Which of these are found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes (choose all that apply)
a. Centromere
b. replication bubbles
c. telomeres
d. replication forks

Answer:

A) Clostridium perfringens

Explanation:

Gas gangrene is a type of infection caused by Clostridium perfringens and other species of clostridia. This infection happens in the muscles. The gas produced by the bacteria produces blisters in the tissues.  These infections can occur after injuries, blows or surgeries

The number of possible proteins in humans is twenty.

The number of amino acids you can use it's called n, and the number of possible proteins then will be P=20^n.

In this case, you have 100 amino acids if you replace the n in the equation P=20^100 possible proteins.

Answer:

D) 0.04

Explanation:

Assuming that a is the recessive allele when homozygous that causes the polycystic kidney disease and A is the dominant one:

Since Penelope's sisters has the disease, she must be homozygous recessive (aa). Her parents must both be Aa (otherwise her sister wouldn't have inherit the disease).  So, the probability of Penelope of being heterozygous (Aa) is 0.5.

On the other hand, the probability of having the disease in the population is 0.04 (1 minus the probability of not having the disease which is 0.96). This, according the Hardy–Weinberg principle, in the population would represent  the genotype frequency [tex]q^{2}[/tex]. So, the allele a would have a frequency [tex]\sqrt{q}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{0.04}[/tex] = 0.2. Since the gene has only two alleles, all alleles must be either A or a , therefore p + q = 1. So, the A population's frequency is p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8.

The European man's probability of being Aa (doesn't have the disease but can carry the disease allele) is 2pq = 2 x 0.8 x 0.2 = 0.32.

The probability of Penelope and the European man of having an ill kid (assuming they both are Aa) is 0.25.

Finally, given the Penelope's probability of being Aa (0.5), the European man's 's probability of being Aa (0.32) and the probability of having a kid homozygous recessive aa (0.25) = 0.5 x 0.32 x 0.25 = 0.4 is the probability that they will have a child with ARPKD.

Answer:

The correct answer is c. the process of spermatozoa production

Explanation:

Spermatogenesis is the process of formation of sperms in the seminiferous tubules present in the testes. The process of spermatogenesis starts when germ cells present in the seminiferous tubule starts dividing mitotically.

Some of these cells become primary spermatocytes after mitosis and enters meiosis I. After completion of meiosis I they become secondary spermatocytes.

Each secondary spermatocytes converts into two haploid spermatids after completion of meiosis II. Spermatids then differentiate into mature sperms called spermatozoa.

Thus, the correct answer is c.  the process of spermatozoa production

1. Allows the growth of long bones - Periosteum

2. Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis - Fibrocartilage

3. External ear, epiglottis, and auditory tubes - Elastic cartilage

4. Outer portion of all bones - Dense (compact) bone

5. Inside skull bones, vertebrae, and sternum - Spongy (cancellous) bone

6. Transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other substances - Blood

7. Produces new blood cells and stores lipids - Bone marrow

8. Capable of strength with stretching and recoil in several directions - Elastic connective tissue

9. Tensile strength capable of withstanding stretch in all directions - Areolar (loose) connective tissue

10. Vocal folds and ligaments between vertebrae - Dense (regular) connective tissue

11. Tendons and ligaments - Dense (regular) connective tissue

12. Provides superstructure for lymphatic tissues - Reticular connective tissue

13. Energy storage - Adipose tissue

14. Epithelial basement membrane sits on this - Areolar (loose) connective tissue

15. Precursor to adult connective tissues - Mesenchyme

16. Umbilical cord of the newborn - Wharton's jelly

Here's the matching of functions or locations to the correct connective tissues:

1. **Allows the growth of long bones:**

  - *Connective Tissue:* **Hyaline Cartilage**

2. **Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis:**

  - *Connective Tissue:* **Fibrocartilage**

3. **External ear, epiglottis, and auditory tubes:**

  - *Connective Tissue:* **Elastic Cartilage**

4. **Outer portion of all bones:**

  - *Connective Tissue:* **Periosteum**

5. **Inside skull bones, vertebrae, and sternum:**

  - *Connective Tissue:* **Endosteum**

6. **Transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other substances:**

