Answer:
Explanation:
anglion cells are the first neurons in the retina that respond with action potentials.
Assume we have an electrode either in the ganglion cell layer of the retina or in the optic nerve. The response of the ganglion cell will depend upon the responses of the cells that feed into the ganglion cell, including the photoreceptors, the bipolar cells and the various lateral interconnections via horizontal cells and amacrine cells. However, what we are really interested in is the relationship between this ganglion cell's activity (firing rate) and the visual stimulus image.
H.K. Hartline of Rockefeller University in New York did the first important experiments on this, working in the limulus (horseshoe crab). Later Stephen Kuffler at Harvard University, and Horace Barlow at Cambridge University in England also did some of the pioneering work on this topic in the early 1950s, working on the visual systems of both frogs and cats. They analyzed the ganglion cells' sensitivity to light by using the following simple technique. A very small spot of light was flashed on the surface of the retina for a brief duration. The position of the spot of light was systematically varied across the retinal surface, and while they did this the response of the ganglion cell was continuously monitored.
A spot of light in the center of the receptive field optimally activates an ON-center ganglion cell by depolarizing it, as the cell responds positively to direct light stimulus on the center and negatively (hyperpolarizes) to light on the surround.
The ON-center ganglion cell is optimally activated when light stimulus occurs directly in the center of its receptive field but not in the surround. When a spot of light covers the center, the ON-center ganglion cell responds by depolarizing, as the center region is directly connected to the photoreceptors that trigger this response through decreased glutamate release. Conversely, light in the surround causes opposing effects due to indirect communication via horizontal and amacrine cells, resulting in hyperpolarization. Thus, the ideal stimulus for this cell type would be a spot of light precisely covering the center region without affecting the surround. Considering this, the correct answer is A. A spot of light in the center of the receptive field. This stimulus will lead to an increase in the ganglion cell's activity since there is less inhibition from the photoreceptors and the bipolar cells directly associated with the center of the receptive field.
In a chemical reaction, (blank)
are the substances present after the reaction.
Answer:
products
Explanation: Substances present BEFORE a reaction occurs are described as reactants. Substances present AFTER a reaction has occurred are described as products
Answer:
Products
Explanation:
In a chemical reaction,
Products
are the substances present after the reaction.
The term diploe refers to the: a. double-layered nature of the connective tissue covering the bone b. fact that most bones are formed of two types of bone tissue c. internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones d. two types of marrow found within most bones
Answer:The term diploe refers to the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones.
Explanation:
A diabetic, who does not utilize insulin properly, will metabolize fats instead of glucose. A condition called diabetic ketoacidosis is a common result of excessive fat metabolism, causing blood pH values of 7.1 or less (normal range is 7.35-7.45). What has happened to the blood pH and why?A) The pH is below normal because buffers can donate OH. B) The pH is above normal (basic) because the ketones are too basic, C) The pH is not affected because the blood buffers can absorb the excess H⁺. D) The pH is below normal (acidic) because the buffering capacity was exceeded.
Answer:The correct answer to the question is option D
THE PH IS BELOW NORMAL (ACIDIC) BECAUSE THE BUFFERING CAPACITY WAS EXCEEDED.
Explanation: When insulin is being utilized well by a diabetic,glucose is metabolized because the insulin administered helps the body cells to pick up glucose from the food we eat and convert it to energy for the body to work with and function well.But when insulin is not being utilized properly by a diabetic,fats are metabolized instead of glucose that is to say that,the cells in the body are not sensitive to the glucose supplied by the food we eat which makes the body to be hypoglycemic (low blood glucose level),the body inorder to raise the blood glucose level starts breaking down stored fats in the body at a rate that is higher than normal inorder to provide energy, the liver then processes the broken down fats into a fuel that is known as ketones, these ketones are released into the blood causing the blood to be acidic,the buffering property of blood on a normal note is suppose to resist the changes in the PH of the blood,but when the buffering capacity is exceeded,there won't be any resistance to the change in the blood PH which will inturn lower the blood PH level making it acidic.
This is exactly what happened to the diabetic being described in the question.
