Which of the following substances contained the most catalase?
Question 1 options:


A.Chalk


B.Potato


C.Leaves


D.Liver

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: B. Potato

Explanation:

The catalase is an enzyme which can be seen in all living organisms which are exposed to the action of oxygen. It's function is to catalyze the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. This enzyme is protective against the oxidative damage caused to the cells of the organisms.

The large concentration of catalase can be seen in potatoes.  


Related Questions

A client is cutting vegetable for dinner and accidently cuts his finger. What response is desirable to destroy foreign agents such as microorganisms to prevent infection from developing in the finger?

Answers

Answer: out of curiosity is this question short response and if so are there any parameters to stay in because if we are being very technical the "client" could kill himself and not have to worry about any form of infection.

Final answer:

To prevent infection from developing in a cut finger, the wound should be cleaned with soap and water, followed by an antiseptic, and kept covered with a sterile bandage. This approach helps to degerm the area and assists the body's second line of immune defense in destroying any microorganisms that may have entered the wound.

Explanation:

When a client cuts their finger while cutting vegetables, it's important to promptly address the wound to prevent infection. The first step would be to clean the cut thoroughly to remove any foreign agents such as microorganisms. This is an example of degerming, which significantly reduces microbial numbers on living tissues using a mild chemical, like soap and water, followed by an antiseptic like hydrogen peroxide or alcohol to disinfect the area. If bacteria do enter the wound, they would face the body's innate immune system, specifically the second line of defense, which includes various immune cells and responses that would work to destroy the foreign agents and prevent infection from developing.

Additionally, it's important to keep the wound clean and covered with a sterile bandage to protect it from further exposure to pathogens. In the event of a serious cut or signs of infection, seeking medical attention is imperative to receive proper wound care, which could involve debridement, the removal of dead or infected tissue, to prevent an infection from spreading.

Assume that while on a biology field trip, you find an unusual insect that you and several other biologists are unable to identify. Upon further study you find that no one has reported its existence and you want to classify it. What approach would you take?

Answers

Answer:

To describe a new specie, it has to be carefully examined in order to determinate that it doesn´t belong to an another specie already described.

Once it has been determinate the novelty of the specie, the researchers write a formal description of it, takes pictures and name it with the new scientific name. Then, the researchers refer it to a scientific magazine.   The editor of the publication will comunicate the new discovery to an experts in that gender.   If the experts agreed, and the publication accept the study, the specimen converts to a new specie.   The process is long and could take years betwen the inicial discovery and the formal acceptation of the new specie

Explanation:

A. thaliana, or Arabidopsis, is a common weed. Biologists have selected it over hundreds of thousands of other flowering plant species to serve as an experimental model organism because __________________.(a)it can withstand extremely cold climates(b)it can reproduce in 8–10 weeks (c) it produces thousands of offspring per plant (d) both b and c

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option (d) "both b and c".

Explanation:

Experimental model organisms used in scientific investigations have to fulfill certain criteria in order to be useful in the laboratory. Two of the desired characteristics are being able to reproduce quickly and with enough number of offspring in order to study genetic behaviors. Arabidopsis thaliana characteristics of being able to reproduce in 8–10 weeks and producing thousands of offspring per plant (because it can produce thousands of seeds) makes it a model flowering plant for experimental studies.

Final answer:

Arabidopsis thaliana is favored as a model organism in plant biology due to its ability to reproduce quickly (in 8–10 weeks) and produce thousands of offspring, which facilitates genetic research. The correct answer to why biologists prefer Arabidopsis is (d) both b and c.

