Answer: Option B. "T Cell maturation"
Explanation:
T-cell, also known as T lymphocyte, are primary type of leukocyte or white blood cell important part of the immune system.
Bone marrow is the origin of T-cells and then get mature in the thymus. In thymus, T- cells differentiate or multiply into regulatory, or cytotoxic T-cells helper, or act as memory T-cells.
T-cells then move in lymphatic system, once get stimulated by appropriate antigen, helper T-cells secrete cytokines that stimulate antibody-producing cells called B cells. Regulatory T-cells control immune reactions while Cytotoxic T-cells kill infected cells or cancer cells.
Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Which of the following is true regarding use of a da Vinci robot?
A. decreases range of motion
B. decreases operative time
C. increases healthcare costs
D. increases visualization
Hi !
Which of the following is true regarding use of a da Vinci robot?
D. increases visualization
The use of a da Vinci robot increases healthcare costs and improves the surgeon's visualization with high-definition 3D views, although its effects on operative time and range of motion can vary depending on many factors.
The use of a da Vinci robot in surgery has several impacts on the medical procedures:
A. It increases range of motion due to its articulated wrist-like instruments.B. It could decrease operative time once the surgical team is proficient with the system, but initially may increase time due to the learning curve.C. It increases healthcare costs significantly due to initial investment, maintenance, and operation costs.D. It increases visualization for the surgeon with a three-dimensional, high-definition view.Considering these points, the correct answer to the question is that the use of a da Vinci robot increases healthcare costs (C) and increases visualization (D).
Gap junctions and desmosomes are associated with what structure?
A) Intercalated disc
B) tight junctions
C) NMJ
D) synapses
Answer:
the correct answer is option A- Intercalated disc
Explanation:
Intercalated discs are the characteristic microscopic feature of the cardiac muscle which allows the cardiac cells to work as a single unit or syncytium.
The disc allows the cardiomyocytes (an individual cell) to act as one unit due to the "desmosomes and gap junctions" which allows the diffusion of ions to pass to nearby cardiomyocytes and allow depolarization of the entire heart which causes contraction.
Thus, option A- Intercalated disc is the correct answer.
Which of the following characteristics helps to define a hominin?
A-long upper arms
B-large brain size
C-large molar teeth
D-arboreal quadrupedalism
Answer:
The correct answer is option B-large brain size.
Explanation:
Hominins are the living being which is a type or tribe of a group of an organism called primates. These primates are also called hominids.
Hominin represents the living group of the organism which shows three important characteristics:
1. Bipedalism: the ability to walk on two legs.
2. Large cranial size: large brain capacity (1500 cc) of Homo sapiens.
3. Reduced canine size: reduced size of teeth.
The only living hominin is "humans".
Thus, option B-large brain size is the correct answer.
A distinguishing feature of hominins, including humans and related extinct species, is a larger brain size compared to other primates. This characteristic is associated with advanced cognitive abilities. Therefore, the correct answer would be B
Explanation:A characteristic that is crucial in defining a hominin is B-large brain size. Hominins, the group of primates that includes humans and our closest extinct relatives, are distinguished particularly by brain size, which is significantly larger compared to non-hominin primates.
This large brain size is associated with complex cognitive skills, such as more developed language abilities and tool use. While the other alternatives (A, C, and D) can be found in many primate species, large brain size is especially characteristic of hominins.
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Which cranial nerve carries motor commands to the chewing muscles?
a. facial nerve
b. hypoglossal nerve
c. trigeminal nerve
d. glossopharyngeal nerve
The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying motor commands to the muscles involved in chewing. Hence, the answer is option c.
The trigeminal nerve (CN V) nerve controls the muscles involved in mastication, which is necessary for chewing food. Additionally, for testing purposes, stretch reflexes in these muscles can indicate the functionality of the trigeminal nerve. The motor functions of the facial nerve are related to facial expressions rather than mastication and can be tested by observing a patient's ability to perform actions such as raising eyebrows, smiling, and frowning. Hence, the correct answer to the question is option c. trigeminal nerve.
Angina pectoris is an example of a(n) __________ pain.
Answer: Chest Pain
Explanation:
Angina pectoris is a type of ischemic pain associated with inadequate blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle, leading to chest pain. It is a symptom of coronary heart disease and can be classified as either stable or unstable angina. Treatment focuses on symptom relief and slowing down the progression of cardiovascular disease.
