Answer:
ganalia
Explanation:
What is the difference between a heterozygous and homozygous set of alleles?
Homozygous mean that both copies of a gene or locus match.
Heterozygous mean that both copies of a gone do not match.
Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly synthesized DNA and, therefore, can be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student-faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into a culture of dividing human cells at specific times. Which of the following questions might be answered by using the method described?
A. When do spindle fibers attach to chromosomes?
B. How many picograms of DNA are made per cell cycle?
C. What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle?
D. How many cells are produced by the culture per hour?
Answer:
C. What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle?Explanation:
Such type of technique that is used to tack or identified the passage or location of the metabolic reaction, organelles and some other during the research or experiment is known as radiolabelling. During the study of the synthesis of the DNA, the nucleotides are labeled to check the S phase of the cell cycle. Since the synthesis of the DNA takes place during this phase so the time and length of the S phase can be easily obtained during the experiment. This technique is also used for different purposes during the biomolecular experiment and some other disciplines.The S phase is the DNA replication phase of the cell cycle, it is the phase
that occur between the G₁ and G₂ phases.
The question that might be answered by using the method described is; D. What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle?Reasons:
The S phase, or synthesis phase, is the cell division phase in which the
DNA of the cells are replicated such that the number the genome is
doubled, before the cell enters into the meiosis mitosis stage.
The synthesis that takes place during the s-phase includes the synthesis of
nucleotides.
Therefore, the radiolabeled nucleotides can be incorporated in the s-phase
after the DNA is synthesized, and therefore, the length of the S-phase of
the cell cycle can be determined.
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An anatomy and physiology instructor scratches chalk across the blackboard causing a screeching sound. Several students get a feeling like their "hair is standing on end." This response is part of the sympathetic stress reaction and is called what?
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system directs the body's rapid involuntary response to dangerous or stressful situations
The feeling of "hair is standing on end" gives goosebumps or technically we one can say pilorection
Pilorection is defined as erection of the hair of skin due to contraction of the tiny arrectores pilorum muscles that elevate the hair follicles above the rest of the skin and move the hair vertically, so the hair seems to stand on end
Athletes' motivation, the level of competition, the type of sport, and the ________ are the key factors in determining the probability of using anabolic steroids. A. pressure for winning B. age of the athlete C. price of this drug D. expectations of the fans
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Definitely the goal of any athletes is to win a laurel, so that the energy put into timeless training can be consummated. Therefore the spirit of wining at all cost usually drive most athletes to spike up their systems to achieve their dreams. Most athletes are determined to win to satisfy the sponsor, family and relations. Besides coaches who want their work output to be noticed usually led athletes to spike the systems with steroid . Besides distractions by social levels, and need to meet up with time wasted ,made some athletes to spike systems.
Thus this collective efforts put pressure on the athletes to win at all cost.
People suffering from cystic fibrosis have a mutant version of the gene called cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) that makes a non-functional or less functional membrane transport protein. Normal people also have the same gene. What is different between the two?
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene. The CFTR gene is involved in the formation of certain ABC channels in the membrane which are involved in the influx and efflux of the chloride ions in the cell.
The disease is caused when both the copies of the mutated genes each from father and mother are present in the progeny that is it is caused by the recessive allele.
The person with a normal allele of CFTR genes is normal and does not develop the affected organs like the lungs, kidney, pancreas, and others but a person with the mutated genes form a thick mucus in their organs especially the lungs but also in the kidney, pancreas.
Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are
Answer:
Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are called Lobes
Explanation:
By means of a prominent groove, called the longitudinal fissure, the brain is divided into two halves called hemispheres. At the base of this fissure lies a thick bundle of nerve fibers, called the corpus callosum, which provides a communication link between the hemispheres. The left hemisphere controls the right half of the body, and vice-versa, because of a crossing of the nerve fibers in the medulla.
The central sulcus and the lateral sulcus, divide each cerebral hemisphere into four sections, called lobes.The central sulcus, also called fissure of Rolando, also separates the cortical motor area (which is anterior to the fissure).