Explanation:

Arabidopsis thaliana, often referred to as Arabidopsis, is a preferential model organism for plant biologists due to its simple yet comprehensive characteristics relevant to plant science. Unlike hundreds of thousands of other flowering plant species, Arabidopsis has been selected for study primarily because it meets specific criteria that facilitate extensive genetic and developmental research. The correct answer to why biologists have selected Arabidopsis over other species as an experimental model organism is (d) both b and c, meaning it can reproduce in 8–10 weeks and it produces thousands of offspring per plant. These features make Arabidopsis particularly suitable for genetic experiments, allowing for rapid generation turnover and extensive offspring analysis, which are invaluable for studying inheritance patterns, mutations, and plant development. Additionally, Arabidopsis's fully mapped DNA and its ability to be easily cross-pollinated for genetic mapping and creation of multiple mutation strains further underscore its utility as a model organism in plant biology. This work with Arabidopsis not only advances our understanding of basic plant biology but also has practical applications in improving crop species like wheat, rice, and corn through genetic engineering for resistance to environmental stresses.

Which of the following is NOT an example of bioremediation?

using bacteria to make antibiotics and vitamins

using bacteria to break down the organic matter in sewage sludge

using bacteria to clean up oil spills

using bacteria to remove toxic substances from old mining sites

Answers

Answer:

Using bacteria to make antibiotics and vitamins is not an example of bioremediation.

Explanation:

Bioremediation branches from biotechnology where either genetically engineered or naturally existing microbes are used to clean up pollutants and contaminating materials from the environment.

These microorganisms digest contaminants by secreting enzymes that breaks them down into smaller pieces, which they use as their energy or food source for growth, further cleaning the environment, groundwater and oil spills.

Final answer:

Bioremediation involves the use of microorganisms to break down environmental pollutants. Among the given examples, the use of bacteria to make antibiotics and vitamins does not fall under bioremediation as it doesn't involve degradation of pollutants.

Explanation:

Bioremediation is the use of living organisms, particularly microorganisms, to degrade the environmental contaminants into less toxic forms. It is mainly used to target hazardous wastes and pollutants such as oil spills and heavy metals. Among the given list, using bacteria to make antibiotics and vitamins is NOT an example of bioremediation. While it is a useful application of bacteria, it doesn't involve degradation or clean-up of pollutants in an environment, hence it does not exemplify bioremediation.

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When a cell is in equilibrium with its environment, which of the following processes occurs for substances that can diffuse through the plasma membrane?
A) There is random movement of substances into and out of the cell.
B) All movement of molecules across the plasma membrane occurs by active transport.
C) There is directed movement of substances into and out of the cell.
D) There is no movement of substances into or out of the cell.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is A.

Explanation:

Diffusion is the net movement of a substance from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. The difference in concentration between two environments creates a concentration gradient which is what drives diffusion. Therefore, this movement does not require aid such as extra energy molecules for active transport or integral membrane proteins for directed movement, hence the answer is not B nor C. If the cell is in equilibrium with its environment, it means that the concentration of substances inside the cell is equal to the concentration outside the cell, and any movement that takes place will be random movement of substances across the plasma memberane. Movement in the cell will not cease as the cell is still active. Therefore, the answer cannot be D either.

The correct option is A. There is the random movement of substances into and out of the cell.

What is diffusion?

A substance diffuses when there is a net migration from one area of higher concentration to another area of lower concentration.

A concentration gradient is produced by the difference in concentration between two environments, and this gradient is what causes diffusion.

The answer is neither B nor C since this movement does not require assistance such as additional energy molecules for active transport or integral membrane proteins for directed movement.

If a cell and its environment are in equilibrium, then the concentration of substances inside and outside the cell are equal, and any movement that occurs is due to the random movement of substances across the plasma membrane.

Therefore, The correct option is A. There is the random movement of substances into and out of the cell.

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"E. coli is an intestinal organism, and Staphylococcus epidermidis resides on the skin. What do you hypothesize will occur when both are inoculated onto mannitol salt agar?
A. Both organisms will grow since they are both ubiquitous of 20.
B. Neither organisms will grow beacause 75% salt inhebits at organisms.
C. The salt inhibits the growth of E.coli which is not a halophyte, but S.epidermidis grows.
D. The S epidernidis will not grow since it must exist at as a pure cuture the E.coli will grow."

Answers

Answer:

C) The salt inhibits the growth of E.coli which is not a halophyte, but S.epidermidis grows.

