Which of these are considered long-term human-induced environmental changes? Check all that apply.

pollution
human-created mass extinction
eutrophication
non-sustainable harvesting
ozone layer destruction
global warming

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:human-created mass extinction and ozone layer destruction.

Explanation:

Answer 2

Final answer:

Long-term human-induced environmental changes include pollution, global warming, ozone layer destruction, non-sustainable harvesting, human-created mass extinction, and eutrophication. These activities lead to lasting impacts such as increased temperatures, sea level rise, loss of biodiversity, and disruption of aquatic ecosystems.

Explanation:

Long-term human-induced environmental changes include a variety of processes that have significant and lasting impacts on our planet's ecosystems. Among these, pollution, which introduces harmful substances into the environment, and ozone layer destruction, caused primarily by chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), lead to increased UV radiation and affect both human health and ecosystems. Another critical issue is global warming, mainly due to the burning of fossil fuels which raises Earth's temperatures and sea levels, posing threats to biodiversity. The unsustainable harvesting of resources, which leads to overexploitation of ecosystems, and human-created mass extinction, as a result of habitat destruction and overpopulation, are also long-term changes that disrupt the balance of ecosystems. Additionally, eutrophication, which is the nutrient enrichment of water bodies often from agricultural runoff, leads to harmful algal blooms and dead zones that can devastate aquatic life.


Related Questions

A woman buys a packet of seeds for red flowering plants. In the spring, she plants the seeds in her garden and enjoys beautiful red flowers all summer. The flowers are self-pollinating, and many of the flowers produce seeds. The woman collects these seeds and plants them in her garden the following spring. She is surprised when about one-fourth of these plants produce white flowers while the other three-fourths produce red flowers. Assuming that the seeds were all produced by self-pollination of the parental generation, which statement best explains the reason for the woman’s observations?
A. Temperatures were above average in the garden, causing only red flowers to be produced in the first year and both white and red flowers in the second year.
B. Some of the seeds were exposed to conditions that caused a change in the plant’s genes, leading to the production of white flowers instead of red flowers in plants grown from these seeds.
C. Both the white and red flower traits were present in the parental generation, but only the red trait was expressed in this generation, while both traits were expressed in the next generation.
D. Offspring acquired new genes during the crosses taking place between plants in the parental generation, and one of these genes codes for the white flowering trait.
E. Plants producing white flowers in the second generation did not receive the same essential nutrients from the soil needed to produce red flowers.

Answers

Answer:

It should be C -

Both the white and red flower traits were present in the parental generation, but only the red trait was expressed in this generation, while both traits were expressed in the next generation.

Explanation:

The reason is just like human. As an example, a family of, let's say Africa, and all of them are dark skin, then one married to a, let's say Europe, and that person is light skin. Which the offspring became a pretty dark skin. Then as the offspring grow up and have family of their own, the trait of light skin is always in the family, although it is recessive. So randomly, that light skin gene will pop-up in the generation, probably just not in this one.

I hope this helps, and I don't mean any offense to anyone.

Btw- I actually got this question right on Discovery Ed, so you could trust me.

If this helps you, please mark brainly!

Thank you!

Have a great day! :)

P.S- there's already a same exact question, which I had also answer, and I just copy the stuff from the other question to this.

Look at the image of a plant
Which tropism is best illustrated?
thigmotropism
positive gravitropism
hydrotropism
photoperiodism

Answers

Answer:

thigmotropism

Explanation:

plant growth in response to touch. Plant tendrils are wrapping around the stick.

Answer:

thigmotropism and phototropism

Explanation:

The arrow in the diagram represents the movement of which molecular structurel
a. DNA molecule
b. Protein
c. mRNA Molecule
d. Base Pair

Answers

answer : c

mrna is also known as messenger rna so if it is transferring information the mrna would be doing it

Please Help!

For years antibiotics were prescribed by doctors to kill infection causing bacteria. Now there are bacteria which have evolved to resist antibiotics. Which is the final event that occurred during this process.