Explanation:Angina pectoris is an example of ischemic pain. Angina is a symptom of coronary heart disease, where chest pain or discomfort occurs because the heart muscle cells do not receive adequate blood flow and oxygen (ischemia). This condition is commonly caused by the partial blockage of the coronary arteries due to the buildup of plaque.
There are two types of angina: stable angina and unstable angina. Stable angina is manageable and often triggered by physical exertion, while unstable angina can occur at rest, last longer, and could be an indicator of an imminent heart attack. Treatment for angina aims to provide symptom relief and slow the progression of atherosclerosis.
The symptom of chest pain associated with angina often feels like pressure or squeezing and may spread to other areas such as the arms, neck, jaw, or back. This is an indication that the heart muscle requires more oxygen than it is receiving. Such symptoms warrant timely medical evaluation and management.
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The repeated pattern of distressed breathing that has gradual increase of deep breathes followed by shallow breathes and apnea is called?
A. Bronchospasm
B. Cheyne-Stokes Respiration
C. Bradypnea
D. Tachypnea
Answer:
Cheyne-Stokes Respiration
Explanation:
Cheyne-Stokes Respiration may be defined as one of the abnormal breathing pattern in human beings. This respiration is more common during wakefulness or sleep of an individual.
Cheyne-Stokes Respiration has the repeated pattern of deeper and faster breathing followed by apnea. This pattern repeated usually from 30 seconds to two minutes.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Answer:
Cheyne-Stokes Respirations
Explanation:
In Cheyne-Stokes respiration, a client’s breathing pattern is characterized by progressively deeper and faster breathing, that is, hyperventilation followed by apnea.
What are the two valves (sphincters) that enclose the small intestine at each end?
Answer:
Pylorus and ileocecal valve
Explanation:
The pylorus is the sphinecter that connects the stomach with the first portion of the small intestine, the pulorus has an antrum and a canal. This valve control the gastruc flow from the stomach to the duedenum.
The ileocecal connect both intestines, this valve that connects the ileum to the cecum has an importan absorption and lymphatic functions.
The small intestine is enclosed by two sphincters called the pyloric sphincter and the ileocecal valve. The pyloric sphincter controls the passage of food from the stomach to the small intestine and the ileocecal valve regulates the exit of digested material from the small intestine into the large intestine.
Explanation:The two valves, or sphincters, that enclose the small intestine at each end are the pyloric sphincter and the ileocecal valve. The pyloric sphincter is located at the stomach end of the small intestine and controls the passage of food material, commonly known as chyme, from the stomach into the duodenum of the small intestine. This sphincter is usually closed, but when food needs to be passed into the small intestine, it opens to allow the passage of the chyme.
On the opposite end of the small intestine, the ileocecal valve controls the exit of digested material from the small intestine into the large intestine. Similar to the pyloric sphincter, the ileocecal valve is generally constricted but relaxes to allow the passage of food residue to enter the cecum, the first part of the large intestine, when ileal motility increases. Once the chyme has passed through, backward pressure assists in closing the sphincter, preventing any backflow into the ileum.
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A client’s transdermal fentanyl was discontinued 2hr ago due to adverse effects. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to document?
a. Heart rate
b. Respiratory rate
c. Bowel sounds
d. Activity level
Answer:
The answer is A Heart Rate
Explanation:
Fentanyl is an analgesic medication that is used for chronic pain that acts on different presynaptic and postsynaptic receptors of the organism. it can produce bradycardia, due to its effect on the sinus node conduction.
Describe diffusion and osmosis, as well as comparing hypotonic, hypertonic and isotonic solutions.
Answer:
Diffusion is the net movement of any substance from a higher concentration region to the lower concentration region. It is conducting by a concentration gradient.
Osmosis is a process in which solvent (molecules) pass through a semipermeable membrane (SPM) from a lower concentration solution region to a higher concentration region so it equalizes the concentrations on each side of the SPM.
A hypotonic solution is a solution that has a higher concentration of solutes inside the cell than outside of the cell. Thus the movement of water is from outside to the inside of the cell.
A hypertonic solution is a solution in which solutes concentration is greater outside the cell and low concentration inside. The movement of water is from inside the cell to outside the cell.
An isotonic solution where two solutions having the same concentration inside and outside of the cell so there is free movement of molecules across a semipermeable membrane.