Explanation:

Mannitol Salt Agar is highly selective and is widely used to isolate Staphylococcus. These microorganisms are capable of fermenting mannitol which is the source of carbohydrate. High concentrations of sodium chloride inhibit most bacteria except Staphylococcus.

The primary purpose of the basic economic order quantity model is
a. to calculate the reorder point, so that replenishments take place at the proper time
b. to minimize the sum of carrying cost and holding cost
c. to maximize the customer service level
d. to minimize the sum of setup cost and holding cost e. to calculate the optimum safety stock

Answers

Answer:

D. to minimize the sum of setup cost and holding cost e. to calculate the optimum safety stock

Explanation:

Economic order quantity ( EOQ ) is formulated as :

[tex]EOQ= \sqrt[]{\frac{2C_O D}{C_h} }[/tex]

Co = Ordering cost

D = annual demand

Ch = Annual unit holding cost

Economic quantity is the order quantity which minimizes sum of annual cost of ordering and annual inventory holding cost  so to minimize the overall cost of the inventory.

ANSWER : d) to minimize the sum of setup cost and holding cost that is to calculate the optimum safety stock.

In angiosperms, each pollen grain produces two sperm. What do these sperm do? In angiosperms, each pollen grain produces two sperm. What do these sperm do?
A. One fertilizes an egg, and the other is kept in reserve.
B. Both sperm fertilize a single egg cell.
C. One fertilizes an egg, and the other fertilizes the fruit.
D.Each one fertilizes a separate egg cell.
E. One fertilizes an egg, and the other combines with two polar nuclei, which develop into stored food cells (endosperm).

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-E.

Explanation:

In angiosperms, the fertilization of male and female gametes occurs through a process called double fertilization.

The male gametes produces two sperm cells while the female gametophyte is 8 celled structure in which 3 cells are known as antipodal cells, 2 cells known as polar cells, 2 cells are synergids and 1 cell is egg cell.

During double fertilization, a zygote is formed when one sperm of the male gamete fuses with the egg cell and one sperm cell fuses with the 2 polar nuclei of the central cells which forms a triploid structure called endosperm which provides nutrition to the growing embryo.

Thus, option-E is the correct answer.

The function carried out by The two sperms produced by each pollen grain is : ( E ) One fertilizes an egg, and the other combines with two polar nuclei, which develop into stored food cells ( endosperm)

Double Fertilization

Double fertilization occurs in flowering plants whereby the fusion of a sperm cell and egg occurs simultaneously with the fusion of the second sperm cell with two polar nuclei

This process occurs in angiosperms, the female gametophyte exists as an 8 celled structure where only 1 cell is the egg.

Hence we conclude that The function carried out by The two sperms produced by each pollen grain is : ( E ) One fertilizes an egg, and the other combines with two polar nuclei, which develop into stored food cells ( endosperm).

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Hyla versicolor and H. chrysoscelis are frogs which are morphologically indistinguishable, non-hybridizing and broadly sympatric in central Texas. There is no evidence that these species utilize different natural resources and both reproduce throughout the spring and summer. Mating involves males clutching the females but fertilization is external. These species are easily distinguished by their mating calls; males and females of H. versicolor are "slow trilling" whereas males and females of H. chrysoscelis are "fast-trilling." The factor that most likely maintains these forms as species is

Answers

Answer: reproductive isolation

Explanation: reproductive isolation is a factor that affects the speciation process. It is specially important in sympatric populations because blocks genetic flow within them due to physical, seasonal or behavioral differences.

In this particular case, there is a behavioral difference that allow individuals from a specie recognize each other through sound so they can reproduce and do not mix with other species.

Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n) _________.

Answers

Answer:

selective and differential medium .

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it seems that this type of medium would be referred to as a selective and differential medium . This is because such high NaCL levels are designed to stimulate and allow selective bacteria to grow, while also differential media because the fermented sugar is giving off a yellow halo which allows for the differentiate between the bacteria.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

Final answer:

The medium discussed is called Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA), which is both selective for halotolerant bacteria and differential due to the presence of mannitol and a pH indicator, phenol red.