A- Group of answer choices

B- resistant organisms survived while others were killed

C- resistant organisms reproduced

D- resistant organisms occurred by mutation

non resistant organisms mutated.

Answers

Answer:



Explanation:The bacteria get resistant to antibiotics because after some times the bacterial DNA get evolved or you can say mutation occur due to which it resist the

Final answer:

The final event in the process of bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics is that the antibiotic-resistant organisms survive and reproduce, increasing their proportion in the population.

Explanation:

The process by which bacteria have evolved to resist antibiotics can be summarized by a series of events. First, a mutation occurs in some bacteria that allows them to survive the presence of antibiotic drugs. These antibiotic-resistant bacteria have a survival advantage when antibiotics are used because the drug kills non-resistant bacteria. The final event in this process is that these resistant organisms survive and reproduce, leading to an increase in the proportion of resistant bacteria within the population. Over time, this can result in a population of bacteria that are all resistant to the antibiotic that was used.

Which habitat is characterized by permafrost?
O
A. Desert
O
B. Forest
O
O
C. Tundra
D. Grassland

Answers

Answer:

Option C is the correct answer

Explanation:

We could call this a wetland community. Compare this community to an ecosystem. Differentiate one more important difference between the organization of the two?

Answers

Interactions in a community occur only between living creatures or biotic components. Interactions take place in an ecosystem between living components as well as between non - living and living components.

What is a wetland community?

Wetland communities are aggregations of individuals from various species (plants, animals, microorganisms) that live and interact in habitats with water at or near the ground's surface or where the land is inundated by shallow water for large portions of the year.

Wetlands are locations where water covers the soil or is present at or near the soil's surface all year or for a variety of times throughout the year, including the growing season.

In a community, interactions occur between only biological organisms or biotic components.

Interactions occur in an ecosystem between living and non-living components as well as between living and non-living components.

Thus, this is the basic difference between the organization of the two.

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Why is the cloning of Dolly the sheep important to humans?
O Animals that produce human medicines could be cloned.
O Cloned animals help us understand how bacteria reproduce.
O Animals that are cloned produce better meat.
O Cloned animals can produce more offspring.​

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is A)  Animals that produce human medicines could be cloned.

Explanation:

Dolly is known to be the fist organism which was cloned by nuclear transfer. Before this, organs, tissues etc had been clone but Dolly was the first organism to be cloned.

The successful cloning of Dolly provided scientists with the hope that organisms that were useful to humans could be cloned.

By cloning, we can produce more of organisms with the desired characteristics such as organisms producing a better source of medicine, meat, milk eggs etc.

Answer:

the answer is a:)

Explanation:

i just did it & i was rightttt! good luck!!

Which statement about the human genome is correct
A) the human genome has been mapped
B) humans have about 21,000 genes
C) most of the DNA in human cells does not code for protein
D) all of these statements are correct

Answers

Answer:

I believe this is D

Explanation:

Answer:

Which statement about the human genome is correct?

humans have about 21,000 genes

Explanation:

Scientists confirmed the number of genes possessed by human which is about 21000

Explain how a cold front is formed.

Answers

Explanation:

Cold fronts form when a cooler air mass moves into an area of warmer air in the wake of a developing extratropical cyclone. The warmer air interacts with the cooler air mass along the boundary, and usually produces precipitation. Cold fronts often follow a warm front or squall line.

Cold Front: transition zone from warm air to cold air. A cold front is defined as the transition zone where a cold air mass is replacing a warmer air mass. Cold fronts generally move from northwest to southeast. The air behind a cold front is noticeably colder and drier than the air ahead of it.

when a cooler air mass moves into a warmer one

18. When does a population experience logistic growth?
O A. When it reaches the carrying capacity
O B. When natural predators are introduced to the population
O C. When it has access to unlimited resources
O D. When there's primary succession

Answers

When it reaches the carrying capacity?

