Answer: The hippocampus may shrink due to over exposure to neurotransmitter and hormones.
Explanation:
The posttraumatic stress disorder( PTSD) can be defined as the mental condition which is triggered by the terrifying events either by experiencing it or witnessing it.
Symptoms includes: nightmares, flashbacks and some uncontrollable thoughts about the events.
This is caused because of release of excessive hormone and neurotransmitter which tends to shrink the hippo campus of brain.
A client has a rash on the arm that has been treated with an antibiotic without eradicating the rash. What type of examination can be used to determine if the rash is a fungal rash using ultraviolet light?
The Wood's lamp examination is used to identify a fungal infection on the skin by causing the fungal elements to fluoresce under ultraviolet light. If the rash is fungal, it will necessitate a different course of treatment, typically with antifungal medications rather than antibiotics.
Explanation:In order to determine whether the rash is a fungal infection, an examination called a Wood's lamp examination can be used. A Wood's lamp, also referred to as a black lamp, emits ultraviolet light. When directed towards certain types of skin infections, like tineas or ringworm, the ultraviolet light causes the fungal elements such as spores and hyphae to fluoresce.
This type of diagnostic approach enables health professionals to visualize and identify the presence of fungi on the skin. If the rash fluoresces under this special lamp, it's likely a fungal infection. After a positive Wood's lamp examination, the doctor might take a specimen from the lesion, scrape it and examine it further under a microscope to confirm the fungal infection.
If the treatment with antibiotics has not resolved the condition, it may be because many antibacterial medicines do not effectively kill fungi, requiring a different course of treatment with antifungal medicines. It's crucial that the correct diagnosis is made to ensure the appropriate treatment is given, which may help to eradicate the rash.
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Raoul decided to ask a hypnotherapist to help him deal with difficult childhood issues. What Raoul doesn't realize is that, if the hypnotherapist asks leading questions, the resulting memories can be inaccurate because of:
Answer:
The resulting memories may be inaccurate due to significant multiplication of neurons in childhood.
Explanation:
Our childhood memories are inaccurate and often false due to the significant multiplication of neurons in childhood, resulting in modification of the brain circuits associated with memory, resulting in a loss of memories created during the early years of life. For this reason, Raoul may find it difficult to deal with difficult issues of his childhood. This is because the hypnotherapist may ask important questions and Roan's resulting memories may be inaccurate due to the significant multiplication of neurons.
Carmen stayed up all night studying, getting only about two hours of sleep total. While she was able to finish her exam, she was unable to focus, and much of what she had studied the night before seemed to be forgotten. Carmen's inability to remember and to stay focused during her exam is most likely due to ______.
The connective tissue sheath that covers a long bone is
The connective tissue sheath that covers a long bone is known as the periosteum, which plays a critical role in bone health including growth, repair and nourishment.
Explanation:The connective tissue sheath that covers a long bone is known as the periosteum. It plays a significant role in bone growth and repair by protecting the bone, aiding in fracture repair, and nourishing bone tissue. This sheath contains a number of blood vessels and nerves, which allow it to carry nutrients to the bone and sense physical changes. It also allows the differentiation of cells into bone forming cells during the repair of fractures or new bone growth. Therefore, the periosteum, as a covers of bones, serves a critical role in skeletal health.
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An African American woman in the workforce has challenges associated with being both a woman and also an African American. The stress she experiences because of this is known as _____ stress.
Answer: Racial Stress
Explanation:
It could be racial stress because she's stressed about being black and being a woman, and when you're a woman and you're black, you get paid less than white women.
Final answer:
The stress experienced by an African American woman in the workforce due to challenges associated with both her gender and race is known as intersectional stress. It includes the triple burden of dealing with gender bias, racial discrimination, and socioeconomic challenges, which often lead to intensified and compounding stress levels affecting mental and physical health.
Explanation:
The stress an African American woman in the workforce might experience due to being subjected to challenges associated with both her gender and her race is referred to as intersectional stress. This concept acknowledges the unique combination of biases and the triple burden of gender, race, and often socioeconomic status. For women of color, their intersectional identity can lead to increased stressors in the workplace, manifesting in different ways including discrimination, unjust working conditions, and work-family conflict.