Explanation:

The medium described in your question is known as Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA). This medium is a selective and differential medium - selective because it contains a high NaCl concentration that inhibits the growth of many bacteria but allows halotolerant bacteria like Staphylococcus aureus to grow, and differential because it contains mannitol and a pH indicator, phenol red. When Staphylococcus aureus ferments mannitol, it produces acid, causing the pH to drop and the phenol red to change color from red to yellow, indicating a positive fermentation reaction.

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The process by which plants capture energy from the sun and uses it to make food for themselves is called _.


A.) lactic acid fermentation

B.) Alcoholic fermentation

C.) Cellular respiration

D.) Photosynthesis

Answers

Answer:

d photosynthesis

Explanation:

Answer:

The answer is D

Chloroplasts work to convert light energy of the Sun into sugars that can be used by cells. The entire process is called photosynthesis and it all depends on the little green chlorophyll molecules in each chloroplast. Plants are the basis of all life on Earth.

Explanation:

Hamid et al. (2010) had participants navigate a maze while recording their eye movements. The maze contained landmarks on the walls at corners and at other positions that would not aid maze navigation. After participants learned the maze, the researchers removed half of the landmarks. The results of this study revealed that _____.
a. performance decreased when landmarks were removed that had been viewed longer.
b. participants did not notice that the landmarks were missing and their performance was uneffected.
c. participants had been relying on all landmarks to navigate.
d. performance increased when non-informative landmarks were removed.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option a. "performance decreased when landmarks were removed that had been viewed longer".

Explanation:

Hamid and collaborators while recording eye movement in a group of participants that were trying to figure out how to navigate a maze. Part of the study was to put landmarks that would not aid maze navigation and then remove them. Even tough the landmarks would not aid maze navigation they helped the participants in other means, probably the ones located at corners were most helpful and the ones that were there since the study started. This is explained by the fact that performance decreased when landmarks were removed that had been viewed longer.

A biologist hypothesizes that keeping mice on a restricted diet with minimal calories will increase their aggression. The
biologist designs an experiment in which 100 mice are to be housed in individual cages under similar conditions and diets. He
then plans to place pairs of mice together in the same cage to observe their interactions. What is true about this study design?
A) The study is well designed since it uses a large sample of mice.
B) The study is not controlled.
C) The study includes too many variables.
D) The study is flawed because the hypothesis is not testable.
E) The study is unnecessary because the results are obvious.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option B. the study is not controlled.

Explanation:

The controlled experiment is an experiment where all the factors are held constant except the one factor that is meant to be tested. In the controlled experiment or study that includes a comparison of the experimental group with the control group in which all the factors or variables except the one factor being tested.

In these experiments there are not all the factors that are constant and also there is no control group to compare with the experimental group.

Thus, the correct answer is option B. the study is not controlled.

A transducing phage

-contains fragments of the host chromosome instead of the viral genome.
-cannot infect new host cells.
-is a lysogenic bacteriophage.
-has a viral coat made of host proteins.

Answers

Answer:

contains fragments of the host chromosome instead of the viral genome.

Explanation:

A transducing phage is the phage which contains fragments of the host chromosome instead of the viral genome. A transducing phage is made when infected host cell containing phage is lysed and the newly forming phage incorporate the host DNA instead of it's own genetic material into the capsid.

The transducing phage have ability to infect other bacteria and inject the genetic material to the host cell which have ability to incorporate in host genome. This process is called generalized transduction because any bacterial chromosomal part can be introduced in host genome.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the location of the heart?
a. The apex of the heart rests on the diaphragm.
b. About two thirds of the heart’s mass lies to the left of the body’s midline.
c. The heart is located between the sternum and the vertebral column.
d. The base of the heart rests on the diaphragm.
e. The heart is located within the mediastinum.

Answers

Final answer:

The false statement about the location of the heart is that the base of the heart rests on the diaphragm. In fact, it is the apex of the heart that rests on the diaphragm.