Answer:A

Explanation:

which statement best. describes the fossil record?
it is a complete record
it is an incomplete record
most fossils are older than 5. billion years
all fossils are younger than 600 years

Answers

Answer:

It is incomplete record

Explanation:

I took the quiz and got it right.

Final answer:

The fossil record is best described as an incomplete record, with fossilized species representing only a fraction of all species that have ever existed. It remains a key evidence for understanding Earth's biological history despite its incompleteness.

Explanation:

The best statement that describes the fossil record is that it is an incomplete record. Fossils are the preserved remains or traces of organisms that lived in the past, but the process of fossilization is quite rare, leaving many gaps. Even when fossils are created, finding them is not always possible, as some may be buried under extreme conditions or eroded over time. Fossilized species may represent less than 1% of all the species that have ever lived. Despite its incompleteness, the fossil record is crucial for understanding Earth's history and the evolution of life.

#11 choose the best answer

Answers

Answer:0

Explanation:

which describes the statements that Schwann and Schleiden would make?

Answers

Answer:

Schleiden and Schwann proposed spontaneous generation as the method for cell origination, but spontaneous generation (also called abiogenesis) was later disproven. Rudolf Virchow famously stated “Omnis cellula e cellula”… “All cells only arise from pre-existing cells

Explanation:

Answer:

The correct answer is: B. Schwann would make Statement II and Schleiden would make Statement III. Theodor Schwann was one of the contributors of cell theory, which explains that all living organisms are composed of one or more cells. Matthias Jakob Schleiden stated that all parts of the plant organism are composed of cells. 5.0.

Explanation:

How do these ocean currents affect the climate of the continents?​

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

A lab technician is running a test on a patient’s sample that is likely infected with salmonella. The technician correctly performs PCR on the sample using primers known to identify salmonella. Then they run the PCR product on an electrophoresis gel. What is the technician likely to see on the gel if the patient does have salmonella?

bands matching the size found in known salmonella samples

bands that do not match the size found in known salmonella samples

no bands

Answers

Answer:

First one

Explanation:

Final answer:

If the patient has salmonella, the lab technician is likely to observe bands matching the size found in known Salmonella samples on the electrophoresis gel, indicating the presence of the bacteria.

Explanation:

Electrophoresis Gel Analysis for Salmonella Prediction

If the patient's sample is indeed infected with Salmonella, the lab technician would expect to see bands matching the size found in known Salmonella samples on the electrophoresis gel after running PCR. This is because PCR specifically amplifies the DNA region targeted by the primers, and if Salmonella DNA is present, its size after amplification should be consistent with known Salmonella DNA fragments. Upon visual confirmation with a gel, distinct bands of the expected size should appear, suggesting a positive identification of the bacteria in the sample.

PCR amplification results in a large number of copies of the targeted DNA segment, usually producing a single, sharp band after gel electrophoresis if the target is present. If no bands are present, this might indicate that the sample did not contain the DNA region targeted by the primers, or there could have been an error in the PCR process. Observing the correct size band confirms the technician's prediction and the presence of the pathogen.

1. Look at the illustration in Figure 25-4. Do you think that the bud on the side of the adult hydra
is an embryo? Why?
A. No, because budding is a type of asexual reproduction.
B. No, because budding is a type of sexual reproduction.
C. Yes, because budding is a type of asexual reproduction.
D. Yes, because budding is a type of sexual reproduction.

Answers

Answer:

A. No, because budding is a type of asexual reproduction.

Explanation:

Asexual reproduction is the process where an organism makes a copy of itself by itself. It does not require a mate to make offspring.

The offspring are genetically identical to the parent.

Budding is a type of asexual reproduction where a small outgrowth of the parent breaks off to become a new organism.

Embryo development is usually only discussed in the context of sexual reproduction, where two gametes fertilize one another and a new organism that is genetically different to either parent is formed.

Answer:

A. No, because budding is a type of asexual reproduction.

Explanation:

The buds on the side of the adult hydra is not an embryo because budding is a type of asexual reproduction.