Those who face the triple burden often encounter not only gender bias but also racial discrimination and socioeconomic challenges. With many African American women in the workforce not only managing work demands but also family and caregiving responsibilities, their stress can be exacerbated by system inequalities and a lack of support systems. This is particularly pressing when considering historical contexts where Black women have shouldered caregiving roles without adequate support, impacting their self-care and overall health.
Injustice in work conditions, lack of work-life balance, and the added pressures of dual-earning households where family responsibilities spill over into work life are all contributors to intensified stress levels. This stress can escalate further when individuals endure stressors in multiple areas of their life, creating a compounding effect that systematically affects their mental and physical health.
Jane gets bitten by a mosquito. Through the bite, she can become infected with an organism carried by the mosquito. What role did the mosquito play in the chain of transmission?
Answer:
The mosquito acted as a vector.
Explanation:
The mosquito is acting as a carrier of organism of what she later got infected from.
Omega 3 fatty acids contribute to cardiovascular health by lowering triglyceride levels and reducing platelet aggregation. Good sources of these fatty acids are:
a. Lobster, bass, and oysters
b. Catfish, shrimp, and clams
c. Perch, walleye, and pike
d. Herring, salmon, and rainbow trout.
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Omega 3 fatty acids contribute to cardiovascular health by lowering triglyceride levels and reducing platelet aggregation. Good sources of these fatty acids are:___, would be: Herring, salmon, and rainbow trout.
Explanation:
The subject of cardiovascular health has become a priority in most countries in the world, due to the pandemic of obesity, and due to the high levels of people with cardiovascular diseases due to poor diet, and little exercise. As such a lot of research has shed light on how to be able to control this situation and among the many results that have been found is the one of triglycerides, present in fat-rich foods, and certain carbs, that have been responsible for a lot of the cardiovascular problems the healthcare system is having to face. One way to control high levels of cholesterol, another huge contributor to cardiovascular diseases, and triglycerides, is the consumption of omega 3 fatty acids, both of vegetable sources and of animal sources. On the animal sources, we have that fish, especially fatty fish like salmon, trout, cod, and others like them, are really good and important sources of two of the three types of omega 3 fatty acids: DHA and EPA. The other one, linoleic acid, is more common in vegetable and grain sources.
Leslie participated in a research study in which she was given a dose of Ritalin and reported to researchers that she found the effects pleasurable. Other participants given the same dose reported the effects were unpleasant. What did researchers find when they compared dopamine receptors in her brain to those who found the drug unpleasant?
A. Leslie had fewer dopamine receptors than other participants.
B. Leslie had more dopamine receptors than other participants.
C. There was no difference in the numbers of dopamine receptors.
D. Only Leslie had dopamine receptors.
Answer:
B. Leslie had more dopamine receptors than other participants.
Explanation:
Ritalin (methylphenidate hydrochloride) is a central nervous system stimulant drug used to treat Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). Ritalin also serves to treat narcolepsy, a sleep disorder that is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, even if the person has slept well at night.
Ritalin increases the activity of certain areas of the brain that are poorly active, promoting increased attention and concentration, and decreasing impulsive behavior. In narcolepsy, Ritalin works by relieving sleep throughout the day. The mechanism of action of Ritalin is the same as that of amphetamines and other stimulants, ie it increases the concentration and reuse of neurotransmitters such as dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain. For this reason, people with more dopamine receptors in their brain (such as Leslie) when taking ritalin feel pleasant feelings.
A woman becomes very ill. Her doctor has never seen her symptoms before. He collects data about where she has been over the last weeks, with whom she has been in contact, what she has eaten, and so on. What type of research is the doctor conducting?
Answer:
Case study
Explanation:
Case study is a qualitative method that usually consists of a way of deepening an individual unit. It serves to answer questions that the researcher does not have much control over the phenomenon studied. Case study contributes to a better understanding of individual phenomena, and other processes which we are not familiar with. For this reason, we can say that in the case of the woman exposed in the question, the doctor used the case study to collect data that would help him understand what was happening to her, since the doctor did not know the symptoms she had.
A legal document that states a client's health-related wishes — such as a preference for pain management if the client becomes terminally ill — and also allows the client's adult child to direct the client's care, is:a. will.
b. standard of care.
c. license.
d. advance directive.
Answer:
d. advance directive.