During sexual arousal in males and females, erotic thoughts and/or sensory stimulation both lead to _____________ that produces engorgement of the erectile tissues.
a. sympathetic activity
b. hypothalamic activity
c. increased cerebellar activity
d. parasympathetic activity
e. testosterone secretion
Answer:
D. Parasympathetic activity
Explanation:
The parasympathic system is part of the Autonomous Nervous System. They have two types colinergic receptors: muscarinic receptors M1, M2, M3 and M4 and nicotinic receptors. Through M3 receptors, the parasympathetic effect in the male sex organ is erection.
The scientific name of brewer's yeast, which is an excellent experimental organism used to study eukaryotic cells, is __________.
(a) E. coli
(b) D. melanogaster
(c)S. cerevisiae
(d) C. elegans
Answer: Option C " S. cerevisiae"
Explanation: Saccharomyces cerevisiae can be used as a model system for the fundamental cellular process related to eukaryotic organism.
The reason it is being used for the study of eukaryotic cells is as follows:
1- It has high multiplication rate.
2- As per the study, more than 60% of the functional gene is known.
3- 30% of the human genes has the same homology to this yeast
Hence, S. cerevisiae is used as a model organism for studying eukaryotic cells.
Why is reflex testing an important diagnostic tool in physical examinations?
Answer:
Reflex test determines the injury of spinal cord and neuromuscular disease.
Explanation:
Reflex test is a type of neurological examination that determines the functioning of both the motor and sensory pathway. This is a simple test that explains the integrity of nervous system.
Reflex test helps in measuring the strength and presence of number of reflexes. This test is helpful to determine the location of spinal cord injury and neuromuscular diseases.
How do you know if you have rheumatoid arthritis
Answer:
Patients would get Joint stiffness, swollen joints, some will get fatigue, lack of energy, low fever, if there damage to the lungs they'll get shortness of breath.
Explanation:
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the synovial joints of the hands, feet, and cervical spine.
Symptoms: RA causes joints to become swollen, stiff, and painful. It typically affects joints symmetrically, meaning if one side of the body is affected, the other side likely will be too. Commonly affected areas are the hands, feet, and neck.
Autoimmune Disease: RA is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks healthy tissue. This attack leads to inflammation of the joint lining, breakdown of cartilage, and eventual pain as bones start to rub against each other.
Risk Factors: RA is more common in women than men, and the typical age of onset is between 40 to 50 years of age. Factors like genetics, environment, and possible hormonal changes can contribute to the development of RA.
Diagnosis: Diagnosing RA involves several steps:
Clinical Evaluation: A rheumatologist will evaluate your symptoms, such as joint inflammation and pain.Medical Imaging: X-rays and MRI scans can help detect joint damage and inflammation.Blood Tests: Specific blood tests look for markers that indicate RA, such as rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies.Advanced Imaging: Sometimes, an arthrogram, which is a type of medical imaging that uses a contrast agent, is performed. This technique visualizes the soft tissue structures within the joints, such as cartilage and tendons, allowing early detection of degenerative changes.
Which psychiatric disorder consists of behaviors such as repetitive hand washing, checking if doors are locked, etc.?
a. anxiety disorder
b. attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. panic disorder
The correct answer is C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation
Obsessive-compulsive disorder or OCD is a psychiatric or mental disorder in which people mainly shows compulsion or repetitive behaviors and obsession which become repetitive and automatic as the individual is unable to control these behaviors which leads to issues in the individual's daily life. Because of this, in OCDs behaviors such as counting certain elements compulsively, storing objects in a certain way, repetitive hand washing, doing certain actions a specific number of times and checking if the doors are locked over and over are common. Additionally, this type of disorder is linked to anxiety disorder as irrational anxiety and fears can lead to compulsions and disorders. Considering this, it can be concluded it is Obsessive-compulsive disorder the disorder that consists of behaviors such as repetitive hand washing, checking if doors are locked, etc.
The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to
a. the end-systolic volume.
b. the end-diastolic volume.
c. the afterload.
d. the heart rate.
e. contractility.
Answer:
The end-diastolic volume.
Explanation:
The Frank-Starling law is also named as the Starling's law. This law explains the relationship between the end-diastolic volume and stroke volume.
This law propose that the stroke volume increases with the increase in the end-diastolic volume of the heart, all other factors remain same. Hence, the stroke volume is proportional to the end-diastolic volume.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The Frank-Starling law states that the stroke volume of the heart is proportional to the end-diastolic volume. It means that the more the heart is filled during diastole (end-diastolic volume), the more it ejects during systolic contraction (stroke volume). This law is pivotal in maintaining the balance of blood volume in the heart.
Explanation:The Frank-Starling law of the heart is a physiological phenomenon which states that the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart (the end diastolic volume) when all other factors remain constant.