  - *Connective Tissue:* **Blood (Connective Tissue Proper)**

7. **Produces new blood cells and stores lipids:**

  - *Connective Tissue:* **Bone Marrow**

8. **Capable of strength with stretching and recoil in several directions:**

  - *Connective Tissue:* **Elastic Connective Tissue**

9. **Tensile strength capable of withstanding stretch in all directions:**

  - *Connective Tissue:* **Collagenous (Dense) Connective Tissue**

10. **Vocal folds and ligaments between vertebrae:**

   - *Connective Tissue:* **Elastic Ligaments**

11. **Tendons and ligaments:**

   - *Connective Tissue:* **Dense Regular Connective Tissue**

12. **Provides superstructure for lymphatic tissues:**

   - *Connective Tissue:* **Reticular Connective Tissue**

13. **Energy storage:**

   - *Connective Tissue:* **Adipose Tissue**

14. **Epithelial basement membrane sits on this:**

   - *Connective Tissue:* **Basement Membrane (a form of Areolar Connective Tissue)**

15. **Precursor to adult connective tissues:**

   - *Connective Tissue:* **Mesenchyme**

16. **Umbilical cord of the newborn:**

   - *Connective Tissue:* **Wharton's Jelly**

Each of these connective tissues serves specific functions or is located in particular areas of the body to support and maintain the structure and function of various organs and tissues.

Answer:

The correct answer is - decrease the area of the field of view.

Explanation:

In the microscope, if you increase the magnification power of the objective lens it will result in a decrease in the field of the view. The magnification power is inversely proportional to the field of view which means if decrease the magnification it will lead to an increase in the field of view and vice versa.

The specimen looks larger with a higher magnification as it results in a smaller part of the specimen is exposed or spread out to fill the field of the view.

Thus, the correct answer is option - decreases the area of the field of view.

Answer:

47%

Explanation:

The hematocrit measures the volume of erythrocytes compared to the total blood volume. It's calculated as the ratio of the length of erythrocytes in the capillary tube to the length of total blood. It's expressed in percentage, so we have to multiply the ratio by 100%.

[tex]Hematocrit = \frac{45mm}{95mm} [/tex] x 100 %

Hematocrit = 47%

Answer:

DNA

Explanation:

Because DNA information has already been copied in the mRNA and travels from the nucleus to ribosomes, where it works with tRNA to produce proteins. GTP is a molecule used as an energy source in the translation process.

DNA is not directly involved in the process of translation. Translation involves converting the information in mRNA into a protein, a process involving ribosomes, GTP, and tRNA, but not DNA.

The component that is not directly involved in the process of translation is b. DNA. The process of translation involves converting the information held in mRNA, which was transcribed from the DNA, into a protein. During translation, the ribosome, GTP, and tRNA are all key players. The ribosome serves as the site where translation takes place, the GTP provides the energy for the process, and the tRNA brings the appropriate amino acid to the ribosome. However, the DNA itself does not directly participate in translation, its role is in the preceding process of transcription where it acts as a template for the synthesis of mRNA.

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Answer:

c. increase HDL levels

Explanation:

Cholesterol is carried in blood in two ways, LDL and HDL. Both of them are lipoproteins made of fat and protein. LDL or Low Density Lipoprotein has 50% cholesterol and 25% protein by weight. HDL or High Density Lipoprotein has 20% cholesterol and 50 % protein. LDL carries cholesterol to arteries and deposits it there which is not good for the body. HDL on the other hand removes excess cholesterol from body via liver.

Aerobic exercise increases HDL values and lowers LDL values. It has been shown that exercising regularly can increase HDL level by 6% which is good for the overall health of the body. For maximum effect 30 minutes of moderate exercise should be done 5 times a week.