The cerebral cortex is classified into four lobes, according to the name of the corresponding cranial bone that approximately overlies each part. Each lobe contains various cortical association areas – where information from different modalities are collated for processing. Together, these areas function to give us a meaningful perceptual interpretation and experience of our surrounding environment.
Answer:
Brain lobes
Explanation:
The brain has two hemispheres (left and right) that are formed each by 4 lobes: parietal, and occipital, frontal and temporal. These lobes are named depending on the overlying skull bones
The cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by the first meiosis are called:______.
1. spermatozoa.
2. spermatogonia.
3. primary spermatocytes.
4. secondary spermatocytes.
5. spermatids.
Answer:
Spermatogenesis
Explanation:
The first meiotic division of each main spermatocyte produces a pair of secondary spermatocytes, which carry out the second division of meiosis. Spermatids are the haploid cells that result from this process. Thus, option E is correct.
What is function of spermatids?Sertoli cell function is governed and controlled by spermatids. Sertoli cells regulate the metabolism, cell division, and development of spermatogonia or germ cells.
The haploid male gametic known as the spermatid is produced when secondary spermatocytes divide.
Each spermatid only has half as much genetic material as the original primary spermatocyte as a result of meiosis. Testicle germinal epithelium. Rat testicular tubule in transverse section.
Therefore, the cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by the first meiosis are called spermatids.
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Unattached earlobes are a dominant trait. Finn and Maggie both have unattached earlobes but their daughter, Celia, does not. If Finn and Maggie have a second child, what is the probability that it will have attached earlobes?A. 1/4B. 1/2C. 3/4D. 1E. 1/8
Answer:
Explanation:
It is in Spanish but you put it in the translator and the calculations are international
After the population of Florida panthers (Puma concolor) fell to several dozen, scientists developed a plan to save this endangered species. They moved eight panthers from a different subspecies in Texas into the Florida panthers’ habitat so that the two would interbreed. This interbreeding will help the panthers because:
A) the new population will carry a greater proportion of dominant alleles
B) matings between subspecies will produce offspring with recessive phenotypes
C) a higher rate of homozygosity will ensure that more individuals are able to fight diseases
D) natural selection can favor panthers that respond positively to changes in the environment
Petals:
a. are present mainly to protect the stamens and carpels.
b. serve to attract insects to collect and disperse fruit.
c. serve as landing pads for pollinators.
d. serve to attract animals to collect and disperse pollen.
e. serve all of the above purposes.
Answer:
Petals d. serve to attract animals to collect and disperse pollen.
Explanation:
Petals serve to attract animals to collect and disperse pollen. This is because petals are modified leaves that surround the reproductive parts of flowers protecting them. They have super bright colors and different shapes so they attract pollinators and animals. Petals have different functions depending the type of plant repelling or attracting specific pollinators.
For finches on the Galapagos a significant change in big size can observed across the years Rapunzel rainfall orchestra how can the changes and finch beak size be attributed to evolution
Answer:
The food resources of the finches vary in regard to the island, it is for that reason that we observe differences in the finch beak size
Explanation:
Evolution explains how the survival of the most adaptive organisms to the environment (in this case birds with suitable beaks) makes that they perpetuate their genes in future generations
Which winds are found primarily in the tropics
Answer:
is the trade winds
Explanation: trust me i just took the assigment is correct
Renin is released by cells of the apparatus in response to afferent arteriole pressure and the degree of stretch of the arteriole wall. True or False
Answer: True
Explanation:
Renin ( angiotensinogenase), is an aspartic protease protein which is secreted by kidney that participates in the body's renin – angiotensin – aldosterone network that mediates arterial vasoconstriction and extracellular fluid volume.
Renin is released by cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in response to the stimuli of decrease in arterial blood pressure and the degree of stretch of the arteriole wall.
Hence, the statement is true.
The Glasgow Coma Scale is a common screening tool used for patients with a head injury. During the physical exam, the nurse documents that the patient is able to spontaneously open her eyes, obey verbal commands, and is oriented. The nurse records the highest score of:
Answer:
The highest score of Glasgow Coma Scale in this patient is 15.
