Answer: B) propulsion
Explanation: Propulsion is the movement of the ingested food in the GI Tract.
The function that is not correctly matched with its description is propulsion.
Explanation:The function that is NOT correctly matched with its description is B) propulsion: physical breakdown of ingested food in the GI tract.
Propulsion is the movement of food through the digestive tract. Mechanical breakdown, on the other hand, refers to the physical breakdown of ingested food in the GI tract. The other functions are correctly matched with their descriptions: absorption is the transportation of digested nutrients into the blood or lymph, ingestion is taking food into the digestive tract, and mechanical breakdown refers to churning movements in the GI tract.
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A small, thin, 4-year-old boy presents with an audible continuous murmur that is heard near the left proximal clavicle and is present throughout the cardiac cycle. The murmur is louder in systole than diastole. Which of the following conditions is most likely the cause of this murmur?
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy
E. Ventricular septal defect
Answer: C. Patent ductus arteriosis
Explanation:
Patent ductus arteriosis is a physiological condition in which the ductus arteriosus does not close after birth. This results in the flow of the oxygenated blood from the left heart to flow back to the lungs by passing through the aorta.
The blood in the aorta is at high pressure. This results in continuous murmur due to the generation of the constant pressure gradient in the diastole and the systole, that forces the blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery. The murmur sound is louder in the systole than in diastole.
Based upon the above explanation, Patent ductus arteriosis is the condition that is responsible for the murmur.
The free energy for the oxidation of glucose to CO₂ and water is -686 kcal/mol and the free energy for the reduction of NAD+ to NADH is +53 kcal/mol. What is the main reason that only two molecules of NADH formed during glycolysis when it appears that as many as a dozen could be formed?
Answer: The main reason why only 2 molecules of NADH is formed during glycolysis when it appears that as many as a dozen could be formed is because during glycolysis,most of the free energy that are available from the oxidation of glucose remains in one of the products of glycolysis known as pyruvate which acts like glucose but doesn't undergo metabolism.
Glycolysis is the splitting of sugar molecules into useable/ manageable forms,it can also be seen as the aerobic catabolism of sugar inorder to produce energy in the form of ATP,NADH and PYRUVATE.The following are the products of glycolysis; pyruvate,2 molecules of ATP and 2molecules of NADH.
Pyruvate are used in aerobic respiration or anaerobic respiration if oxygen is not available.
Several types of plant species grew in an empty lot. The city counsel decided to turn the lot into a park and planted grass alone to create a playing field. The ecological factor that was MOST LIKELY affected by the change was the lots ___________.
Answer:
Biodiversity
Explanation:
In the given question, many species of plant species used to grow in the empty lot. The plant species could have provided a home to many animal species. This lot thus formed a small level of the biological ecosystem which is composed of biodiversity.
This lot was changed to a park by the city council which then changed the ecosystem of the area and the main factor that was affected by this change is Biodiversity.
Thus, Biodiversity is correct.
Final answer:
The transformation of a diverse lot into a grass playing field likely most affected the lot's biodiversity, which impacts ecosystem processes, nutrient cycling, and interactions with insect predators.
Explanation:
The ecological factor that was most likely affected by the change from an area with several plant species to a park planted with grass alone for a playing field was the lot's biodiversity. The conversion to a grass field would lead to a significant loss in plant species diversity. This, in turn, can affect various ecosystem processes such as litter decomposition, nutrient cycling, and the presence of insect predators. Moreover, such changes could spill over and affect adjacent areas through altered biophysical processes and biodiversity, given that urban parks can support different species, including butterflies in the case of adjoining forests.
A flowering plant obeys Mendelian genetics where the yellow flower is dominant over pink flowers. You are given a yellow flowering plant.
What type of plant would you use to perform a test-cross with this plant to determine its genotype?
a) True breeding yellow flowering plant
b) F1 generation plant
c) True breeding purple flowering plant
d) True breeding pink flowering plant
Answer:
option D
Explanation:
This is to test for the genotype of an organism that shows the dominant phenotype for a particular trait trait. To perform a testcross in determining the genotype of a plant, a true breeding pink flowering plant is usually utilized.