It is sexual reproduction that produces an embryo from the fusion of gametes.

Hydra produces new ones by budding using part of its body wall. This process is simply an outgrowth from the body wall. An embryo is one of the stages of development of offspring originating from a zygote. It is begins at fertilization to the formation of body structures. Embryos are peculiar to organisms that reproduces sexually.

Differences in traits such as hair texture are determined by differences in ? A) The location of sugar groups in DNA B)the sequence of nucleotides in DNA C) The number of nitrogenous bases un DNA D)The molecules attached to the phosphate in DNA

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

This is called the locus and is determined in Meiosis by gametes from parent cells. During meiosis there is this thing called 'crossing over' where the gametes (sperm and egg cells) homologous genes (genes of similar size and shape, such as X and Y chromosomes or X and X) exchange genes on the same locus to provide slightly different characteristics.

Please check this with your teacher but i believe that this is right. Hope this helps. ;)

Which of the following matches the correct definition to example?


A) Physical Change: My microwave exploded

B) Chemical Change: My dog ate my homework.

c) Chemical Change: I changed my toenail polish color.


Answers

Answer:

The awnser is C

Explanation:

If your toenail polish changes color using heat from and area lets say its yellow and you touch it with the warmth of your thumb and changes into orange. It would be chemical change.

The option which matches the correct definition to example is Chemical Change: I changed my toenail polish color using heat. (option c )

Chemical changes

A chemical change is a change which is not easily reversed and in which a new substance is formed

Chemical changes includes the following:

The dissolution of metals in acidsBurning of fire woodNeutralization reactions between acids and alkalisRusting of iron

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Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) is a rod-shaped virus that affects many types of plants. Which of the following categories best describes TMV?
A
helical
B
polyhedral
C
icosahedral
D
complex

Answers

AnswerA. helicalExplanation:

The tobacco mosaic virus is known to be helical in nature.

Tobacco Mosaic Virus

The tobacco mosaic virus is said to be helical in nature because its capsids are rod-shaped or filamentous in appearance.

The filamentous or rod-shaped capsids have a central cavity that holds the genome (usually in the form of ribonucleic acids) of the virus.

Helical viruses are different from other viruses that may be icosahedral, prolate, or complex as far as their own capsids are concerned.

The tobacco mosaic virus, therefore, typicalizes the helical viruses.

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How many diseases are created each year

Answers

Answer:

Deadly Diseases: Epidemics throughout history. Experts warn a global pandemic will halt humanity as we know it in the next 20 to 30 years.

Explanation:

Past epidemics may offer some insight into what the future holds

What are some examples classical conditioning you have in everyday life?
How does that effect you?

Answers

Well for me, I think i'd say CAT TRAINING.

Here's an example. My newest cat is still learning how to come to the food in the kitchen, and come at times when she needs to eat even if already eaten in the morning.

So before today, I've been trying to get her to come just by placing the food down. But she doesn't give a response to it. Next I try a bell alone, and some other jingling or noise makers. Still no response of her coming to me at all. Then I tried placing the food down while ringing the bell, she's starting to understand, but still not a very good response. I assume in a few more days, she will understand that the bell/other noise means COME TO ME. That is a conditioned response i'm hoping to get soon.

HAVE A GOOD DAY!

Grassland and Savanna Biomes Most of the animals in the Grasslands are. A.Herbivores B.Carnivores C.Omnivores

Answers

Imma assume it is herbivores, because there is a lot of grass in the grasslands, but double check

Most of the animals in Grassland and Savanna biomes are herbivores, such as zebras, giraffes, and bison, due to the abundance of grasses. Option A is correct.

The Grassland and Savanna biomes are two of the Earth's major ecosystems characterized by extensive areas dominated by grasses and scattered trees.Most of the animals found in these biomes are herbivores, such as zebras, giraffes, and wildebeests in African savannas, as well as bison and antelope in North American grasslands. These animals primarily feed on grasses and other vegetation.

