound, Alaska. How would this spill be classified? Abiotic environmental Biotic environmental Genetic Pathogenic

Answers

Answer:

1. The correct answer would be "There may be other factors in the ecosystem that favor striped snails".

Solid snails are less hunted by sea birds as compared to the stripped snails. Therefore, we can conclude that the solid snail provides some kind of survival advantage to the population.

However, the percentage of solid snails as low as 33 percent. Thus, there must be some other environmental factors which favor the high percentage of striped snails.  

2. The correct answer would be abiotic environmental.

In ecology, the abiotic component refers to the non-living component of the environment. For example, air, water, mountains, soil, minerals et cetera.

Similarly, oil being a chemical is a non-living thing.

Thus, it is an abiotic environmental factor.

Final answer:

Scientists might conclude that other factors in the ecosystem favor striped snails beyond merely predatory patterns, such as camouflage adaptation. The Exxon Valdez oil spill is classified as an abiotic environmental disaster.

Explanation:

Given the information that 57 percent of the snail population was striped and 33 percent was solid, and considering that sea birds ate more striped snails than solid, one could conclude there may be other factors in the ecosystem that favor striped snails. Since birds eat more striped snails despite their prevalence, it implies the birds do not prefer one type over the other based on appearance alone. Therefore, the pattern of predation does not seem to be the sole factor determining the shell pattern of these snails. Factors such as camouflage may play a role as indicated by research suggesting that snails with certain colorations may be better adapted to their native regions, possibly to avoid predation effectively.

Regarding the Exxon Valdez oil spill in 1989, since it was an oil spill, it would be classified as an abiotic environmental disaster. This term is used to describe a non-living chemical or physical factor in the environment that has a significant impact on living organisms and the ecosystem.

What is the main difference in purpose between the mitosis and meiosis

Answers

Meiosis has two rounds of genetic separation and cellular division while mitosis only has one of each. In meiosis homologous chromosomes separate leading to daughter cells that are not genetically identical. In mitosis the daughter cells are identical to the parent as well as to each other.

Hope this helps!

-Paayshence xoxo

Answer:

Meiosis involves two divisions of the nucleus, while mitosis involves only one. Meiosis produces four sex cells that are haploid, meaning they have half the number of chromosomes. Mitosis, on the other hand, produces two cells that are identical to the original cell. These cells are diploid, meaning they have pairs of chromosomes.

Explanation:

What is the limiting factor for the growth of trees in the tundra? question 1 options:
a.permafrost
b.low precipitation
c.insufficient minerals in bedrock
d.ph of soils
e.lack of sunlight?

Answers

The permafrost t is the limiting factor for the growth of trees in the tundra.


The quality or condition of being intense

Answers

intensity would be the answer

Answer: it is Intensity.

Explanation:

Intensity is the quality or condition of being intensed especially extreme state of of strength,force or energy. It also means severity or magnitude of a something and the effects it has.

Discuss one theory that has been proposed about the formation of the universe. Provide at least on piece of evidence to support this theory. The theory I chose was The Theory of Evolution.
Teacher comments: Your answer needs to focus on the formation of the universe, not biology.,

Answers

The theory that has been proposed about the formation of the universe is the big bang theory. It is the idea that this whole universe was once a single very dense point that exploded to form everything in the universe. The theory of evolution is something else, it is about the origins of humans and how the human specie evolved on earth over millions of years based on the belief that the starting point were monkeys.

When cells are metabolically active but not dividing, they are in the ________ phase. when cells are metabolically active but not dividing, they are in the ________ phase. log exponential lag stationary death?

Answers

The answer is lag. The number of bacterial cells doubles at a constant, exponential rate during log phase, while growth rate and death rate are the same during stationary phase. The fourth phase is the death phase, when the rate of cell death is faster than the population growth. 
When cells are metabolically active but not dividing, they are in the lag phase. Lag phase is among the four phases. others being log phase or exponential phase, stationary phase and the death phase, of bacterial growth. During the lag phase there is very little to no bacterial growth, log phase or the exponential phase; the number of cells doubles at a constant rate, stationary phase; the population growth levels off as the rate of cell death equals the rate of cell division, and finally the death phase where the process of cell death is greater than the process of cell division.

A child has been diagnosed with hemophilia type a after experiencing excessive bleeding from a minor trauma. the mother shares that she is 4 weeks pregnant and questions as to whether this pregnancy will result in a child with hemophilia. what is the best response by the nurse?

Answers

The nurse should let the mother know that with every pregnancy, there is actually 50 percent chance of a carrier passing on this condition or being a carrier. The sex of the child will have a great impact on the outcome. It is also important to know that the outcome cannot be affected by the previous pregnancy.
The nurse should let the patient know that with every pregnancy, there is actually 50 percent chance of a carrier passing on under this condition or being a carrier.

But not all pregnancies may result to this. The sex of the child will have a great impact on the outcome and it cannot be as a result of the previous pregnancy.