In flowering plants, plasmodesmata are narrow channels through cell walls that connect the cytoplasms of adjacent cells. An explanation of how plant cells communicate across cell walls will most likely refer to the diffusion through plasmodesmata of which of the following?a) Membrane-bound organellesb) Condensed, duplicated chromosomesc) Branched polysaccharidesd) Small, water-soluble molecules
Answer:
Option-D
Explanation:
Plasmodesmata are the plasma membrane lined pores present in the cells of the plants. Inside these pores runs a closed tubelike structure which is an extension of the endoplasmic reticulum.
The plasmodesmata allows cell to cell communication which involves symplast mode of transport that is through its cytoplasm.
The small water soluble molecules like amino acid and sugars can easily pass through these plasmodesmata via diffusion. The large molecules can be transported through these plamodesmata through selective diffusion.
Thus, Option-D is the correct answer.
An explanation of how plant cells communicate across cell walls will most likely refer to the diffusion through plasmodesmata is Small, water-soluble molecules.
Small water soluble molecules often cross the membrane through the process of Diffusion. It is known as passive transport due to the fact that no external energy is used.
Polar molecules, such as water and small water-soluble molecules example urea, chloride ions, sodium ions etc. often
diffuse across membranes through the water-filled channels formed by membrane proteins.
Plasmodesmata are refered to ad connections through which cells communicate chemically with one another via their thick walls.
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Which types of carbon-based molecules can be broken down to make ATP?
Answer:
Carbohydrates. Depending on the carbon-based molecule broken down, the amount of ATP produced will be less or more.
Explanation:
Do you think Peacocks would be in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium? Why or why not?
Peacocks would not be in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium
Explanation:
This can be justified by the mating patterns of the female peacocks. They do not choose their mates randomly but look out specifically for bright attractive plumage in their male partners and then select them.
Hardy-Weinberg's Equilibrium of evolution mechanism was based on facts like random mating, no natural selection, mutation, absence of gene flow, and infinite population size.
They stated that organisms mate randomly with each other without any specific or a particular preference in the phenotypes of their opposite mates
During meiosis I, the two kinetochores of sister chromatids fuse and kinetochore microtubules from one pole of the cell attach to the fused kinetochore. This is important because it ensures that during anaphase I
Answer:
sister chromatids are pulled toward the same pole of the cell.
Explanation:
Meiosis can be defined as process where a single cell is divided twice in order to produce four cells( i.e sex cells which are; Sperm and Eggs) which contains half the original amount of genetic information.
Meiosis can be divided into nine different stages. when the cell divide for first time is referred to as *meiosis I* and the second time it divides it's referred to as meiosis II.
During Meiosis The cell divide twice to form four daughter cells, the daughter cells contains half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell( haploid).Our sex cell is produced by Meiosis.
During meiosis I, the two kinetochores of sister chromatids fuse and kinetochore microtubules from one pole of the cell attach to the fused kinetochore. This is important because it ensures that during anaphase I
A preganglionic sympathetic fiber traveling to the abdomen would synapse in which structures?
Answer:
Answered below.
Explanation:
The nerve fibres of the autonomic nervous system that connects the ganglia to the the central nervous system are called preganglionic fibres. They are divided into sympathetic preganglionic fibres and parasympathetic preganglionic fibres and both have acetylcholine as their neurotransmitter.
The sympathetic preganglionic is shorter compared to the parasympathetic preganglionic fibres. They originate from the hypothalamus and brainstem and project to the ganglia non the spinal cord. A ganglion is a cluster of nerves outside the central nervous system.
The preganglionic sympathetic fibres originating from T1-T2 innervate the cervical ganglion which innervates the muscles of the pupils (dilators).
The postganglionic fibres originating from the preganglionic fibres of T11-L3 passes through splenic, celiac and mesenteric ganglia to innervate the kidneys and renal vessels.
You and another rescuer find an unconsious adult on the floor. You send the other rescuer to summon advanced medical personnel. When you do the initial assessment, you find that the victim has a pulse, but is not moving or breathing. You should ________.
Answer:
give mouth to mouth cpr
Explanation:
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Answer:
Call advanced medical personnel and place the victim into a position that helps. Once in the position, continue to give the victim CPR until the police arrive to take care of everything else.