The role that p53 protein plays in suppressing inappropriate progression through the cell cycle depends on all of the following except _______.
Options are not provided in the question. The complete question is as following:
The role that p53 protein plays in suppressing inappropriate progression through the cell cycle depends on all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A) p53 indirectly blocks G1 to S transition in the cell cycle
B) p53 activates transcription of WAF1
C) p53 stability increases in the presence of unrepaired DNA lesions
D) the ability of p53 to bind DNA lesions
Answer: D) the ability of p53 to bind DNA lesions
Explanation:
The activities of the protein p53 are dependent on its binding DNA. Specific post-translational modifications to the p53 protein are important for efficient sequence-specific binding and transcription activities. Non-sequence-specific DNA binding can involve a broad range of p53 proteins and predominate as more serious DNA damage or greater induction of p53 protein. P53 Protein is not strictly essential for sensing and repairing DNA damage. Alternatively, p53 protein can control an apoptosis checkpoint by competing with DNA repair proteins for non-sequence-specific binding in the DNA duplex to exposed single-stranded regions.
Hence, while suppresing inappropriate progression through the cell cycle protein p53 does not bind to DNA lesions.
Hence, the correct option is D.
In testing a hypothesis thatʺterritorial defense in European robins is a fixed action pattern that isreleased by the sight of orange feathers,ʺresearchers found that robins defended their territory byattacking anything that was of similar size and had an orange patch. What experiment would youperform next to determine that the color initiated the defense response?A) Repeat the experiment by removing the patch completely.B) Repeat the experiment using a blue patch instead of an orange patch.C) Repeat the experiment by using a model of a robin that was twice the size of a normal robinbut with a small orange patch.D) Repeat the experiment by using a model of a robin that had an orange patch that was twicethe size of a normal patch.
Answer:
The correct answer is option A) "Repeat the experiment by removing the patch completely".
Explanation:
In this example, researchers believe that European robins have a territorial defense pattern where they attack anything similar to orange feathers, including an orange patch. In order to establish if the color initiated defense response is real it is necessary to repeat the experiment by removing the patch completely. If the European robins do not longer attack, then the researchers can conclude that the color initiated defense response is real.
Fill in the sentences below, which explain how character displacement evolved in the finch populations on Santa María and San Cristóbal islands.Los Hermanos, directional, interspecific competition, reduces, shallower beaks, less, Daphne, deeper beaks.1. When the finches first colonized Santa Maria and San Cristobal, G. fuliginosa probably had beak sizes similar to finches on ______ island, and G. fortis probably had beak sizes similar to finches on ______ island.2. Significant overlap in beak size would have resulted in ______ for food.3. Natural selection favored phenotypes that competed ______ for food.4. In G. fortis, finches with ______ were selected for.5. In G. fuliginosa, finches with ______ were selected for.6. Each species experienced ______ selection, which resulted in character displacement for beak size.7. Character displacement is adaptive for both populations because it ______ interspecific competition.
Answer:
los hermanos
daphne
interspecific competition
less
deeper breaks
shallower breaks
directional
reduces
In prokaryotes new mutations accumulate quickly in populations, while in eukaryotes new mutations accumulate much more slowly.
The primary reasons for this are:_________.
A) Prokaryotes have short generation times and large population sizes.
B) Prokaryotes have random mutations while eukaryotes can target genes for mutations; thus mutations may not accumulate as quickly in eukaryotes but they are more useful to the organism.
C) The DNA in prokaryotes is not as stable as eukaryotic DNA and is thus more likely to mutate.
D) Prokaryote mutations are less effective than eukaryote mutations in providing variation for evolution.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
In Prokaryotes the the rate of new mutations is much more as compared to the eukaryotes. The rate of accumulation of mutation is slow in case of eukaryote because their generation is long as compared to prokaryotes.
Prokaryotes have short generation time and large population size which enables them to accumulate the mutation quickly.
The machinery is also not that complex when it comes to prokaryotes. Transduction, conjugation and tranposable elements. So, the changes during these processes leads to mutation in the prokaryotes and can be observed quickly due to their small generation.