Explanation:

The statement that is false about the location of the heart from the options provided is: option d. The base of the heart rests on the diaphragm. This is incorrect. The heart is indeed located within the mediastinum, between the sternum and the vertebral column. The apex, not the base, of the heart points downward and rests on the diaphragm. It is also true that about two-thirds of the heart's mass lies to the left of the body's midline.

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A biologist hypothesizes that a squirrels body size is affected by the inclusion of a particular type of food in its diet. Which is the best method the scientist could use to prove this hypothesis?

Answers

Answer take one piece of the squirrels diet away and see if anything has changed, if not give it that part back and take something else. repeat till change happens if nothing happens then change hypothesis

Vertebrate span across a diverse array of life on earth today. Fish are the first to evolve and amphibians still live with strong ties to bodies of water which is evident in their life circle

Answers

Answer:

Fossil evidence shows that vertebrates made the transition from water to land during the DEVONIAN period.

SALAMANDERS are amphibians that most closely resemble early tetrapods in body form with a long tail and 4 limbs of similar length.

A distinctive characteristic of mammals that is not observed in other vertebrates is ENDOTHERMY.

By the end of the CAMBRIAN period, all major animal lineages were present in the seas due to a great adaptive radiation of animals.

The vertebrate lung first appeared in AMPHIBIANS

Explanation:

Vertebrates started to transition from water to land later in the Devonian period. The vertebrates had to adjust to living on land such as withstanding gravity, breathing in air, adjusting senses to living on land than on water, and significant water loss due to the new environment. This was a big step in the realm of evolution because vertebrates were now able to thrive because they are no longer limited to the resources and space of water.

Salamaders are said to have not evolved much and have some characteristics that resemble early tetrapods. Regeneration of limbs is one of the salamanders unique capability which early tetrapods possessed.

Amphibians are ectotherms, which means they get their energy outside their body or their source of heat would be the heat from the environment. Amphibians and reptiles are ectotherms, and mammals are endotherms. Endotherms can generate heat internally.

The Cambrian period marks the Cambrian Explosion. According to fossil records modern organisms evolved rapidly and soon after split into different phyla due to adaptive radiation as a result of the extinction of dinosaurs.

The evolution of lungs is one of the most important changes in vertebrates which allowed early amphibians of water to move to land. It enabled them to breath air.

Mature red blood cells do not contain all of the usual organelles. Red blood cells lack a nucleus and do not contain mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, or centrioles. Based on this information, which of the following is true?

Mature red blood cells produce all the ATP for cellular functions because they carry the oxygen on hemoglobin.
Mature red blood cells produce large amounts of protein (hemoglobin) during their short life span.
Mature red blood cells do not divide and therefore have a short life span.
Mature red blood cells divide quickly and produce the ATP using aerobic respiration

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is statement 3rd.

Explanation:

The RBCs are the most general kind of blood cell and the primary means of transporting oxygen to the body tissues through blood flow via the circulatory system.  In humans, the developed red blood cells are devoid of the nucleus, and the majority of the cell organelles, in order to make most of the space for hemoglobin, can be witnessed as the sacks of hemoglobin.  

Due to this characteristic of RBCs of not possessing a nucleus and other major organelles at the stage of maturation the cells are not allowed to differentiate and thus exhibit a short life span.  

Final answer:

Mature red blood cells do not divide due to their lack of essential cellular components, leading to their short lifespan. They also don't produce ATP through typical aerobic respiration but do produce some through glycolysis.

Explanation:

The correct statement based on the given information is: Mature red blood cells do not divide and therefore have a short lifespan. This is because without a nucleus and other organelles such as centrioles, mature red blood cells lack the essential components required for cellular division. Moreover, lacking mitochondria means that red blood cells cannot produce ATP through the typical process of aerobic respiration, but they do produce a limited amount of ATP through glycolysis, a form of anaerobic respiration.

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Edwin Hubble is credited for the initial development of the Big Bang theory, an idea which helps to explain the formation of the universe over 15 billion years ago. Which piece of evidence did Hubble find that led him to begin the development of the Big Bang theory? A) The sun is the center of the universe. B) The universe is expanding in all directions. C) New universes are being made on a regular basis. D) All life appeared on earth about 3.5 billion years ago.