Explanation:
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is the most common screening scale used to describe the level of consciousness in a person after a traumatic brain injury.It has three components
1. eye response
2.verbal response
3. motor response
The lowest possible GCS is 3 which represents deep coma or death in patient, while the highest is 15 which represents fully alert and oriented patient.
Primary targets for insulin action include all of the following except
Answer:
renal glucose reabsorption
Explanation:
A client has been diagnosed with right-sided heart failure based on symptomology. The cardiologist will confirm this suspicion through diagnostics. Which diagnostics are used to reveal right ventricular enlargement?A. electrocardiogramB. chest radiographC. echocardiography
Answer:
A. electrocardiogram and C. echocardiography.
Explanation:
The two diagnostics used to confirm if a person has ventricular enlargement are electrocardiogram and echocardiography. Electrocardiograms mostly detect the electrical activity of the left ventricle, and if there is a problem on the right ventricle, it might be hard to confirm it with this procedure, so the best option is to complement it with echocardiography since it gives an image of the right ventricle walls.
Answer: The correct answer to the question is option A
ELECTROCARDIOGRAM
Explanation: Right sided heart failure is otherwise known as pulmonary heart disease or cor pulmonale.
In a healthy heart,deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium through the superior and inferior vena cava,the right atrium contracts opening the tricuspid valve and making way for the blood to empty into the right ventricle.the right ventricle further contracts and the pulmonary valve opens,the deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle goes into the pulmonary trunk and into the right and left pulmonary artery,the right and left pulmonary artery empties the deoxygenated blood into the right and left lungs for gaseous exchange.(oxygenation)
When the right side of the heart is diseased,there will be a failure in carrying out the above stated functions.
Right sided heart failure is simply defined as the inability of the right side of the heart to take-up or pump deoxygenated blood into the lungs for oxygenation.
The sign and symptoms if right sided heart failure are mainly lethergy, dyspnea, fatigue and oedema.
Electrocardiogram is one of the diagnostic procedure for right sided heart failure,it will reveal an impairment in the heart rate and rythym and also an impairment in pulmonary artery pressure.
Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which process?
Explanation:
Density dependent inhibition is the process exhibited by most normal (anchorage dependent) animal cells in culture that stop dividing once a critical cell density is reached
The critical density is considerably higher for most cells than the density at which a mono-layer is formed
As cells become more numerous, the cell surface proteins of one cell contact the adjoining cells and they signal each other to stop dividing
Normal cells proliferate until they reach finite density but cancer cells are not sensitive to density dependent inhibition
What are the overriding problem with both theories of muscle growth
Answer:
The overriding problem with both theories of muscle growth, hypertrophy and hyperplasia, is that: neither can be accepted as correct because muscles growth is difficult to study in humans.
Explanation:
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A burner on a stove gets red
and heats up because it:
A) creates static charge
B)creates resistance
C)creates current
Answer:
The answer is B)creates resistance
Explanation:
Resistance mean a force opposing the flow of electron current in a conductor.
If the grasses contain 10,000 kcal, how much of that will a hawk consume?
A.10,000kcal
B.1,000kcal
C.100kcal
D.10 kcal
Answer:
10 kal
Explanation:
as energy goes through the pryamid it loses most of it energy and only ten percent of the energy will be passed on
What is it called when a user begins moving toward another cell and the cellular phone automatically associates with the base station of that cell during a call? A. handoff B. roaming C. hunting D. multiplexing
Answer:
Handoff
Explanation:
Handoff sometimes referred to as handover is the process of transferring a call that is active or a data session from a cell in a cellular network to another cell in a cellular network. It occurs when the base station signal is changed as the cell is shifted and does not result to any form interaction in the data session or active call.
A data session user or active caller would experience no interruption in service when the handoff is well implemented.
An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n) An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n) disinfectant. fungicide. aseptic. virucide. antiseptic.
Answer:
disinfectant
Explanation:
Disinfectant are chemical substances that are applied on non living surfaces, which are used to inactivate or kill microorganisms such as fungi and bacteria. examples of chemical disinfectants include bleach, thymol, alcohols, formaldehyde etc. Also, there are non-chemical disinfectant, such as UV light.