Based on the similarities and differences you identified earlier between T. Brucei, P. Falciparum, and T. Cruzi, do you predict that P. Falciparum and T. Cruzi undergo similar antigenic variation? Why or why not?
Answer:
Yes, P. Falciparum and T. Cruzi undergo similar antigenic variation because of repetitive genomes evolved by time.
Explanation:
Living (i.e., actively proliferating) repeats are dynamic elements which reshape their host genomes by generating rearrangements, creating and destroying genes, shuffling existing genes, and modulating patterns of expression. Dead repeats (i.e., those which are no longer able to proliferate) constitute a palaeontological record, which can be mined for clues about evolutionary events and impetus. The dynamic nature of repeats leads to a rapid evolutionary divergence that can be used in species identification and phylogenetic inference. Repeats can also provide passive markers for studying processes of mutation and selection.
The genomes of these protozoan parasites, like all eukaryotic genomes, have been colonized by diverse repetitive elements. Repetitive sequences can be artificially divided into two groups: interspersed repeats and tandemly repeated DNA. P. falciparum undergoes antigenic variation ans similar anitgenic variation is present in t. cruzi because of repetitive sequences resembling each other.
P. Falciparum and T. Cruzi do undergo similar antigenic variation.
Explanation:P. Falciparum and T. Cruzi do undergo similar antigenic variation. Antigenic variation refers to the ability of a pathogen to change its surface proteins in order to evade the immune system. Both P. Falciparum and T. Cruzi are parasitic pathogens that infect humans and undergo antigenic variation. For example, P. Falciparum causes malaria by infecting red blood cells, and it is known to switch the expression of its surface proteins, such as the var genes. T. Cruzi, the causative agent of Chagas disease, also exhibits antigenic variation through the expression of different surface proteins called mucins.
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Mendel found that yellow pea pod color (G) was dominant to green pea pod color (g), and that round seeds (W) were dominant to wrinkled seeds (w). What percentage of each of the phenotypes below are expected from the following cross? GGWw x ggww
A.
0%
B.
25%
C.
33%
D.
50%
E.
66%
F.
75%
G.
100%
Yellow and wrinkled
Green and round
Green and wrinkled
Yellow and round
2. You ran an experiment in lab using four different restriction enzymes, each with a different sized recognition sequence. You used a 4-cutter, 6-cutter, 8-cutter, and 10-cutter. Your resulting gel looked like the one above. Which well contains the 8-cutter?
1. Mendel found that yellow pea pod color (G) was
A.
2
B.
3
C.
4
D.
5
Answer:
1) 50% of the progeny will be yellow and rounded, G-W-
50% of the progeny will be yellow and wrinkled, G- ww
0% of the progeny will be green and rounded, ggW-
0% of the progeny will be green and wrinkled, ggww
2) The well 5 will contain the 8-cutter
Explanation:
1) Available data:
yellow pea pod color (G) is dominant to green pea pod color (g) round seeds (W) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (w)Cross: GGWw x ggww
Parental) GGWw x ggww
Gametes) GW GW Gw Gw
gw gw gw gw
Punnet Square) GW GW Gw Gw
gw GgWw GgWw Ggww Ggww
gw GgWw GgWw Ggww Ggww
gw GgWw GgWw Ggww Ggww
gw GgWw GgWw Ggww Ggww
F1) 8/16 = 4/8 = 2/4 = 1/2 GgWw
8/16 = 4/8 = 2/4 = 1/2 Ggww
50% of the progeny will be yellow and rounded, G-W-
50% of the progeny will be yellow and wrinkled, G- ww
0% of the progeny will be green and rounded, ggW-
0% of the progeny will be green and wrinkled, ggww
2) The well 5 will contain the 8-cutter
Following the Mendelian genetics inheritance, ALL the offspring resulting from the cross between GGWw x ggww would have Green and wrinkled phenotype (100%). The restriction enzyme question cannot be answered due to the lack of provided gel image.
Explanation:When cross-breeding occurs between organisms with the genotype GGWw and ggww, it's important to understand the results are influenced by the principles of Mendelian genetics where 'G' is dominant, representing yellow peapod colour and 'g' is recessive, representing green peapod colour. Similarly for seeds, 'W' symbolizes round (dominant) and 'w' for wrinkled (recessive).