There are also carnivores, such as lions, cheetahs, and hyenas, that prey on these herbivores, but the dominant group in terms of numbers and diversity are the herbivores, due to the abundance of grasses which provide a primary food source.

In summary, herbivores form the majority of animal populations in Grassland and Savanna biomes, ensuring a balanced ecosystem where plants and animals coexist.

Which best describes the function of chloroplast?

Answers

Answer:

Makes food during photosynthesis

Explanation:

Answer:

B

Explanation:

she gave him that - look​

Answers

Answer:

sis what

Explanation:

elaborate

8. Unlike DNA, RNA
O A. has deoxyribose as the sugar within its nucleotide components.
OB. contains two strands wrapped in a helix.
OC. contains nitrogenous bases.
OD. pairs uracil with adenosine instead of thymine.
+ Back
Next >
Review Answer Selections

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

DNA pairs with adenosine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine

RNA pairs with uracil, adenosine, cytosine, and guanine

Option D is correct because RNA pairs uracil with adenine instead of thymine, unlike DNA. Other differences include ribose in RNA versus deoxyribose in DNA and RNA being single-stranded while DNA is double-stranded.

The correct answer to the question is Option D: pairs uracil with adenosine instead of thymine.

A. has deoxyribose as the sugar within its nucleotide components: This statement is incorrect because RNA contains ribose, not deoxyribose. Deoxyribose is found in DNA.B. contains two strands wrapped in a helix: This is incorrect because RNA is typically single-stranded, whereas DNA is double-stranded.C. contains nitrogenous bases: While this is true for both RNA and DNA, it does not 'unlike' DNA. Both types of nucleic acids contain nitrogenous bases.D. pairs uracil with adenosine instead of thymine: This is the correct statement. Unlike DNA, RNA uses uracil in place of thymine and pairs it with adenine.

In summary, RNA and DNA differ primarily in their sugars (ribose vs. deoxyribose), the presence of uracil instead of thymine, and RNA being single-stranded compared to the double-stranded DNA.

complete question:

Unlike DNA, RNA

OA. has deoxyribose as the sugar within its nucleotide components.

OB. contains two strands wrapped in a helix.

OC. contains nitrogenous bases.

OD. pairs uracil with adenosine instead of thymine.

Describe how the motion of Earth is affected by the sun. Be sure to include the direction of any force you identify and the shape of the path that results.

Answers

The effect of motion of Earth by the sun is given below.

Explanation:

1. The Earth rotates once on its axis about every 24 hours. If you were to look at Earth from the North Pole, it would be spinning counterclockwise. As the Earth rotates, observers on Earth see the Sun moving across the sky from east to west with the beginning of each new day. We often say that the Sun is "rising" or "setting", but actually it is the Earth's rotation that gives us the perception of the Sun rising up or setting over the horizon. When we look at the Moon or the stars at night, they also seem to rise in the east and set in the west. Earth's rotation is also responsible for this. As Earth turns, the Moon and stars change position in our sky.

2. Tides are the regular rising and falling of Earth's surface water in response to gravitational attraction from the Moon and Sun. The Moon's gravity causes the oceans to bulge out in the direction of the Moon. In other words, the Moon's gravity is pulling upwards on Earth's water, producing a high tide.

3.The Moon's position in its monthly orbit determines how it appears from Earth. The diagram on page 725 shows how the positions of the Moon, the Sun, and Earth affect the shapes you see in the sky. ... As the Moon moves along its orbit, sunlight begins falling on the near side. You see a thin crescent shape.

Final answer:

The Sun's gravity influences the Earth's motion, causing it to orbit in an elliptical path around the Sun. The direction of Earth's rotation affects the apparent motion of the sun and causes a deviation in the path of large scale movements like weather systems, known as the Coriolis effect.

Explanation:

The motion of the Earth is greatly influenced by the gravitational pull from the Sun, causing the Earth to move in a consistent, elliptical path around the Sun. This elliptical orbit is referred to as the ecliptic. Viewed from above the North Pole, Earth rotates in a counterclockwise direction.