Number the steps from when a stimulus is received to when the body reacts.
The stimulus is received by sensory receptors.
Motor neurons cause muscles to contract so the body can react to the stimulus.
The brain processes the information through interneurons.
Interneurons transfer response information to motor neurons.
Sensory neurons carry stimulus information to the brain or spinal cord.
Answer:
15342
Explanation:
Got it right
When a stimulus is received, it is detected by sensory receptors, transmitted to the brain or spinal cord by sensory neurons, processed by interneurons, and then a response is carried out by motor neurons causing muscle contractions.
The process from when a stimulus is received to when the body reacts involves several steps that utilize different types of neurons such as sensory neurons, interneurons (relay neurons), and motor neurons.
The stimulus is received by sensory receptors, which detect external or internal changes.Sensory neurons carry stimulus information to the brain or spinal cord.Within the central nervous system, interneurons (relay neurons) process the information and are involved in decision-making.Interneurons transfer response information to motor neurons.Motor neurons cause muscles to contract so the body can react to the stimulus, completing the response.The entire process is often part of what is known as a reflex arc, which enables rapid and involuntary reactions to stimuli.
Label the following statements as either True or False. Some enzymes remove single amino acids from proteins by beginning at the amine or N-terminus. False Enzymes can selectively cleave specific peptide linkages between specific amino acids within a protein, thereby creating larger peptide fragments. True Enzymes hydrolyze only double bonds.
Answer:
Some enzymes remove single amino acids from proteins by beginning at the amine or N-terminus. True
Enzymes can selectively cleave specific peptide linkages between specific amino acids within a protein, thereby creating larger peptide fragments. False
Enzymes hydrolyze only double bonds. Flase
Explanation:
Enzymes are proteins that act as biological catalysts by accelerating chemical reactions. Some of them remove single amino acids from proteins by beginning at the amine or N-terminus. Enzymes can't selectively cleave specific peptide linkages between specific amino acids within a protein, thereby creating larger peptide fragments. Enzymes hydrolyze double bonds and other different structures.
Positively charged DNA migrates more rapidly than negatively charged DNA b. Longer DNA fragments migrate farther on a gel than shorter fragments c. Migration distance on a gel is inversely proportional to DNA fragment size d. Uncut DNA migrates farther on a gel than DNA cut with restriction enzyme
Answer:
c. Migration distance on a gel is inversely proportional to DNA fragment sizeExplanation:
Deoxyribonucleic acid is a genetic material that is a type of macromolecule. It is made up of a monomer that ais called a nucleotide. Each nucleotide is made up of a deoxyribose sugar, a base, and a phosphate group. Due to the presence of phosphate group DNA has negative property. When the DNA is separated by the gel electrophoresis method the size of the fragment of the DNA plays an important role. Those DNA fragments that are small in size migrate faster than those DNA fragments that are larger in size. So the migration distance is inversely proportional to the DNA fragment size.Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on size, with smaller fragments traveling farther due to DNA's negative charge. Longer fragments migrate less because of greater friction in the gel.
The question deals with principles of gel electrophoresis, a technique used to separate DNA fragments based on their size. DNA is negatively charged due to the phosphate groups in its backbone, and thus it migrates towards the positive electrode during electrophoresis. The distance that DNA migrates through the gel is inversely proportional to the size of the DNA fragment, meaning that smaller DNA fragments travel farther than larger ones.
This separation allows for the analysis and comparison of DNA fragments within a sample. Crucial to understanding gel electrophoresis is recognizing that longer DNA fragments migrate a shorter distance due to increased friction against the gel's matrix, contrary to unmodified statements that imply longer DNA might travel farther or that positively charged DNA migrates more rapidly.
________ is a small infectious agent that can only replicate within the living cells of another organism.
Answer:virus
Explanation:
In general, virus replication consists of three steps that are common to all viruses: the start of the infection, genome replication and expression, and the release of mature virions from the infected cell.
What are the different process of replication of virus?The lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle are the two ways that viruses multiply.