The offspring from this mating will have a 100% probability of possessing the green peapod and wrinkled seeds phenotype. This is because the 'gg' genotype (green) from the second parent will only display green as it's recessive and the presence of even one 'w' allele (wrinkled) from either parent would result in wrinkled seeds - a distinctive feature of incomplete dominance. Hence, options 'A' through 'G', the correct answer for the phenotype contributions is 'G. 100% - Green and wrinkled'.
The second question about restriction enzyme cannot be properly answered because the gel image is not provided. The distinction between the wells is usually determined by the number of cut sites or the pattern of bands in the gel.
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Anyone know this?????
Answer:
Please see the attached photo for a filled-out worksheet!
Explanation:
"" Generally, a very _______ percent of Na + in the tubular fluid is reabsorbed, and the reabsorption takes place ________.
high, only in the nephron loop
high, along the entire tubule
small, only in the nephron loop
small, along the entire tubule
Answer:
high, along the entire tubule
Explanation:
In the transition from rest to moderate exercise, ________________ supplies almost all of the energy. A) glycogen stored in the liver B) glycogen stored in active muscle C) free fatty acid circulating in the blood D) triacylglycerol stored in adipocytes
Answer:
glycogen stored in the liver
True or false: The body temperatures of island tortoises always closely match the temperatures in their environments. True or false: The body temperatures of island tortoises always closely match the temperatures in their environments. True False
Explanation:
The given statement is false because tortoise is an ectotherm which means they change their temperature according to the change in external environment
The body temperature of ectotherms does not necessarily match the ambient temperature
For example, if a tortoise is basking in a sunny field, the solar radiation might raise its body temperature well above ambient, and the tortoise's low surface area/volume ratio would cause it to retain that heat for a long time
Light waves travel and strike a mirror. If the angle of incidence is 30°, what is the angle of reflection?
30°
180°
150°
60°
In land mammals, the pelvic girdle is the point where the leg bones attach to the rest of the skeleton. Whales also have a small pelvic girdle. What type of evidence for common descent would include the whale's pelvic girdle?
A. a homologous gene
B. a homologous structure
C. fossil evidence
D. a vestigal structure
Answer:
D. a vestigal structure
Explanation:
The type of evidence for common descent that would include the whale's pelvic girdle is vestigeal structure.
Vestigeal structures are small, degenerated and non-functional organs found in organisms which are believed to have been well developed and functional in their ancestors.
The pelvic girdle in whales are considered to be vestigeal organs because they serve no known purpose and looks degenerated. Hence, they serve as evidence for common descent of mammals from the same ancestors.
The correct option is D.
In rats, the allele for long whiskers is dominant to the allele for short whiskers. At another gene locus, a dominant allele produces whiskers and the recessive allele produces a rat with no whiskers. The alleles at these 2 gene loci assort independently. Two rats that are heterozygous at both gene loci are crossed. What percentage of the offspring do you expect will have whiskers? ( Enter the number only without the percent sign. For example, enter 100% as 100 and enter 12.5% as 12.5 )
Answer:
25
Explanation:
if you make a punnet square you will see that the allele for having whiskers is 25%
In which of the cultures was the concentration of toxins the highest?
Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, yet are able to survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms would be to _____.
OPtions are not provided in the question, The complete question is:
Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, yet are able to survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms would be
A) to determine if they have thylakoids in the chloroplasts.
B) to test for liberation of O2 in the light.
C) to test for CO2 fixation in the dark.
D) to do experiments to generate an action spectrum.
E) to test for production of either sucrose or starch.
Answer: B) Test for liberation of O2 in the light.
Explanation:
Photosystem II is the first protein complex in the light-dependent oxygen photosynthesis reactions. It is found within algae, plant and cyanobacteria thylakoid membrane.
Enzymes absorb photons of light inside the photosystem to energise electrons, which are then transferred to plastoquinol through a combination of coenzymes and cofactors to minimise plastoquinone.
A test can be perform to liberate the oxygen (O2) in the light which is trapped in thylakoid membrane, if the light is liberated it shows presence of photosystem II and if no light will liberate, it shows lack of photosytem II.