Disinfectant are antimicrobial in action, and can be used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet. It is almost similar with antiseptic, however, antiseptic are mostly applied on the body to prevent growth of microorganisms, while disinfectant are commonly applied on inert or non living surfaces, to reduce and destroy microorganisms.
A young female wears her lap belt low, over her upper thighs, because the belt is uncomfortable when worn properly. If involved in a head-on "up and over" type collision, to what injury is she most prone, given the position of her lap belt?
A) Internal abdominal injury
B) Dislocated hips
C) Tibia-fibula fractures
D) Bilateral arm fractures
Answer:
The correct answer here is B) Dislocated Hips
Explanation:
Due to the force of the of the collision which causes a forceful "up and over" pull over her body, hips is likely to get dislocated.
If worn properly, the lap belt will hold her in place preventing her upper torso which is heaver than her lower body mass (that is the hips and below) from reacting to the forceful conversion of potential energy to kinetic energy.
When her body, having used the belt erroneously, goes into a full kinetic jump, the weight of the upper torso will pull the most at the hips thus leading to the dislocation.
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Which system protects to the cardiovascular system?
A) skeletal
B) nervous
C) circulatory
D) digestive
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Your ribs are apart of skeletal system and your ribs protect you lungs
A 6-week-old infant presents to your office for a check-up. The baby was born full-term by NSVD to a 29-year-old G1P0 mother with no complications. Mother states the baby was feeding well until a week ago, when he developed increased sleepiness, prolonged feeding, and greater duration between feeds. His mother notes he stops to take breaks during feeds because he seems to be trying to catch his breath. He has four to six wet diapers per day and stools three or four times per day. Vital signs: Temperature is 37.6 C (99.7F), respiratory rate is 68 breaths/minute, pulse is 138 beats/minute, blood pressure is 88/58 mmHg, and oxygen saturation is 98%. The physical examination is notable for increased respiratory effort and retractions, and, upon cardiac examination, a murmur with a hyperactive precordium and no cyanosis. Abdominal exam reveals a liver edge palpable to 4 cm below the right costal margin.
Which condition would be LEAST LIKELY to be the cause of the infant's symptoms?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Coarctation of the aorta
C) Ventricular septal defect
D) Patent ductus arteriosus
E) Atrial septal defect
Answer:
E) Atrial septal defect
Explanation:
A 6-week-old infant presents to your office for a check-up. The baby was born full-term by NSVD to a 29-year-old G1P0 mother with no complications. Mother states the baby was feeding well until a week ago, when he developed increased sleepiness, prolonged feeding, and greater duration between feeds. His mother notes he stops to take breaks during feeds because he seems to be trying to catch his breath. He has four to six wet diapers per day and stools three or four times per day. Vital signs: Temperature is 37.6 C (99.7F), respiratory rate is 68 breaths/minute, pulse is 138 beats/minute, blood pressure is 88/58 mmHg, and oxygen saturation is 98%. The physical examination is notable for increased respiratory effort and retractions, and, upon cardiac examination, a murmur with a hyperactive precordium and no cyanosis. Abdominal exam reveals a liver edge palpable to 4 cm below the right costal margin.
Atrial septal defect do not cause CHF; an ASD malformation is a left to right shunt, and depending on the size of the defect the patient may or may not present with symptoms and ASDs often go undiagnosed for decades due to subtle physical examination findings and/or a lack of appreciable symptoms. If the defect is large enough, pediatric patients may present with easy fatigability, recurrent respiratory infections, or exertional dyspnea.
Answer:
\rE) Atrial septal defect
Explanation:
The least likely condition for the cause of these symptoms in the infant is Atrial septal defect .
An ASD malformation is a left-to-right shunt, and—depending on the size of the defect—the patient may or may not present with symptoms. ASDs often go undiagnosed for decades due to subtle physical examination findings and/or a lack of appreciable symptoms.
If the defect is large enough, pediatric patients may present with easy fatigability, recurrent respiratory infections, or exertional dyspnea.
In the graph to the right:
Trial A (no immunity) is the _ line. Trial B (25% immune) is the _ line. Trial C (50% immune) is the _ line.
The trial in which the disease spread the least was Trial _.
In Trial C, of the 10 people who were not immune, _ people never got the disease.