This rotation leads to a phenomenon known as the Coriolis effect. In the Northern hemisphere, this effect causes moving air and water to appear to turn right. In the Southern Hemisphere, the effect is reversed, causing motion to turn left. These effects caused by Earth's rotation impact large scale motions, such as weather patterns.

The direction of Earth's rotation also affects the Sun's apparent motion in the sky. Due to the ecliptic and Earth's tilt, the Sun seems to move north and south as the seasons change. Additionally, because of Earth's constant motion, the Sun rises about 4 minutes later each day in relation to the stars.

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Identify the items below that can cause illness

Answers

Answer:

cough rubing eyes biteing nails

Explanation:

Illnesses can be caused by viruses like those that cause the common cold, bacteria such as E. coli, and by eating contaminated food. An example of a disease from contaminated water is Cholera. Good hygiene practices, including hand washing, can help prevent these illnesses.

The items below that can cause illness are:

Viruses, such as those that cause the common coldBacteria, such as E. coliCoughing on a person when you are sickForgetting to wash your handsEating contaminated food

While water itself is essential for life and does not cause illness, contaminated water can be a source of disease. An example of a disease caused by contaminated water is Cholera. The common cold is caused by a type of pathogen known as a virus. Athlete's foot is caused by a fungus. Types of pathogens that commonly cause human diseases include bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. For instance, bacteria like Salmonella and E. coli can cause foodborne illnesses. These bacterial illnesses can often be prevented with proper food handling and hand hygiene.

The correct question is:

Identify the items below that can cause illness. Check all that apply.

A. water

B. viruses, such as those that cause the common cold

C. bacteria, such as E. coli

D. coughing on a person when you are sick

E. forgetting to wash your hands

F. eating contaminated food

What other illness played an important role in the development of a vaccine for smallpox?
a. Measles
b. Bubonic Plague
c. Polio
d. Cow pox
e. HPV

Answers

D. Cowpox

Explanation:
And English doctor by the name Edward Jenner noticed that milkmaids who had gotten cowpox did not show symptoms of smallpox after variolation.

Answer:

A.Measles

Explanation:

The origin of smallpox is unknown. Smallpox is thought to date back to the Egyptian Empire around the 3rd century BCE (Before Common Era), based on a smallpox-like rash found on three mummies. The earliest written description of a disease that clearly resembles smallpox appeared in China in the 4th century CE (Common Era). Early written descriptions also appeared in India in the 7th century and in Asia Minor in the 10th century.The smallpox vaccine was the first vaccine to be developed against a contagious disease. In 1796, the British doctor Edward Jenner demonstrated that an infection with the relatively mild cowpox virus conferred immunity against the deadly smallpox virus.

Select all the offspring phenotypes that could be produced from a BbEE x bbee cross (shown above).
black fur, red eyes
black fur, black eyes
white fur, black eyes
white fur, red eyes

Answers

Answer:

2 3

Explanation:

EDGE 2023

What is a likely consequence of continued human population growth?
A. Less pollution
B. Abundant natural resources
C.More urban centers
D. Larger rain forests

Answers

The answer is C. A is wrong because humans cause pollution, B is wrong because we use natural resources and their supply would deteriorate, and D is wrong because we already break down rainforests and they are getting smaller.

The presence of more urban centers is a likely consequence of continued human population growth (Option C).

What is population growth?

Population growth refers to the growth in the number of individuals that live in a given geographic area.

Population growth is a real subject of concern in most urbanized areas.

Continued human population growth leads to the development of new and higher cities.

In conclusion, the presence of more urban centers is a likely consequence of continued human population growth (Option C).