Hence, the correct option is B.
The lack of Photosystem II in photosynthetic organisms can be detected by measuring the production of oxygen during photosynthesis.
Explanation:The best way to detect the lack of Photosystem II in photosynthetic organisms is through experiments that measure the production of oxygen during photosynthesis. Photosystem II is responsible for splitting water molecules and releasing oxygen as a byproduct. Therefore, if an organism lacks Photosystem II, it will not produce oxygen during photosynthesis. One way to measure oxygen production is through the use of a dissolved oxygen probe, which can monitor the change in oxygen concentration over time.
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People have used selective breeding to improve crops and domestic animals. Modern applications of genetics and gene technology have resulted in major changes in crops and animals. List 3 examples of selective breeding in domestic animals or crops. Use one of the examples and explain how they might go about selecting for a particular trait.
Answer:
Cows that produce lots of milk,Chickens that produce large eggs,Wheat plants that produce lots of grain.
More grains being grown is helpful since it contains things that the human body needs to survive.
Explanation:
Selective breeding in crops and domestic animals has led to significant improvements in agricultural productivity. Example include breeding cows for higher milk quality, creating new dog breeds through artificial breeding, and genetically engineering crops with specific traits. Breeders can select for a particular trait by choosing individuals that already possess the trait and breeding them together.
Explanation:Selective breeding is used to improve crops and domestic animals. Three examples of selective breeding are:
Breeding cows for higher milk quality and quantityArtificially breeding dogs to create new breedsCreating transgenic crops with traits useful to humansTo select for a particular trait, breeders can choose individuals that already possess the desired trait and breed them together. This increases the chances of offspring inheriting and expressing the desired trait. Over time, continuous selection for the trait can lead to significant improvements.
Which organelle contains both DNA and RNA?
nucleus
ribosome
mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
Nucleus
Explanation:
The nucleus is the organelle that contains the genetic material of eukaryotic organisms. That is, the DNA is contained in the nucleus while RNA is formed in the nucleus and transported out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm. This means the DNA and RNA can be present in the nuclues at the same time.
Which of the following best completes this example of heat transfer by convection? As a pot of water is heated over an open flame, heat is transferred from
a. The pot’s handle to your hand.
b. The flame to the bottom of the pot.
c. The bottom of the water to the top of the water.
d. The hot water to a metal spoon used for stirring
Heat transfer by convection from the bottom of the water to the top of the water.
Explanation:
Convection takes place in case of liquids. In case of liquids the molecules of water are very loosely packed. Convection takes place in a circular form. When the liquid is heated up the water vapor goes up the cold water come to take the empty places , this way convection takes place. In this question , when the water is heated first the bottom of the water gets heated up and gradually the water at the top becomes hot.
Which of the following has the longest wavelength?
radio waves
infrared light
microwaves
red light
Answer:
radio waves
Explanation:
Radio waves have the longest wavelength out of all options provided due to their low frequency.
Explanation:Out of the options provided, radio waves have the longest wavelength. Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency, which means that the lower the frequency, the longer the wavelength.
In terms of the electromagnetic spectrum, radio waves have the lowest frequency and therefore the longest wavelength. Infrared light, microwaves, and red light all have higher frequencies and thus shorter wavelengths compared to radio waves. Value wise, Radio waves can have a wavelength as large as 100 kilometers or more while the other ones have much smaller wavelengths.
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suppose you found a bone of a mastodon which had 6.25%c14and93.75%n14 how long ago did this animal die
Answer:
t= 3886.18 years old
Explanation:
Whenever an animal dies de C14 and N14 begin to disintegrate in such a way that the proportion between C14 and C12 decreases, with a semi-disintegration period of 5.730 years, T. To get to know how long it takes an element to disintegrate, we must use this semi-disintegration period, which is the time it takes until the amount of the element is reduced to its half.
We can find the age of the fossil, t, by using the next formula:
t = - (T x ln (C14))/ ln (2)
t = - (5730 x ln (0.625)/0.693
t= - (-2693.12)/0.693
t= 3886.18
Radiocarbon dating is the process of determining the age of organic material or fossils by using the radioactive isotope of carbon.
The period or the age of the animal is 3886.18 years old.