 Haemophilia is being termed as an inherited genetic disorder. It results from much to people who bleed longer after an injury. There are two types of hemophilia.
 For example, hemophilia A which occurs if there is no enough clot factor VIII. The other one is hemophilia B which occurs if there is no enough clot factor IX.

Explain how the mucoliary elevator helps prevent foreign material from getting into the lungs

Answers

The cilia and mucus in your nose to trap unwanted particles that you breathe in to keep them out of your lungs

The tiny plates (holes) of bone material found in spongy bone are called

Answers

The tiny holes/plates found in spongy bone are known as trabeculae.

Match the correct characteristic with each term

algae [i think B]


spore [i think C]


ciliate [i think D)


protozoan [i think A]


a. multicellular and unicellular photosynthetic protists
b. an animal-like protist
c. a reproductive cell that can produce a new organism without fertilization
d. a protozoan that moves by beating hair like parts that cover its cell

i am not a genius, i am a high school idiot please dont judge me if i am wrong. no one is perfect.

Answers

Ciliate- D
Spore- C
Alge - A
Protozoan- B

Hope this helps!

-Payshence xoxo

What is a virus envelope in biology?

Answers

The Virus Envelope is where the capsid is surrounded by lipid bilayer that contains viral proteins, usually including the proteins that would enable the virus to bind to the host cells. and is derived from the host cell membranes. They may help viruses avoid the host immune system. The viral envelope then fuses with the host's membrane, allowing the capsid and viral genome to enter and infect the host.

The thermosphere protects the Earth from UV radiation coming from the Sun. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F

Answers

False, the ozone layer protects Earth from UV radiation.

Answer: False

Explanation:

The stratosphere is the layer of the atmosphere which shields the earth from the harmful incident rays like infrared and ultraviolet radiations. It consist of ozone layer near the altitude of 25 kilometers. The ozone molecules present in the stratosphere absorb the high energy UV rays which are capable of warming the inner atmospheric layers of the earth, may cause damage to the genetic material of the organisms and skin problems in humans.

On the basis of the above explanation, statement The thermosphere protects the Earth from UV radiation coming from the Sun is false.  

The terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is water, which is broken down to hydrogen and oxygen.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Final answer:

The statement is false; oxygen, not water, is the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration, where it combines with protons and electrons to form water.

Explanation:

The statement that the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is water, which is broken down to hydrogen and oxygen, is false. In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain is an oxygen molecule, O₂. When oxygen accepts electrons, it also combines with protons (hydrogen ions, H+) from the surrounding medium to form water (H₂O). This step is vital for the production of ATP, the energy currency of the cell. If oxygen is not available, aerobic respiration cannot occur, and cells may switch to anaerobic processes such as fermentation to regenerate NAD+ from NADH.

The waves that have shorter wavelengths than visible light are: (check all that apply)

Question 14 options:

Radio stations


Ultraviolet waves


Gamma rays


Mircowaves

Answers

The answers are Gamma rays and Ultraviolet  waves. Light waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies also have more energy, so types of light like gamma rays, X-rays, and ultraviolet light are more energetic than visible light, and infrared , microwaves, and radio waves are less energetic than the light in the visible spectrum.

Final answer:

Among the given options, ultraviolet waves and gamma rays have shorter wavelengths than visible light; thus, they are the correct choices. Radio stations and microwaves have longer wavelengths.

Explanation:

The waves that have shorter wavelengths than visible light are ultraviolet waves and gamma rays.

The electromagnetic spectrum is the range of all types of electromagnetic radiation, which includes gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet rays, visible light, infrared radiation, microwaves, and radio waves. Of the options provided, ultraviolet waves and gamma rays have shorter wavelengths than visible light. Gamma rays have the smallest wavelengths but the highest frequencies and energies, while ultraviolet rays also have wavelengths shorter than visible light but are less energetic than gamma rays.

Radio stations and microwaves have longer wavelengths than visible light. Radio waves, in particular, have the largest wavelengths and the lowest frequencies and energies, while microwaves have shorter wavelengths than radio waves but still longer than visible light.

How could a diuretic reduce water reabsorption in the kidneys?


Inhibit ADH release

Stimulate excessive ADH release (I put)

Stimulate excessive thirst response

Inhibit thirst response

@carsonsi @luckycoins888,

Answers

The answer is inhibiting excessive ADH release could be a way of reducing water re-absorption in the kidneys.
Alcohol is a substance that can stimulate the release of ADH. Unfortunately, there are no drugs as of now that can reduce or stop the release of ADH.


Answer:

The correct answer will be option-Inhibit ADH release.

Explanation:

Diuretics are the substance usually drugs which helps in the diuresis or the production of more urine with a high amount of water and sodium ions. These diuretics are used in the clinical department to treat blood pressure.

The diuretics act by inhibiting the release of the vasopressin or anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) which helps in reabsorption of sodium and water from the urine. Since no ADH is released in the body, more water is released with the urine.

Thus, option-Inhibit ADH release is the correct answer.

in the northern hemisphere, a wind blowning from the south to the north will cause a current of water in which direction

Answers

Hello,

Here is your answer:

The proper answer to this question is "east".