Answers

Answer:

B) The universe is expanding in all directions.

Explanation:

i already learned it

Answer:

b

Explanation:

space is infinate

Mitosis unfolds through a sequence of stages marked by specific events in the cell. The structural changes in the cell are brought about by a series of tightly coordinated underlying mechanisms.
Sort each process into the appropriate bin to indicate the stage of mitosis in which it occurs. If a process occurs in more than one stage, sort it to the stage when it first occurs.
1. Cohesins join sister chromatids of duplicated chromosome.
2.Tubulins assemble into spindle microtubules.
3. Microtubules attach to kinetochores.
4. Spindle microtubules disassemble.
5. Kinetochores are motionless in relation to poles of cell.
6. Kinetochores move toward poles of cell.
7. Cohesins break down.
a. Prophase
b. prometaphase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase

Answers

Answer:

1.- Prophase:  

Cohesins join sister chromatids of duplicated chromosome.

2.- Prometaphase:

Microtubules attach to kinetochores.

3.- Metaphase:

Kinetochores are motionless in relation to poles of cell.

4.- Anaphase:

Kinetochores move toward poles of cell

5.- Telophase:

Spindle micrutubules disassemble.

The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells? A. rough ER B. smooth ER C. Golgi apparatus D. transport vesicles E nuclear envelope

Answers

I think the answer is smooth ER

Answer: B. smooth ER

Explanation:

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum or smooth ER is an organelle which is found in both plants and animals. In animals it is present in different body parts. In humans the liver cells contains many smooth ER. The function of these organelles is to detoxify the body by drugs and poisons by converting them into water soluble products which can be easily excreted out of the body.

Snowmaking machines work by spraying a mist that freezes immediately on contact with cold air. Because the sudden freezing kills bacteria, QuickFreeze is planning to market a wastewater purification system that works on the same principle. The process works only when temperatures are cold, however, so municipalities using it will still need to maintain a conventional system.Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest grounds for a prediction that municipalities will buy QuickFreeze's purification system despite the need to maintain a conventional purification system as well?(A) Bacteria are not the only impurities that must be removed from wastewater.(B) Many municipalities have old wastewater purification systems that need to be replaced.(C) Conventional wastewater purification systems have not been fully successful in killing bacteria at cold temperatures.(D) During times of warm weather, when it is not in use, QuickFreeze's purification system requires relatively little maintenance.(E) Places where the winters are cold rarely have a problem of water shortage.

Answers

Answer:

(C) Conventional wastewater purification systems have not been fully successful in killing bacteria at cold temperatures

Explanation:

According to the statement, the QuickFreeze’s purification system is a complement to conventional wastewater treatment systems, because it is a system that only kills bacteria at low temperatures. Therefore, municipalities will have to keep their traditional systems for when temperatures aren’t so low.

Let’s consider the different arguments to try to convince the municipality to buy the system:

A) It is an argument that detracts from the need to acquire QF technology since this technology does not control other impurities.

B) It doesn’t help to justify the acquisition of the QF system since this technology it’s not a replacement but a complement.

C) If there are limitations in conventional methods, especially at low temperatures, using the QF system would seem to be an excellent option to kill all bacteria.

D) It is not a strong enough reason to buy it.

E) It is an irrelevant statement.

Which of the following best explains why "carbs" (carbohydrates) are advertised by manufacturers of candy bars and sports drinks as a "quick energy boost"?Select one:a. This is an advertising gimmick that has no scientific evidence to support it.b. Carbs are reduced molecules that have high-energy electrons.c. The energy in them can be stored as fat, which has high energy per unit weight.d. The carbons in carbs are rich in energy because they are highly oxidized

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is B.

Explanation:

Carbohydrates are the major macro molecules that are used as a source of fuel in biological systems. The smallest unit of carbohydrate is glucose and this is the only macro molecule that biological systems can use to produce energy. Other macro molecules such as fats and proteins can be converted to glucose if their is shortage of glucose in the body.