The radioactive isotope of carbon and nitrogen is used to date the age of a fossil.
Organic compounds like carbon and nitrogen start to degrade. The proportion between the isotopes of carbon, carbon-14, and carbon-12 decreases, it takes a semi-disintegration period of 5.730 years.
The time taken to semi-disintegrate the fossil is the time taken by the compound to reduce to half.
The age can be calculated by:
[tex]\text t &= \dfrac{\text T \times \text {ln (C14)}} {\text {ln (2)}}\\\\\\\text t &= \dfrac{5730 \times \text {ln (0.625)}} {0.693}\\\\\\\text t &= \dfrac{-2693.12}{0.693}\\\\\text t &= 3886.18[/tex]
Therefore, the age of the fossil is 3886.18
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A millage rate is derived by A. dividing the tax requirement by the tax base. B. multiplying the tax base times the tax requirement. C. adding an inflation factor to the prior year's tax rate. D. dividing the tax base by the tax requirement.
Answer:The millage rate is derived by dividing the funds the city and county government need to operate, the total assessed value of real estate.
Explanation:
Tongue-curling in humans is a dominant genetic trait.
a) suppose a man who is Tt for tongue-curling marries a woman who is also Tt for this trait. What are the possible genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring? What is percentage chance of each type?
Answer:
-Genotypes: 25% TT, 50% Tt, 25% tt.
-Phenotypes: 75% have the trait for tongue curling, the other 25% do not have the trait for tongue curling.
-Percentage change of each type: 25% TT (homozygous dominant), 50% Tt (heterozygous), and 25% tt (homozygous recessive).
Explanation:
So to calculate the probably of off spring, we usually make a Punnett square.
Since a Tt man marries a Tt woman, they produce "offspring" (babies) that look like this in a Punnett square:
TT Tt
Tt tt
Looking from this Punnett square, we have one that is TT, two that are Tt, and one that is tt, a total of four. Your genotypes are the genetical traits, so out of the four, you take a percentage and calculate the genes: 25% TT, 50% Tt, and 25% tt. Your phenotypes are your physical traits, so 75% will have the "tongue-curling" trait as the trait T is dominant in three of them (TT, Tt, and Tt), and the other 25% will NOT have the trait.
If both parents are Tt, then both types of offspring will be produced, one with the trait of tongue curling and another without it. 75% will be dominant, and 25% will be non-tongue curlers.
What is a monohybrid cross?A monohybrid cross involves a trait such as tongue curling. This gene has two variations, one of which is for tongue curling and is dominant over the other. Another form is recessive and forms a non-curling type of tongue.
The curling gene is completely dominant over others and can express in both TT and Tt conditions. tt only expresses the recessive type, which is a non-curling tongue.
Here, both parents are Tt. So two types of offspring will be formed. TT will be 25%, Tt will be 50%, and the rest 25% is tt. Three of the four offspring are dominant, while one is recessive. The punnett square is explained below in the image.
Hence, from a heterozygous parent cross,75% will be dominant, and 25% will be non-tongue curlers.
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The following diagram shows an oceanic food web. At what trophic level do the killer whales primarily feed?
Killer whales, based on a general oceanic food web, primarily feed at the fourth trophic level. This is because they feed on secondary consumers like seals, positioning them as tertiary consumers or apex predators.
Explanation:In a food web, the trophic level refers to the position an organism occupies based on its feeding habits. Primary producers make up the first trophic level, followed by herbivores or primary consumers at the second trophic level, and carnivores or secondary consumers make up the third trophic level. If Killer Whales feed on organisms like seals, which are secondary consumers, then Killer Whales would be positioned at the fourth trophic level—also known as tertiary consumers or apex predators.
This is based on a generalized oceanic food web and may not represent every environment. Additionally, depending on the specific diet of the Killer Whale in different environments, it could occupy more than one trophic level. For example, if a Killer Whale also eats fish, it could be a secondary as well as a tertiary consumer.
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05. Boarding up windows would be one emergency action most likely taken to prepare
for which natural disaster?
Answer:
The answer is Hurricane
Explanation:
Tornadoes move to quick and form to fast and you will never know when a Tsunami hits you don't know either. So therefore it is Hurricane