Answer:
Trial A is the blue line.
B is the orange line.
C is the green line.
The trial in which the disease spread the least was Trial C.
3 people never got the disease.
Explanation:
The more immune, the less the disease spread.
In Trial C, if 10 people were immune and 7 were infected and there were 20, then 3 never got infected.
Trial A (no immunity) is the blue line. Trial B (25% immune) is the orange line. Trial C (50% immune) is the green line. The trial in which the disease spread the least was Trial C.
What is Immunity?Immunity may be defined as the capability of the individual's body to recognize foreign substances and prevent them from causing any type of illness or disease. It generally protects the body from infectious diseases.
According to the context of this question, the more immunity, the less the chances of disease spread. So, when there is no immunity in the blue line, the number of infected people is significantly high.
And when immunity is maximum in the green line (50%), there would be less number of infected individuals. In Trial C (green line) if there would be 10 people who possess a high level of immunity and 7 were infected and if there were 20, then 3 never got infected.
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An ulcer is a break or discontinuity in a cutaneous or mucous membrane in the body. There are many types of ulcers. __________ is a type of ulcer in which there is an erosion of the gastrointestinal lining deep enough to penetrate the muscularis mucosa.
a.Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
b.Diverticulosis
c.A peptic ulcer
d.Gastritis
Answer: C
Explanation:
A peptic ulcer is an erosion in a segment of the gastrointestinal mucosa, typically in the stomach (gastric ulcer) or the first few centimeters of the duodenum (duodenal ulcer), that penetrates through the muscularis mucosae.
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Jeff has been drinking a lot over the past few months,including frequent binges.His friends are concerned that this behavior puts him at risk for a condition that involves a potentially lethal blood alcohol concentration.Which condition is this?
A) coronary artery disease
B) alcohol poisoning
C) cirrhosis
D) alcoholic hepatitis
Answer:
B) alcohol poisoning
Explanation:
Alcohol poisoning is a serious, sometimes deadly condition as a result of consuming dangerous amounts of alcohol. Alcohol poisoning most often occurs as a result of drinking too many alcohol beverages over a short period of time. Alcohol poisoning can also occur by:
Ethanol Isopropyl alcoholMethyl alcoholIt may result in a condition that involves a potentially lethal blood alcohol concentration.
Hence, B) alcohol poisoning is the right answer
Answer:
D) alcoholic hepatitis
Explanation:
Alcoholic hepatitis is a disease which occurs due to the excessive consumption of alcohol for a long period of time. This disease damage your liver very badly and continuation of alcohol leads to death of the patient. This disease cannot be cured but it can be stop from further damage. The damage liver cannot be fully repaired and scarring of live occurs. In scarring of liver, hard scar tissue replaces soft healthy tissue of the liver.
What change (or transition) in habitat did whales’ ancestors make?
Answer:
To first started living on land and that is where the traits and transitions moved to water instead of land
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If you pick up a novel object that you've never seen before and run your fingers along it to get a better sense of its shape, you are engaging in A. increased touch sensitivity. B. two-point touch. C. proprioceptive feedback.D. nociception. E. a haptic exploratory procedure.
When you run your fingers along an object to sense its shape, you are engaging in a haptic exploratory procedure. This active touch involves haptic perception, which integrates various sensory inputs and feedback mechanisms to help recognize the object's properties.
If you pick up a novel object that you've never seen before and run your fingers along it to get a better sense of its shape, you are engaging in E. a haptic exploratory procedure. Haptic perception is involved when we recognize an object by touching it. This perception is a combination of the senses in the skin, the position of the hand, and how the fingers conform to the object.
By actively moving your fingers over the object, you're using active touch, which tends to be more informative for determining an object's shape and other properties. Through touch, we can discern various characteristics such as size, weight, texture, stiffness, and so forth. This information is processed by receptors in our skin and then combined in our central nervous system to form a detailed understanding of the object.
Two-point discrimination, proprioceptive feedback, and nociception are all different aspects of the haptic system that serve their unique purposes in tactile sensation.
Overall, when you explore an object with your hands to learn about its shape and other qualities, you are primarily using haptic perception.