While some viruses employ both techniques to reproduce, others solely use the lytic cycle. Throughout the lytic cycle, the virus attaches to the host cell and injects DNA.
Lysogenic cycles vary from lytic cycles in that the virus DNA spreads through regular bacterial reproduction in lysogenic cycles.
The cell is destroyed and several copies of the virus are swiftly produced in a lytic cycle, which is more instantaneous.
Therefore, virus is a small infectious agent that can only replicate within the living cells of another organism.
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Explain how natural selection could lead to change in allele
Embryonic induction, the influence of one group of cells on another group of cells, plays a critical role in embryonic development. In 1924, Hans Spemann and Hilde Mangold transplanted a piece of tissue that influences the formation of the notochord and neural tube, from the dorsal lip of an amphibian embryo to the ventral side of another amphibian embryo. If embryonic induction occurred, which of the following observations justifies the claim of embryonic induction?
A) The transplanted tissue induced multiple limbs to develop on the ventral side of the recipient embryo.
B) The transplanted tissue inhibited normal cell division on the dorsal side of the recipient embryo that lead to its death.
C) The transplanted tissue had no effect on either the ventral or dorsal side of the recipient embryo so it continued to develop normally.
D) The transplanted tissue induced the formation of a second notochord and neural tube on the ventral side of the developing embryo.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The embryonic induction can be defined as the critical part in formation of the other tissues and organs because one cells affects the development of the other cells.
In vertebrates the notochord arises from the dorsal organiser, in amphibian the organizer is a region of vertebrate gastrulae which is when transplanted into the ventral region of the host embryo stimulates the formation of second embryonic axis and neural tube in embryo.
This generation of second notochord in the an example of influence of one group of cell on other.
The observation that justifies the claim of embryonic induction in Hans Spemann and Hilde Mangold's experiment is (D) The transplanted tissue induced the formation of a second notochord and neural tube on the ventral side of the developing embryo.
The experiment by Hans Spemann and Hilde Mangold involved transplanting tissue from the dorsal lip of the blastopore, known as the Spemann Organizer, to the ventral side of another amphibian embryo. The observation that justifies the claim of embryonic induction would be a result showing a change in the developmental fate of the recipient embryo's cells.
Among the given options, the correct observation that would justify embryonic induction is:
(D) The transplanted tissue induced the formation of a second notochord and neural tube on the ventral side of the developing embryo.
This result aligns with the findings of Spemann and Mangold, where the organizers from the dorsal side, when transplanted, have the signaling capability to instruct the ventral cells to form structures characteristic of the dorsal side, such as the notochord and neural tube, thereby creating a second embryonic axis.
Duncan was a subject in a clinical study that was designed to determine the effects of certain diets on health. While participating in the study, he had to live in a special medical unit at the university hospital. He wasn't permitted to eat anything other than the synthetic formula diet provided by the researchers. The formula contained vitamins, choline, minerals, animal protein, purified water, and corn starch. Within a few weeks, Duncan developed patches of scaly skin on his arms and legs and bald spots on his head. When _____ were added to his formula, the signs of the nutritional deficiency disappeared.
Answer:
The missing options are:
- steroid hormones
- carbs
- essential fatty acids
- PHO
The correct answer is essential fatty acids.
Explanation:
Essential fatty acids are the fats that our body can not produce by itself, but that are essential for the function of the body, so we have to consume foods that have these fats, such as fish, oysters, nuts, chia seeds, soybean oil, etc. The deficiency of these fats causes skin problems, alopecia, anxiety, depression, among other things.
In various pennate muscle patterns (unipennate, bipennate, multipennate). A) muscles appear to be straplike B) there is a narrow origin diverging to a broad insertion C) there is a broad origin and fascicles converge toward a single tendon D) muscles look like components of a feather
Pennate muscle patterns, including unipennate, bipennate, and multipennate, characterize the structure where muscles have a broad origin and fascicles converge toward a single tendon, giving them an appearance resembling components of a feather.