Explanation:
Advance directive is a patient-made document containing written instructions. The purpose is to guide the physician's care when the patient is unable to express his or her will. The patient's instructions may be regarding a preference for treating pain if the patient becomes terminally ill, for example. This document also allows the patient's adult child to direct patient care. Importantly, early directive is not the same as the document that allows euthanasia. The purpose of advance directives is not to shorten the lives of patients, but to prevent the useless and painful prolongation of the death process. If desired by the patient, the advance directive serve as an instrument against dysthanasia, that is, against the introduction of treatments unable to bring benefits to people in their later stages of life.
A nurse is providing education to a client with infertility concerns. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate understanding of the Spinnbarkeit Test?
A. at midpoint in my menstrual cycle, i need to come to the clinic for a cervical exam looking for color changes to my cervical mucus
B. i will need to purchase an OTC ovulation kit that will tell me when I am currently ovulating
C. I will need to purchase a microscope and look for a fern-like pattern from a sample of my cervical mucus to indicate when i am ovulating
D. halfway in my cycle I will need to check my cervical mucus to see if i can stretch it in to long strands, indicating i am close to ovulating
Answer:
The correct answer is D - "Halfway in my cycle I will need to check my cervical mucus to see if I can stretch it in to long strands, indicating I am close to ovulating."
Explanation:
Infertility refers to the inability to conceive or reproduce. Spinnbarkeit is a biomedical term that refers to the varying stringy quality that can be found in mucus, saliva, and similar fluids around the time of ovulation. It comes from a German word that means stretchable. This type of mucus is usually clear and slippery caused by high oestrogen levels. It is important to note that any mucus at the vulva area is noteworthy as it can signal ovarian activity which indicates potential fertility. By stretching the mucus between your index finger and thumb, you will be able determine if your cervical fluid has the afore mentioned stretchy or stringy quality. This is when the mucus can stretch up to 4 or 5 inches before snapping. The appearance of this mucus means the woman has a greater chance of being impregnated as this is optimal for the survival of sperm, which could last for up to 72 hours.
What kind of processing is exemplified by the following scenario? Esther's mother offers her a new dish she's been working on-a raisin-jalapeno quiche. Esther's body responds first: Esther eyes the content of the skillet, and smells the mix of raisins, jalapenos, and eggs. Her stomach churns and she looks away. Feeling disgust and disappointment, she says "I'm not hungry."
A. bottom-upB. sensory adaptationC. top-downD. vertical-horizontal
Answer:
The best answer to the question: What kind of processing is exemplified by the following scenario, would be, A: Bottom-up.
Explanation:
Human capacity to process information, provided to it by the different senses, environment, experiences, and learning, is pretty complex, and yet at the same time, simple. In this case, we have Esther, who comes in contact with something that has been unknown to her: the dish of raisin-jalapeno quiche that her mother has been working on. Although she has never been in contact with this, and therefore cannot know for sure if it is good, or bad, her senses come in contact with the object and rely the information to her brain, evoking a response as the information is integrated in her mind. The way in which she acquires the knowledge, and gives a response is a very instinctual one: her eyes see the contents on the skillet and rely their perception of the food, and then her sense of smell also conveys information to the brain. Esther´s brain appraises the dish from the bottom (the perception of the individual parts of the dish, instead of trying the dish before reacting to it) using her senses, and then forms the response, which is to reject the dish. This is an example of bottom-up processing.
Final answer:
Esther's reaction to the raisin-jalapeno quiche is an example of top-down processing, where her previous experiences and expectations influence her perception of the new dish. Hence, the correct answer is C. top-down.
Explanation:
The kind of processing exemplified by Esther’s response to her mother’s new dish, a raisin-jalapeno quiche, is an example of top-down processing. This type of processing occurs when our expectations and past experiences influence how we perceive new stimuli. In this scenario, Esther likely has had experiences or preconceived notions that guide her reaction. It is not the individual sensory elements (bottom-up processing), such as the sight or smell of the quiche, that primarily drive her reaction, but rather her expectations and past encounters with food that cause her to feel disgust and disappointment before even trying it. Hence, the correct answer is C. top-down.
The fight-or-flight response causes: A. An increased blood flow to the digestive system B. An increased blood flow to the muscles C. A decreased heart rate D. A decreased breathing rate
Answer:
an increased blood flow to the muscles
Explanation:
The fight-or-flight response causes an increased blood flow to the muscles.