In other words, the stroke volume is proportional to the end-diastolic volume (Option B). The larger the volume of blood entering the heart during diastole (end-diastolic volume), the larger the volume of blood ejected during systolic contraction (stroke volume), which is an essential mechanism for maintaining the balance of input and output blood volume in the heart.
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Describe the nucleus position for each of these muscle types
1. Skeletal muscle nucleus position _________
2. Smooth muscle nucleus position _________
Answer:
1. Skeletal muscle nucleus position- Periphery of the cell
2. Smooth muscle nucleus position- At the center of the cell
Explanation:
The skeletal muscles are elongated and are tubular in shape. 40% of our body mass is made up of skeletal muscles. They are attached to the bones and help in movement. They consists of multiple nuclei and the nuclei are located at the periphery of the cell.
The smooth muscles are spindle shaped. They are wide in the middle and narrow at the end points. They are responsible for involuntary movements in the internal organs. These types of muscles have a single centrally located nucleus.
Thus,
1. Skeletal muscle nucleus position- Periphery of the cell
2. Smooth muscle nucleus position- At the center of the cell
Which of the functions below is least associated with hepatic function?
A. Lipid emulsification
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. glycogen storage
D. iron storage
E. digestive enzyme secretion
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Liver is a large reddish brown organ that is responsible for various types of function. It deals with many functions.
Some of them includes: Lipid emulsification, iron storage, Gluconeogenesis and glycogen storage.
It does not helps in the secretion of digestive enzymes secretion. Liver produces bilivirdin and bilirubin(yellowish fluid)which helps in the emulsification of fat droplets but bilivirdin and bilirubin are not digestive enzymes.
Hence, the correct answer is" option E".
Correct spelling of nontender
It can be spelled as either non tender or non-tender
Both are correct
An area in the body exposed to the external environment would be composed of which of the following tissue types?
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Connective tissue
c) Muscle tissue
d) Nervous tissue
Answer:
The answer is A: Epithelial tissue.
Explanation:
The epithelial tissue is the tissue that is mostly exposed to the external environment. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, it is a type of epithelial tissue, covering large spaces of the body. It consists mostly of dense accumulations of cells attached to each other that allow them to communicate with each other.
An area of the body exposed to the external environment would be composed of epithelial tissue, which protects the body, secretes substances, and absorbs nutrients.
An area of the body that is exposed to the external environment would likely be composed of epithelial tissue. This type of tissue includes sheets of cells that cover exterior surfaces of the body, line internal cavities and passageways, and form certain glands. The primary functions of epithelial tissue are to protect the body from external elements, to secrete substances, and to absorb nutrients. The tissues that are not primarily exposed to the external environment are connective tissue, which provides support and integrates parts of the body; muscle tissue, which allows for movement; and nervous tissue, which propagates electrochemical signals for communication. To directly answer the question, the tissue type that would compose an area exposed to the external environment is (a) Epithelial tissue.
Which one of the following anti-hypertensive drugs may cause postural hypotension?
a. Propanolol
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Losartan
Answer:
The correct option is : b. Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation:
Postural hypotension, also known as the orthostatic hypotension, is a medical condition in which the blood pressure of a person drops while in a standing or sitting position. This condition is characterized by a drop in the systolic and diastolic blood pressure of at least 20 and 10 mm Hg respectively. This drop in blood pressure can be sudden or gradual.
The hydrochlorothiazide is an anti-hypertensive drug which can cause postural hypotension.
Bone is an ancient tissue (evolved +/- 500 million years ago) and is present only in Chordates.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
Bone is an ancient tissue (evolved +/- 500 million years ago) and is NOT present only in Chordates.
The purpose of vagotomy when doing a gastric resection is to:
A. produce gastric atony.
B. decrease gastric acid hypersecretion.
C. increase gastrin formation to neutralize hydrochloric acid.
D. decrease midline periodic pain.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Vagotomy is a medical procedure which is used to decrease the gastric secretion in the stomach by denervating the parental cell that produces acid.
This condition is useful in case pf peptic ulcers. It is also used to eliminate or reduce the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux in the patients who has already suffered from this.
In this operation the vagus nerve is cut down to reduce the rate of gastric secretion.
Thus, the correct answer is option B
The foldings of the plasma membrane of intestinal epithelial cells that produce the "brush border" are called ____________.
Answer:
The villi present on the epithelial lining of the intestinal wall has numerous microvilli that form the brush border.