Explanation:In pennate muscle patterns, like unipennate, bipennate, and multipennate, the muscles have a feather-like structure. This is due to their broad origin where fascicles converge toward a single tendon, giving an appearance similar to components of a feather. This contrasts with straplike muscles and muscles with a narrow origin diverging to a broad insertion. For example, in a unipennate pattern, one side of the muscle attaches to the tendon, while in a multipennate pattern, many tendons are present with muscles in between, resembling a feather.
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Which lists the correct order of the steps?
1 . water is broken down into oxygen and hydrogen .
2 . glucose is broken down to be used by plants
3. hydrogen combines with carbon dioxide to form glucose
4. hydrogen enters the plant as part of water
55. In cocker spaniels, black coat color (B) is dominant over red (b), and solid color (S) is dominant over spotted (s). If Bb Ss were crossed with Bb ss, the chance that a black solid individual would be produced is a. 3/16. b. 1/3. c. 9/16. d. 3/8. e. 1/16.
Answer:
d. 3/8
Explanation:
Black coat color (B) is dominant over red coat color (b) and solid color (S) is dominant over spotted color (b).
BbSs was crossed with Bbss
BbSs x Bbss
Offspring:
2 BBSs black, solid
2 BBss black, spotted
4 BbSs black solid
4 Bbss black, spotted
2 bbSs red, solid
2 bbss red spotted
Total black solid = 6
Hence, the chance that black solid individual would be produced = 6/16 = 3/8.
The correct option is d.
See the attached for the Punnet's square analysis.
is a topographic map or a geologic map most useful for drilling a water well
Answer:
A geologic map would be most appropriate because it can represent various layers of Earth’s surface from a side view or cross section. Such a map would be helpful in drilling a water well because it would show the different layers of rock and their depths, and would reveal where groundwater was and how deep they would need to drill to reach it.
Explanation:
You are a molecule of nitrogen. Choose a starting
point in the nitrogen cycle and describe the
process you would go through to move through
the entire cycle.
Answer:
Explanation:
The conversion of nitrogen gas (N2) into nitrates and nitrites through atmospheric, industrial and biological processes is called nitrogen fixation. Atmospheric nitrogen must be processed, or "fixed", into a usable form to be taken up by plants. Between 5 and 10 billion kg per year are fixed by lightning strikes, but most fixation is done by free-living or symbiotic bacteria known as diazotrophs. These bacteria have the nitrogenase enzyme that combines gaseous nitrogen with hydrogen to produce ammonia, which is converted by the bacteria into other organic compounds. Most biological nitrogen fixation occurs by the activity of Mo-nitrogenase, found in a wide variety of bacteria and some Archaea. Mo-nitrogenase is a complex two-component enzyme that has multiple metal-containing prosthetic groups.[22] An example of free-living bacteria is Azotobacter. Symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria such as Rhizobium usually live in the root nodules of legumes (such as peas, alfalfa, and locust trees). Here they form a mutualistic relationship with the plant, producing ammonia in exchange for carbohydrates. Because of this relationship, legumes will often increase the nitrogen content of nitrogen-poor soils. A few non-legumes can also form such symbioses.
The nitrogen cycle starts in the atmosphere where nitrogen fixation occurs, turning nitrogen gas into ammonia. The ammonia is then converted into nitrites and then nitrates through nitrification, which are absorbed by plant roots and transferred to animals. From there, denitrification completes the cycle by converting nitrates back into nitrogen gas and returning it to the atmosphere.
Explanation:As a molecule of nitrogen, your journey through the nitrogen cycle would start in the atmosphere since it is made up of about 78% nitrogen gas (N2). From here, you could enter the cycle through a process called nitrogen fixation. This process is performed by certain kinds of bacteria or through atmospheric interventions such as lightning strikes which convert nitrogen gas into ammonia (NH3).
Next, in the soil, different bacteria convert ammonia to nitrites (NO2-) and subsequently to nitrates (NO3-), which are usable forms of nitrogen for plants. This sequence is called nitrification. Then, you could be absorbed by plant roots from the soil, assimilated into plant protein, and transferred to herbivores that eat the plants.
From here, other soil bacteria may convert nitrates back into nitrogen gas in a process known as denitrification, placing you back into the atmosphere to complete the cycle.