What is the fight-or-flight response?The fight-or-flight response is a physiological response to stress that prepares the body to either fight or flee from a perceived threat. One of the key components of this response is the activation of the sympathetic nervous system, which triggers the release of adrenaline and other stress hormones.
These hormones cause a number of physiological changes in the body, including an increase in heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure.
In order to prepare the body for physical action, the fight-or-flight response also causes an increased blood flow to the muscles. This increased blood flow delivers more oxygen and nutrients to the muscles, providing them with the energy they need to take action.
Conversely, during the fight-or-flight response, there is a decreased blood flow to the digestive system, as the body redirects resources away from non-essential functions in order to focus on the perceived threat. The decreased heart rate and breathing rate are not characteristic of the fight-or-flight response.
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Some jokes may not be understood by younger children and are no longer found funny by teenagers. In middle childhood, however, understanding and appreciating such jokes is evidence of normally developing cognitive flexibility and social awareness. If a child does not "get" a joke, the lack of _____ understanding, even when a child has a large vocabulary, signifies cognitive problems.
Answer:
metaphorical
Explanation:
According to my research on studies conducted by various psychologists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question it is the lack of metaphorical understanding that is being mentioned in this question. In linguistics, something is metaphorical when you use it to stand for, or symbolize, another thing. Many psychology studies believe that the lack of understanding this can signify cognitive problems because you are not picking up on connections that should be made easily.
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Dr. Al-Suwaidi explains his clients' psychological problems by considering biological, psychological, social, and sociocultural explanations. He is using what the text refers to as the ____ model
a. multipathb. biopsychosocialc. multiculturald. integrative
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. Multipath.
Explanation:
Multipath model is the model that helps in the explanation or understanding of the different aspects of various influences such as psychological, sociocultural, biological and social explanations to develop psychological problems and their complexity.
It includes different components interaction and complexity of these components on the mental disorder such as genetic of biological, the society of sociocultural and family of social and personalty of psychological.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. multipath.
A client has come to the clinic to learn about diet changes she should make to reduce her chance of developing a chronic disease. What are the recommended daily requirements of EPA and DHA to reduce the risk of heart disease?
A) 500 mg/dayB) 600 mg/dayC) 800 mg/dayD) 1000 mg/day
Answer:
The best answer to the question: What are the recommended daily requirements of EPA and DHA to reduce the risk of heart disease, for a patient who comes into the clinic to ask how she can prevent the development of chronic diseases, would be: A: 500 mg/day.
Explanation:
DHA and EPA are two of the three types of omega 3 fatty acids that are not produced by the human body but that are needed to reduce the problems with heart and cardiovascular conditions in general, and also metabolism problems. Daily, people need to consume a certain amount of these two fatty acids through largely fish consumption. Fish, especially fatty fish like salmon, have been shown to have great quantities of these acids, and that is why the Dietary Guidelines recommend including seafood, but mostly these fatty fish, into the diet at least twice a week. The total amount of DHA and EPA that must be consumed by a person is 500 mg per day, while in pregnant women, the amount should be twice.
The daily requirement of EPA and DHA for prevention of heart disease in adults without a history of heart disease is 500 mg/day. For those with heart disease, the recommended amount is 1,000 mg/day. It's important to remember that diet is just one part of disease prevention.
Explanation:The recommended daily intake of Eicosapentaenoic Acid (EPA) and Docosahexaenoic Acid (DHA) as per established dietary guidelines is about 500 mg/day for adults who do not have a history of heart disease. However, for those with coronary heart disease or a history of heart attacks, the American Heart Association recommends a higher amount of 1,000 mg/day.
The main sources of EPA and DHA are seafood, particularly fatty fish like salmon, mackerel, and tuna. Another way to meet the daily requirement is through supplement forms, under the advice of a health professional. Please remember that changing dietary habits and lifestyle are only a part of a comprehensive approach to preventing chronic diseases like heart disease. It’s crucial to also consider exercise, stress management, and regular check-ups.
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You have been dispatched to a park for a 10-year-old boy who has fallen from a slide. His right wrist is deformed and he is in pain. He states that he lives with his mother and she is working. He does not know her work number. The EMT's best action would be to:
Answer:
Try to contact his mother, not next of kin, then take him to a hospital to receive medical attention.