Generally, carbohydrates have high level of energy in their reduce electrons, thus, when they are oxidized they give rise to large amount of energy, which can be used to do work in the biological systems.

The fight-or-flight features a (n)________ in activity in the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. The fight-or-flight response also features a (n)_________ activity in the parasympathetic division.

Answers

Answer:

1. Increase

2. Decrease

Explanation:

During stress conditions, the sympathetic division of the autonomous nerve system dominates the parasympathetic division and triggers the responses required to initiate the fight or flight response.

It includes secretion of stress hormones from the adrenal medulla, dilation of the eye pupil, increased heartbeat rate and blood pressure, dilation of airways to increase breathing rate, etc.

The parasympathetic division triggers the body functions to restore and preserve the energy of the body during the resting or recovery phase.

Activation of parasympathetic division slows down the functions that support the physical activities and stress conditions.

Final answer:

The fight-or-flight response leads to increased activity in the sympathetic division and decreased activity in the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. This prepares the body for immediate physical action while suspending non-essential functions.

Explanation:

The fight-or-flight response features a significant increase in activity in the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. Conversely, during this response, there is typically a decrease in activity in the parasympathetic division.

The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body to either confront a threat (fight) or escape from it (flight) by increasing heart rate, accelerating breathing, dilating pupils, and inhibiting non-essential functions like digestion. These changes happen due to the release of adrenaline, which is part of the body's stress response mechanism. Homeostasis, which is the balance between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, is disturbed during these fight-or-flight situations, emphasizing the need for rapid action.

On the other hand, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the 'rest and digest' state, which conserves energy by slowing down the heart rate, decreasing respiration, and promoting digestion and other non-emergency bodily functions. After the perceived threat has passed, the parasympathetic division helps to restore homeostasis by downregulating the immediate stress responses and returning the body to a state of balance.

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The lungs are perfused by two circulations: the pulmonary and the bronchial. The pulmonary circulation is for oxygenation of blood. The bronchial circulation supplies blood to the lung structures (tissue).True / False.

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Pulmonary circulation transports blood through the alveoli for gas exchange. In this circulation the blood that comes from the veins initially has low oxygenation, and then leaves the right ventricle of the heart through the pulmonary artery, enters the lungs and returns to the heart with arterial and oxygenated blood

The bronchial circulation is well oxygenated and provides oxygen to the lungs. The structures to which this oxygen contributes in lungs are those that do not participate in a gas exchange.

A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?
a. Eosinophils
b. Neutrophils
c. Leukotrienes
d. Monocytes

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is b. Neutrophils

Explanation:

Neutrophils are the cells that first reach to the infection side and kills the bacteria. Neutrophils comprises most part of WBCs approximately 50-70% of total WBCs. Neutrophils kills the foreign bacteria by engulfing them and this process is called phagocytosis.

The engulfed bacteria is called phagosome and phagosome then fuse with lysosome making phagolysosome. Now fused lysosome secrete lytic enzymes like proteases, lipases and glycosidases which kills the engulfed bacteria by digesting them.

So neutrophils will be the first cells migrates to prevent bacterial infection in the hand of 20 year old boy who shoots his hand with nail gun.

Which of the following best describes the process of meiosis?
A) It is the first stage of mitosis.
B) It occurs in all tissues that require growth or replacement.
C) It happens in all cells except in the brain and nervous system.
D) It is carried out in cells that are involved in sexual reproduction.

Answers

Answer:

D.  It is carried out in cells that are involved in sexual reproduction.

Explanation:

Answer:

D) It is carried out in cells that are involved in sexual reproduction.

Explanation:

The option that best describes the process of meiosis is it is carried out in cells that are involved in sexual reproduction.

The plants take carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight to make oxygen and carbohydrate. This process is called ______. chemical reaction cell division photosynthesis

Answers

Answer:

This process is called photosynthesis. The plants take carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight to make oxygen and carbohydrate.