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Which Kingdom is represented by the following description: All are multicellular organisms, reproduce sexually or asexually, cannot move, and are autotrophs
Plant
Animal
Fungi
Protist
Answer:
Plants
Explanation:
They are multicellular organisms. In plants there are two types of reproduction :- sexual and asexual. Sexual reproduction happens when androecium and gynoecium both fuses and in asexual reproduction when only androecium or gynoecium is present in a plant. Androecium us a male part off flower and gynoecium is the female part of flower. Plants can't move that we all know and they are autotrophs coz they can make their own food in presence of sunlight, water, air and chlorophyll.....
I hope u will understand it :-) :-)
The independent variable in this experiment was___
, and the dependent variable was ___
Answer:
independent is molecule size and dependent is the ability to diffuse
Explanation:
What are some of the conditions that hydrotherapy might be used for? Why would it be a good choice for helping to treat these conditions?
Explanation:
Hydrotherapy is the use of water in the treatment of different conditions, including arthritis and related rheumatic complaintsThe water temperature is usually 33–36ºC, which is warmer than a typical swimming poolHydrotherapy can help people in a number of different ways: The warmth of the water allows the muscles to relax and eases the pain in jointsThe water supports weight, which helps to relieve pain and increase the range of movement of jointsThe water can be used to provide resistance for moving the joints, by pushing arms and legs against the water muscle strength can also be improvedWhat are the different types of relationships found among organisms in an ecosystem?
Answer:
Five types of relationships are found among organisms in an ecosystem: competition, predation, commensalism, mutualism and parasitism.
Explanation:
A niche is the physical space in which organisms live, and includes how the organisms use the resources that are in that space, and how they interact with other organisms in that space. The interaction among organisms within or between overlapping niches can be characterized into five types of relationships: competition, predation, commensalism, mutualism and parasitism.
Symbiosis refers to a close relationship in which one or both organisms obtain a benefit.The last three types are basically defined as relationships exhibiting symbiosis, but predation and competition can also be considered as forms of symbiosis.
Predation is defined as when one organism eats another organism to obtain nutrients.
Competition is defned as when individuals or populations compete for the same resource, and can occur within or between species.
Commensalism is a relationship in which one organism benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed. There are four basic types of commensalism. 1) Phoresy 2)Chemical commensalism 3) Inquilinism 4)Metabiosis
Parasitism is a relationship in which one organism benefits and the other organism is harmed, but not always killed. The organism that benefits is called the parasite, and the one that is harmed is the host. Parasites can be ectoparasites or endoparasites.
Mutualism is a relationship in which both species benefit. Mutualistic interaction patterns occur in three forms. Obligate mutualism is when one species cannot survive apart from the other. Diffusive mutualism is when one organism can live with more than one partner. Facultative mutualism is when one species can survive on its own under certain conditions.
In an ecosystem, organisms interact with one another in various ways, leading to different types of relationships. Some common types include: Predation, Mutualism, Commensalism, Parasitism, and Competition.
1. Predation: A predator-prey relationship, where one organism (predator) hunts and consumes another organism (prey) for food.
2. Mutualism: Both species benefit from the relationship. They provide resources or services to each other, leading to mutual advantages.
3. Commensalism: One species benefits, while the other is neither helped nor harmed. It's a one-sided relationship.
4. Parasitism: One species (parasite) benefits at the expense of the other (host), often causing harm but not immediate death to the host.
5. Competition: Organisms compete for the same resources, which may limit the growth or survival of one or more species.
These relationships play a crucial role in shaping the structure and dynamics of ecosystems and have a significant impact on population sizes and biodiversity.
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Name four parts of the respiratory system in order that air comes into the body, and describe the role it plays in respiration.
Answer:The pharynx, larynx, trachea and bronchi are four parts of the respitaory system that air comes into the body. the role that they play in respiration is that they bring oxygen into our blood stream and then help push out carbon dioxide into the atmosphere
ezra fits aka Mr.fitz ( Pretty Little Liars)
The four parts of the respiratory system through which air enters the body are the nose, pharynx, larynx, and trachea.