Explanation:
Attempt to contact his mother's working place and therefore try to get hold of his mother via there. Or try to find out what school he goes to, and ask them to his mother's contact information. Then take him to the hospital and alert any other next of kins, try to check his phone (if he has one) for numbers or any of the people that are around him.
Which of the following would be least appropriate for any healthy weight reduction diet? 1) It should provide 45% of kilocalories from carbohydrates. 2) It should exclude all fats. 3) It should include all the major food groups. 4) It should be sustainable as a permanent lifestyle change.
Answer:
Number 2 is the least appropriate.
Explanation:
All diets should include fats, because there's not only bad fat, there's good fat that our body needs.
The type of fat that we should exclude from our diet are saturated fat and trans fat.
Our diet should include polyunsaturated fats, they include Omega 3 and Omega 6, wich are needed to have a healthy life. This types of good fats are consumed form natural sources. All processed fats are the ones we MUST exclude.
That's why the least appropriate diet is exclude all fats.
Final answer:
The least appropriate practice for a healthy weight reduction diet is excluding all fats, as it leads to nutritional imbalance and is not sustainable. A balanced diet with all macronutrients, such as the Mediterranean diet, tends to be more effective for long-term weight loss.
Explanation:
The option that would be least appropriate for any healthy weight reduction diet is the one that suggests a diet should exclude all fats. Completely excluding a major nutrient like fats can lead to a nutritionally imbalanced diet and is not sustainable as a permanent lifestyle change. Healthy diets should include a balance of macronutrients: carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Diets like the Mediterranean diet include healthy fats and have been found to support weight loss effectively.
It's important to note that high-protein/low-carbohydrate or low-fat diets may lead to initial weight loss due to lower calorie intake or restricted food choices. However, research indicates that for long-term success and overall health, diets should not drastically eliminate entire food groups. Sustainable weight loss and health benefits are more realistically achieved through balanced eating plans.
Samantha lives next door to a ninety-year-old woman named Ruth. She usually sees Ruth every couple of days in her garden. Recently, Ruth's son Joseph moved in with his mother. Samantha has heard yelling and screaming coming from Ruth's house and has not seen Ruth in several weeks. When she goes over to visit Ruth, Joseph answers the door and will not let Samantha in the house. What should Samantha consider as a first step?
Answer:
The best answer to the question: What should Samantha consider as a first step, would be: reporting the events she has witnessed, and her suspicions, to the proper authorities, first on the elderly abuse hotlines.
Explanation:
Because Samantha only has suspicions, and she has not actually seen anything, but she has heard certain things that further feed her suspicion, she should communicate these to the hotlines that are established all over the country to report abuse, be it against women, children, or the elderly. Since her neighbor, Ruth, is an elderly woman, and since Samanta has heard the screaming and yelling, and furthermore she has not seen her neighbor for a long time, with the added problem that the son, Joseph, will not let her see Ruth, then Samantha needs to report this immediately to the lines specialized for it. After that, Samantha cannot do much more. The case must be handled by the proper authorities.
Samantha should consider contacting local authorities or adult protective services for a welfare check on Ruth to ensure her safety and well-being, which can help prevent potential elder abuse.
Samantha is witnessing some concerning behavior from her elderly neighbor's son and has reason to believe that her neighbor, Ruth, might be in a situation of potential harm. A first step she might consider is contacting local authorities or adult protective services to conduct a welfare check on the elderly Ruth. This action would ensure that a professional can assess Ruth's safety and well-being and intervene if necessary. It's important in such situations to act promptly as it can help prevent potential elder abuse. Besides, Samantha could also reach out to other neighbors or Ruth's other family members if possible, to express her concerns and inquire about Ruth's well-being.
Charles was born in 1959. His mother took the drug thalidomide for nausea during her pregnancy. As a result, Charles was born with no hands. Charles's mother must have taken the drug between 28 and 54 days after conception because this is a _____ period for the development of the hands.
Answer:
The answer is: Critical period
Explanation:
Thalidomide is an immunomodulatory drug, which is prescribed as a tranquilizer or hypnotic for insomnia, anxiety and gastritis.
When administered by pregnant women during the first and the second trimester, this drug caused teratogenic deformities in the newborns.