Explanation:
The villi are the finger-like, small projections or foldings, present on the epithelial lining of the intestinal wall and extends into the lumen of small intestine. The special structure of the villi maximizes the surface area of the intestine, in order to maximize the absorption of nutrients.
The villus has numerous microvilli projecting from enterocytes of the epithelium. These numerous microscopic projections form the striated or brush border.
Protection against illegal searches and seizures is specified by
a. the fourth amendment
b. the Civil Rights Act
c. the Declaration of Independence.
d. none of the above.
Answer:
A. The Fourth Amendment
Explanation:
The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects people's rights to be secure in their "persons, houses, papers, and effects", meaning that the government can not do searches and seizures to people's properties or belongings unless those searches and seizures are deemed reasonable under the law or legal and follow certain conditions. This Amendment was designed to protect people's privacy and to limit the government power so they can not act at the expense of citizen's rights.
HSV-1 infections always occur above the waste.
a) True
b) False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Herpes 1 belongs to the Alphaherpesvirinae subfamily, this virus targets mucoepithelial cells and diseminate through intimate contact. Although generally HSV-1 infections occurs above the waste (encephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, coriorentinitis, pharyngitis, esophagitis, tracheobronchitis and oral) there are other clinical manfiestations such as gladiatorium, genital herpes and warths that prove this statement false. Herpes 1 is not totally conclusive in the sense that the areas where it occurs do not comply with the definition given "above the waist". The epidemiological importance is able to determine where it is predominant.
The thyroid hormones increase metabolic rate by increasing all of the following except:
a. oxygen utilization
b. glycogenolysis
c. lipolysis
d. Na+/K+ ATPase activity
e. CO2 production
f. protein synthesis
Answer:
The correct answer is option e. CO₂ production.
Explanation:
Thyroid hormones stimulate an increase in metabolic rate. It increased oxygen consumption and rates of ATP hydrolysis. Increased thyroid hormone levels stimulate lipid mobilization. They also increase the oxidation of fatty acids in several tissues.
Thyroid hormones have an effect on the increase of metabolism of carbohydrates, including increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis to producing free glucose.
CO₂ production is not a factor that increases metabolic rate stimulated by thyroid hormone but an outcome of the metabolic activity.
Thus, the correct answer is option e. CO₂ production.
Explain what the activities of ion channels might be if the threshold for both RP and AP were the same
Answer and Explanation:
the threshold potential of neuron is greater than resting potential if both RP and AP will become same then there will be no transmission of ions and no electric signal will be generated so no message will be transmitted.if RP and AP will be same then the K(+) channel and Na(+) channel open at the same time and there will be no formation of voltage gradient and so no message will be transmitted.in case of sodium potassium pump if RP and AP are equal then it will always be open and no formation of concentration gradient it may cause sever pathological damage due the long opening of the channelName and briefly describe the three functions of the small intestine.
Answer:
Functions of the small intestine:
- Digestion process = contributes to end digestion by adding pancreatic and bile juices to the process.
- Absorption process = Aids in the absorption of water, vitamins, proteins, salts, fats necessary for the body.
- Food transit (peritalism) = the chyme formed in the stomach continues its process in the intestine where more digestive enzymes are joined until it is taken to the large intestine with many products already discarded from the digestion.
Why most of the microorganisms cannot survive in the stomach?
A myringotomy knife is used on the:
A. nose
B. eye
C. ear
D. throat
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. ear.
Explanation:
A myringotomy is a surgery in which a very small incision is made in the tympanic membrane or eardrum of the ear by the surgeon to release pressure created by excessive fluid, or to remove pus from the middle ear.
The surgeon uses the myringotomy knife to create an incision in the tympanic membrane. The myringotomy knife is a needle-like a lancet blade which helps in piercing and incision.
Thus, the correct answer is option C. ear.
A myringotomy knife is used in the surgical procedure called myringotomy, which is performed on the ear, not nose, eye or throat. This tool helps to relieve pressure or fluid build-up that is causing chronic ear infections.
Explanation:A myringotomy knife is a surgical tool used in medicine, particularly in the field of otolaryngology, which is the area of medicine concerning the ear, nose, and throat, but this specific tool is primarily designed to be used on the ear. The word 'myringotomy' comes from the Greek 'myringa,' meaning 'drum,' referring to the ear drum, and 'tome,' meaning 'cutting.' Therefore, a myringotomy is a surgical procedure performed on the eardrum, often to relieve pressure or remove fluid in cases of chronic otitis media (ear infections).
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