Parts of the respiratory system?Nose: Air enters the body through the nostrils, where it is filtered, humidified, and warmed. Tiny hair-like structures called cilia trap particles, preventing them from entering the lungs.
Pharynx: The air then moves to the pharynx, a passage connecting the nasal cavity and the mouth. It serves as a common pathway for both air and food, directing air into the trachea and food into the esophagus.
Larynx: The larynx, also known as the voice box, contains the vocal cords. It prevents food and liquids from entering the trachea during swallowing and produces sound when air passes over the vocal cords.
Trachea: Air travels down the trachea, a tube reinforced with C-shaped cartilage rings that prevent collapse. The trachea branches into bronchi, leading to the lungs.
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Identify the type of tract that communicates between the left prefrontal lobe and the left parietal lobe.
Answer:
association fibers
Explanation:
Association tract communicates between the left prefrontal lobe and the left parietal lobe.
What is an association tract?Association fibers of the brain are a type of white matter tract that connects several regions within the same hemisphere. They are also known as association tracts of the brain or intra hemispheric tracts (cortex-cortex connections). Long-range and U-fibers are the two forms of association fibers (short-range).
Within the same hemisphere, different cortical regions are connected by association fibers. These could be long association fibers that connect more distant regions of cortex or short association fibers that link the cortices of adjacent gyri.
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A koala must eat 200 grams of leaves each day to survive. The trees in a area can provide 1380 g of leaves per day what is the maximum number of koalas that can survive in the area
Answer:
6 koalas
Explanation:
The maximum number of koalas that can survive in the area is 6.
Each koala must eat 200 grams of leaves per day.
The trees in an area can provide a total of 1380 g of leaves per day.
The maximum number of koalas that can survive in this area would be the total amount of leaves production per day divided by the amount of leaves required by each koala per day.
Hence:
Number of koala the area can support = 1380/200 = 6.9
Remember that each koala must eat 200 grams per day, therefore, the maximum number of koala that can survive in the area approximately 6.
Answer:
6
Explanation:
What is the term for an organisms ability to survive and reproduce?
A. Fitness
B. Environment
C. Selection
D. Population
What structural component gives arteries the ability to passively adapt to changes in blood pressures that accompany the heartbeat?
Answer: elastic fibers
Explanation:
Elastic fibres are the essential durable component present in mammalian connective tissueand functions to provide proper pulmonary, cardiovascular and intestinal system structure and function. Their structural function is to provide elastic recoil and resilience for the tissues.
Elastin fibers ahve two main including microfibrils and elastin containing fibrillin play a mechanical and structural role in the arteries, and their important function is to provide the tissues with resilience and elasticity.
Hence, elastic fibers helps arteries to adapt to changes in blood pressures that accompany the heartbeat.
do you think there are always clear solutions to environmental problems? explain your response.
Answer: Yes
Environmental problems like pollution has a solution. To curb this, measures must be put in place in making sure waste management agencies are establish. The work of these agencies will be handling wastes and disposing them at the best strategic places apportioned for this very purpose which will be in the outskirt of residential areas to avoid inhaling of toxins that emanates from these rubbish.
Answer:
No, there isn’t always a clear solution. Ecosystems are quite complex, and every solution has consequences. These consequences can affect another part of the ecosystem or they can negatively affect human economies or industries.
Explanation:
Why are bacteria a necessary part of the nitrogen cycle
Answer:
Because nitrogen must be fixed in order to be used by living things, it rarely exists in its pure form. Bacteria are a very important part of the nitrogen cycle because it helps to change or fix nitrogen into a usable form. Interesting Nitrogen Cycle Facts: Plants absorb nitrogen directly from the soil.
Explanation:
Answer:
Bacteria are a necessary part of the nitrogen cycle because living things cannot use atmospheric nitrogen. The nitrogen cycle is the series of processes that lead to the interconversion of nitrogen and its compounds in the atmosphere. Bacteria are required in the nitrogen cycle because atmospheric nitrogen cannot directly use by the plant.
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