Here is how:

When the wind blows from the south to the north the current of water will go to the east because of the direction of the air is blowing.

Your answer is east.

If you need anymore help feel free to ask me!

Hope this helps!

Resistance exercises stress what aspect of the body?

Answers

The back part from bending
Other Questions
Dam is rowing a boat away from a dock the graph shows the relationship between the time and sams distance from the dock. Evaluate the function for an input of 9 mong the Pueblo peoples of the American Southwest, Kokopelli was a A. figure of a dancing piper. B. sacred chamber in the ground. C. ceremonial basket. D. food prepared for celebration In the wake of World War I, the United States was at a crossroads. The war had derailed the momentum of progressivism, and wartime provisions such as the Sedition Act of 1918 left American radicals on shaky ground. Would the Progressive Era resume? Perhaps sensing that Americans were weary of conflict, Republican presidential candidate Warren G. Harding campaigned in 1920 on the promise of stability. Harding advocated a return to "normalcy" and promised to heal the nation after World War I through the restriction of government spending, tax cuts, and booming commerce. The ensuing economic boom, union busting, and isolationist foreign policy could be interpreted as a return to the "normalcy" that Harding promised.On the other hand, the 1920s were the "Jazz Age," an era defined by cultural change and conflict. The cultural icons of that era such as flappers, jazz, the Harlem Renaissance, and consumerism reflect radical shifts in American thought. It was a time marked by a changing sense of possibilities for both African Americans and women, and a focus on modernity.In this activity, you will participate in a discussion about social and political mores in the 1920s and make an argument for which title "A Push for Modernity" or "A Return to Normalcy" best fits the era.Discussion Prompt:Which title "A Push for Modernity" or "A Return to Normalcy" is the most appropriate descriptor for the 1920s? What are the short and long term effects of ocean pollution? How does Cry, the Beloved Country, by Alan Paton, reflect the cultural experiences of South Africans in the late 1940s?Through its depiction of Absaloms and Gertrudes fall from grace into sin, the novel describes the way in which many rural families failed to protect their children from the dangers of the city.Through its descriptions of the shantytowns around Johannesburg, Cry, the Beloved Country accurately presents the poverty, crime, and injustices that nonwhite South Africans experienced at this time.By depicting the unbreakable bond between Kumalo and John, the novel captures the unique importance of brotherhood within South African culture.By describing the brutal murder of Arthur Jarvis, the novel reflects the deep hatred that nonwhite South Africans felt toward white South Africans in Johannesburg. Convert the equation 3x + 2y = 14 to slope intercept form How did Civil War in Rome lead to the creation of an empire? a furlong is a unit of length still used today in racing and agriculture. a race that is 8 furlongs is 1 mile. a furlong is 660 feet. how many furlongs are in 1 mile? Lee is sound asleep but awakens easily when his dog begins to whine at the first sign of smoke. Which part of the brain is responsible for waking Lee? This week Luis made 80% of what he made last week. If he made $72 this week, how much did he make last week Logan can paint a room in 12 hours. Marcus can paint the same room in 16 hours. How long does it take for both Logan and Marcus to paint the room if they are working together? Caloran slowed his horse as he came to the clearing in the forest. It was too quiet, and this was just the sort of place Budvar would pick to lay an ambush. From what point of view is this story told?A.Alternating point of viewB.First-person point of viewC.Third-person point of viewD.Second-person point of view The combustion of 987.0 g of methane in the presence of excess oxygen produces 1.543 kg of carbon dioxide. What is the percent yield A production possibilities curve is a graph that shows _____.alternative ways to use an economy's resourceshow a country will budget its resourcesa companys projected product saleshow a company will pay its expenses A light microscope that makes the specimen appear light on a dark background is called a(n) _____. compound microscope electron microscope dark-field microscope A coin is tossed 20 times. It lands on heads 14 times. What is the relative frecuencue of heads? "a question such as: "have you ever received a speeding ticket? ______ yes ______ no," when followed by a question such as: "when did you receive that ticket?" is an example of what type of question?" Match the following items. 1.for Cuban independencePancho Villa 2.headed up the project of ridding Cuba of the yellow fever carrying mosquitoesSpanish-American War 3.policy of soft talk but an efficient navy to keep the terms of Monroe DoctrineGeneral Leonard Wood 4.bandit who killed settlers in New Mexicoisolationism 5.a policy of noninvolvement in world affairscorollary 6.a proposition following so obviously from another that it requires little or no proofBig Stick policy Read the excerpt from "Do not go gentle into that good night." Do not go gentle into that good night, Old age should burn and rave at close of day; Rage, rage against the dying of the light. Though wise men at their end know dark is right, Because their words had forked no lightning they Do not go gentle into that good night. The excerpt's rhyme scheme is : aaa bbb. aba bab. aba aba. aab bba. In a DNA molecule the ratio of adenine (A) molecule to thymine (T) is 1:1. If in a strand of DNA there are 1 million A molecules, how many T molecules are expected in the same strand?