The deformity caused depends majorly on how many days into the pregnancy the mother administered the drug. If the drug is taken up to day 28, it causes damage to the legs. This is because it is a critical period for the development of legs.
Critical period refers to the stage of development of the child. During this stage, the central nervous system is very sensitive to certain environmental stimuli.
A man’s life has been filled with misfortune and tragic experiences that were unexpected, unavoidable, and unpredictable. He is depressed and tells his therapist that he feels he cannot control the outcome of the events in his life. Which of the following best explains his depression?a. Learned helplessnessb. Repressionc. Operant conditioningd. Classical conditioninge. Biological rhythms
Answer:
The correct option is: a. Learned helplessness
Explanation:
Learned helplessness is a state of mind characterized by a perceived lack of control over the events or situations. A person subjected to repetitive adverse events or situations develops a sense of powerlessness and thus is unwilling to avoid subsequent encounters.
According to this theory, depression and other related mental conditions, can be a result of the perceived or real lack of control over the outcomes of the events or situations.
Julius is obsessed with avoiding germs and feels compelled to bathe at least 10 times every day. His therapist suggests that Julius continues his maladaptive bathing because this behavior temporarily reduced his anxiety on many past occasions. The therapist's suggestion most directly reflects a ________ perspective.a. biologicalb. traitc. learningd. psychoanalytice. humanistic
Answer:
The correct answer is - learning prospective.
Explanation:
Learning perspective is a science that is related to the psychological process that underlines the environmental, emotional, experience and cognitive behavior influence on human or animals actions or behavior.
It also involves social cognitive learning and behaviorism in it. It allows understanding of how these influences help in retained knowledge and changed the perspective of the living world.
Thus, the correct answer is - learning.
One of the goals Briana sets for herself in order to lower her blood pressure is to run four miles, four days/week. She likes to run, and schedules her runs for the four days when she doesn’t have classes. She wears a fitbit to track her distance, and runs with friends on three out of the four days. She plans to keep this up for three months, and then evaluate her progress and adjust her goal. True or False.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The proper hardwork helps the individual to set and achieve their goals. The goals that aligns with the smart goal setting helps the individual to attain and succeed in their life.
Briana sets goal to lower her blood pressure. She has set a smart goal. To achieve her goal, she must start to run up to miles and tracks her distance and continued all this for several month. She is adopted the criteria of smart goal setting to achieve her goal.
Thus, the correct answer is true.
Quinn is a three-year-old boy with a congenital heart malformation. While recovering in the pediatric intensive care unit after surgical correction, he is accidentally given ten times the appropriate dose of heparin. Although he suffers no permanent injuries, the leaders of the hospital decide to conduct a RCA2. As they assemble the team, which of the following would you recommend?
(A) Include Quinn's parents.(B) Put together a team of mostly nurses and physicians.(C) Create a team of members who fulfill several roles.(D) Include the health care providers involved in Quinn's care.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Quinn is a three year boy with a congenital heart malformation. There was some problem as they gave 10 times more heparin to the boy.
There was a meeting conducted in the hospital and the members of the hospital were included in the discussion or meeting that was going on the condition of the boy.
The meeting included all the members who can fulfill several roles in improving the condition of the boy.
NEED ANSWER ASAP!!
Which of the following is not an example of harassment?
being polite even if you don’t like a person
calling someone names
making jokes about a person
threatening a person
Being polite even if you don’t like a person is not an example of harassment.
What do you mean by harassment?The law states that harassment is when a person behaves in a way which is intended to cause you distress or alarm. The behaviour must happen on more than one occasion. It can be the same type of behaviour or different types of behaviour on each occasion.
Legitimate and reasonable management actions such as actions taken to transfer demote, and discipline an employee provided these actions are conducted in a reasonable way are not considered workplace harassment.
The court can order the person harassing you to stay away from you - this is called getting an 'injunction'. The court can also award you compensation. If the person keeps harassing you after you get an injunction, they've broken the law.