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Estimate the size of a crowd at an airshow that occupies a rectangular space with dimensions of 500 feet by 750 feet (to the nearest whole number).Assume that each person occupies 9 square feet.A)10,417 peopleB)20,833 peopleC)41,667 peopleD)83,333 people A planet is discovered orbiting the star 51 Peg with a period of four days (0.01 years). 51 Peg has the same mass as the Sun. Mercury's orbital period is 0.24 years, and Venus's is 0.62 years. The average orbital radius of this planet is:a) less than Mercury's.b) between Mercury's and Venus's.c) greater than Venus's. Canine Supply Companys budgeted sales for January, February, and March are $120,000, $160,000, and $140,000, respectively. Based on past experience, ABC expects that 25% of a months sales will be collected in the month of sale, 65% in the following month, and 9% in the second month following the sale. Budgeted cash receipts for the month of March would be Suppose that the real return from operating factories in Canada rises relative to the real rate of return in the United States. Other things the same, a. this will only increase U.S. net capital outflow. b. this will increases U.S. net capital outflow and decrease Canadian net capital outflow. c. this will only increase Canadian net capital outflow. d. this will decreases U.S. net capital outflow and increase Canadian net capital outflow. What is 3 1/10 in decimal notation? Abraham just accepted a new job at consulting firm that pays $47,500 during the first year, with an annual increase of 7% per year beginning in the second year. What can Abraham expect to earn in his fifth anniversary with the consulting firm? Round your answer to the nearest dollar Todd plans to swim 18 laps in the pool.Each Lap is 50 yards.So far Todd has swam 738 yards. What percentage of the total has Todd completed? A.18% B.82% c.62% D77% It has been announced that 64% of all teenagers say they have a television in their bedroom. These findings came from a simple random sample of 1,000 teens. The standard error estimated from this sample was 1.5% 1. Which of the following is the best estimate of the 85% confidence interval for the proportion of teenagers who say that they have a TV set in their bedroom ? A. 59.5% to 68.5%. C. 62.5% to 65.5%B. 61% to 67% D. 64% to 100% A disk 8.04 cm in radius rotates at a constant rate of 1 220 rev/min about its central axis. (a) Determine its angular speed. rad/s (b) Determine the tangential speed at a point 3.02 cm from its center. m/s (c) Determine the radial acceleration of a point on the rim. magnitude km/s2 direction (d) Determine the total distance a point on the rim moves in 2.02 s. m Calculate the molarity of a solution, given that its volume is 820 mL and that it contains 7.4 g of ammonium chloride, NH,CI. Help please !! Its geometry What is the radius and diameter of the following circle?13 cmRadius =cmDiameter = How much energy must be transferred out of the system as heat q to lower its temperature to 0c? express your answer numerically in joules? What x value solves the equation?3x 5 = 1 What steps are involved in converting potential energy to kinetic energy What is the surface area of the prism?A rectangular prism with a length of 3 meters, width of 4 meters, and height of 2 meters. [Not drawn to scale] (same figure unfolded as net) a18 square meters b24 square meters c52 square meters d64 square meters A garden table and a bench cost $988 combined. The garden table costs $88 more than the bench. What is the cost of the bench? Geneticists analyze pedigrees to follow the inheritance of genetically controlled conditions. Three things must be determined in a pedigree analysis:The mode of inheritance of the condition. In this tutorial, this means deciding if a condition is caused by an autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive allele.The genotypes of individuals in the pedigree (as far as can be known) based on their phenotype and the phenotypes of their parents or children.The probability that certain individuals will have the condition. This requires assigning probability values to some individuals whose genotypes cannot be determined with certainty. It also requires an understanding of how and when to apply the product and sum rules.Part A - Determining the mode of inheritanceThe pedigrees below show the inheritance of three separate, rare autosomal conditions in different families. For each pedigree, decide if the condition is betterexplained as recessive or dominant.Drag the correct label to the appropriate location. Labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all. Tim mowed lawns for 2 hours and earned $4.50 per hour. Then he washed windows for 4 hours and earned $3.45 per hour. What was Tim's average earnings per hour for all 6 hours. Air and water are both considered to be ____.