Answer: photosynthesis

Explanation: Photosynthesis takes in the carbon dioxide produced by all breathing organisms and reintroduces oxygen into the atmosphere. It takes in sunlight for food as plants make there own food.

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Question 1
_____ is the plant pigment that absorbs most wavelengths of visible light, except green.

a. Chlorophyll
b. Chloroplast
c. Chromatin
d. Codacrome

Question 2
Both the wine industry and the bread industry use the process of alcoholic fermentation. In what way does their use of alcoholic fermentation differ?

a. The wine industry uses the alcohol to make the wine; the bread industry uses the carbon dioxide to make the bread dough rise.
b. The wine industry uses the carbon dioxide to make the wine; the bread industry uses the alcohol to make the bread dough rise.
c. The wine and bread industry uses the alcohol; but the carbon dioxide is a waste product only fond in lactic acid fermentation.
d. They do not differ- both products are used equally by these two industries.

Question 3
Mrs. Wright (who is always right, just ask her), is caring for her son's prize tomato plants while he attends a Tomatologist Conference.
She brings them into the house due to a pending ice storm and places them in a dark room. She provides plenty of water and soil nutrients, but does not turn on the lights to conserve energy.

Which of the following is most likely to occur first?
a. Light dependent cycle will continue at the same rate with adequate water and nutrients.
b. Fermentation will begin in the chloroplasts of the leaf cells.
c. Photosynthesis will end abruptly as Mrs. Wright is a plant murderer.
d. Calvin cycle will continue fast long as the products from the light dependent cycle and CO2 are available.

Question 4
The process by which plants capture energy from the sun and uses it to make food for themselves is called _.
a. alcoholic fermentation
b. photosynthesis
c. lactic acid fermentation
d. cellular respiration

Question 5
If you run as fast as you can, your muscles may begin to feel weak and have a burning sensation. Explain what is occurring in your muscle cells that accounts for this muscle fatigue.

a. inadequate supply of oxygen to muscle cells leads to lactic acid fermentation
b. excessive supply of ATP to muscle cells leads to hypertonic conditions
c. excessive supply of oxygen to muscle cells leads to mitochondrial autolysis
d. inadequate supply of glucose to muscle cells leads to alcohol fermentation

Question 6
Cells store energy when:

a. the third phosphate group breaks off from an ATP molecule.
b. a third phosphate group is bonded to an ADP molecule
c. they break down sucrose to glucose and fructose.
d. ions are released into the bloodstream.

Answers

Question 1: A.)

Question 2: i would say A.)

Question 3: C.)

Question 4: B.)

Question 5: A.)

Question 6: B.)

Hope this heslp

The pigment that absorbs most wavelengths of light except green is Chlorophyll   (A)The difference in the use of alcoholic fermentation in wine and bread industries is ( A ) ; The wine industry uses the alcohol to make the wine and the bread industry uses the carbon dioxide to make the bread dough rise.The most likely to occur first is ( C ) Photosynthesis will end abruptly .The process of capturing energy from sun to make food by plants is ( B) ; photosynthesis What is currently occurring in the muscle cells that accounts for the muscle fatigue is ( A ) ; inadequate supply of oxygen to muscle cells leads to lactic acid fermentation Cells store energy when ( B ) ; A third phosphate group is bonded to an ADP molecule

Chlorophyll is the green pigment found on the plants that absorbs light energy  used by plants for the production of plant food. but due to the green coloration it does not absorb visible green light .

photosynthesis occurs in the presence of light therefore when the room is dark the process of photosynthesis will stop in the plants.

when our muscle cells lacks the required amount of oxygen supply we start to feel some form of fatigue due the lactic acid fermentation.

Hence we can conclude that the correct answers to the questions are as listed above. ( A , A , C,  B, A,  B )

learn more : https://brainly.com/question/24897694

Sally and Sam wanted to collect worms so they could go fishing. Sally dug a hole in the garden but did not find many. Sam went to the woods and dug a hole under some dead leaves. He found more than Sally.

Answers

I would assume it’s because there was more moisture in the soil where Sam dug the hole
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