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A woman is 40 years old and a heavy smoker. She has a single sexual partner but has very irregular menstrual cycles. She wants a highly reliable contraceptive. Assuming that all of the following methods of birth control are acceptable to her, which of the following would be the best recommendation?a) An ovulation suppressantb) A diaphragm and spermicidec) A spermicidal suppositoryd) The rhythm (calendar) method
Answer:
The correct option is: b) A diaphragm and spermicide
Explanation:
Diaphragm is a type of birth control method that has been found to be moderately effective. The diaphragm has to be placed six hours before, over the cervix of the uterus with spermicide.
It is a barrier method of birth control, therefore, it does not interfere with the natural menstrual cycle of the female.
Therefore, for a 40 year old female who is a heavy smoker and has irregular menstrual cycles, a diaphragm with spermicide is the best recommendation.
Dr. Ratzinger has hypothesized that thimerosal vaccines cause autism spectrum disorder (ASD). He compares a group of children who received the thimerosal vaccine and have been diagnosed with ASD to a group of children who received the thimerosal but do not have a diagnosis of ASD. The group of children with diagnosis of ASD is referred to as the __________ group; the group of children that does not have the diagnosis is referred to as the _______ group.
Answer:
Criterion and comparison.
Explanation:
Autism spectrum disorder may be defined as the developmental disorder that affects the behavior and communication of an individual. This disease can be diagnosed in the early stage of life.
Criterion group and comparison group both are involved in the discovery. Criterion group are used as a standard group in the research. The comparison group is used to compare the two different effects of the research. Here, the children that receive thimerosal vaccine and diagnose with ASD are called criterion group beacuse this group helps to decide the effect of the drug. The group of children that receive thimerosal vaccine but do not diagnose with ASD are considered as comaprison group as they allow to compare the effects of drug.
Thus, the answer is criterion and comparison.
In 1928, Frederic Griffith showed that
a. A chemical derived from dead bacteria can produce heritable changes in the traits of living cells.
b. Different alleles of the same gene can be either dominant or recessive in their influence on phenotype.
c. DNA replication is semiconservative.
d. The relative content of the four bases in DNA differed between organisms, but the amount of G is always equal to C and the amount of A is always equal toT.
e. The bacteriophage T2 introduces DNA, not protein, into the bacterium it infects.
Answer:
a. A chemical derived from dead bacteria can produce heritable changes in the traits of living cells.
Explanation:
In 1928 Griffith conducted an experiment with two strains of bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae, II-R and III-S. III-S was a virulent strain which killed the mice on injecting with it while II-R strain was non virulent and did not harm the mice. When heat killed III-S strain was injected into mice,they again survived because the bacteria were dead.
Griffith then injected heat killed III-S and live II-R strain into the mice. To his surprise, the mice died. He then concluded that living cells of non virulent II-R strain had inherited a chemical from heat killed virulent III-S strain and thus were able to kill the mice. This chemical was called as transforming principle and later was discovered to be DNA. Non virulent strain had been transformed into virulent strain by taking up the DNA from the latter.
Which of the following best explains, how good body composition is attained?
A. taking in a greater amount of energy than is released by the body.
B. taking in a lesser amount of energy than is released by the body.
C. balancing the amount of energy that is taken in with the amount of energy that is released by the body.
D. none of the above.
Answer: C. balancing the amount of energy that is taken in with the amount of energy that is released by the body.
Explanation:
In physical fitness the composition of the body can be described as the percentage of the water, bone, protein, fat and muscle mass in the body of a human.
A good body composition is attained when the optimal regulation or balance of the amount of energy taken inside the body in the form of food and the amount of energy is released from the body by respiration, excretion and by other means.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
edge
The assessment findings of a 5-year-old with a history of asthma include extreme shortness of breath, nasal flaring, coughing, pulsus paradoxus, and use of accessory respiratory muscles. There is no wheezing and the chest is silent in many areas. How should you interpret your assessment?
Answer:
The child may be having such a severe asthma episode that the airways are closed, so start oxygen and get a doctor immediately.
Explanation:
Asthma is the narrowing of the bronchi (channels that carry air to the lungs) that makes it difficult for air to pass, causing contractions or bronchospasm. Seizures compromise breathing, making it difficult. When the asthma attack is very severe, extreme breathlessness, nasal burning, cough, pulsus paradoxus, and use of accessory respiratory muscles may occur. This is a very serious condition and needs the patient to receive urgent medical attention. The child exposed in the question is having a serious asthma picture, so his parents need to provide oxygen and take him to a hospital as soon as possible.