Exercising has a beneficial effect on blood lipid levels by increasing the levels of HDL, the 'good cholesterol'. It does not typically increase LDL levels, the 'bad cholesterol'. The correct answer to the question is 'c. Increase HDL levels'.

Exercising has a myriad of advantages, one of which includes its beneficial effects on blood lipid levels. Understanding the terms LDL and HDL is critical here. LDL stands for Low-Density Lipoprotein, often known as 'bad cholesterol,' as elevated levels can lead to plaque accumulation in the arteries. On the other hand, HDL stands for High-Density Lipoprotein, or 'good cholesterol', which removes LDL cholesterol from the bloodstream, reducing the risk of cardiovascular diseases.

Now, when it comes to the impact of exercise on these levels, regular physical activity has been found to increase HDL levels in the blood. Hence, the correct answer would be 'c. Increase HDL levels'. Exercise typically does not lead to an increase in LDL levels.

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Answer:

Various cyclins are the regulatory proteins that associate with respective cyclin dependent kinases. The cyclin-cdk complex activate or inhibit the proteins required for specific stage of cell cycle by phosphorylation.

Explanation:

Cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks) are the protein kinases that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle. Cyclins are the regulatory proteins whose levels change during the cell cycle. Cyclins associate with their respective cyclin-dependent kinases to activate them. The cyclin-Cdk complex phosphorylates the enzymes and other proteins required for a particular stage of the cell cycle.  

For example, the G1-cdk (the cyclin- G1 specific Cdk complex) allows the cell to enter from G1 to S phase while the G1/S-Cdk complex makes the cell to commit for DNA replication while the S-Cdk complex serves in the initiation of DNA replication. The M-Cdk complex makes the cell to enter the mitosis by phosphorylation of proteins required for various stages of mitosis. Cdks are not activated when not associated with cyclins.  

When the cell is not prepared for cell division, phosphorylation of protein p27 is followed by degradation of the [proteins required for cell division. The protein p27 is one of the inhibitors of cell division.  

Answer: False

Explanation:

Conventionally pasteurized milk is not sterile it gets sterile after it is homogenized. The process of pasteurization involves sudden heating and sudden cowling of milk which does not kills all the microorganism but is intended to kill some of the bacteria and inactivates some enzyme.

Homogenization is a completely separate process  which involve mechanical breakdown of fat molecules in the milk which increases the shelf life of milk by preventing the cream from rising at the top.

Hence, the given statement is False.

The measure of particle speed in an object is the object's temperature, which reflects the average kinetic energy of the particles.

The measure of how fast the particles are moving in an object is represented by the object's temperature. Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in matter. Consequently, as the temperature of a substance increases, the particles move faster. The other options listed, such as boiling point, freezing point, and evaporation, are related concepts that describe the conditions at which a substance changes phase based on the energy of its particles, but do not directly measure particle speed.

Answer:

Alcohol, ATP and carbon dioxide.

Explanation:

Alcoholic fermentation may be defined as the conversion of sugar into the cellular energy in the absence of oxygen. This process generally occurs in yeast.

This is a type of anaerobic process that do not require oxygen for their process. The ATP is produced as a form of energy. The carbon dioxide and alcohol is obtained as the by product in the alcoholic fermentation.

Thus, the correct answer is option (a), (c) and (d).

Answer:

The xylem fiber surround xylem and phloem fiber surround the phloem.

Explanation:

The fibers surround the xylem are xylem fibers. This is a complex plant tissue. These cells are the dead cells.  

Some of the xylem fibers have cross walls and some don't have. The xylem fibers have a protoplast in it. These fibers have thick cell walls. The xylem fibers provide mechanical support to the plant.

The phloem is surrounded by phloem fibers. The phloem fibers are associated with sclerenchyma fibers. These have thick cell walls. They become dead at maturity.  

These fibers also provide mechanical support to the plants and protect the phloem. Because phloem tissues have thin walls. The phloem fibers of jute, flax plants used for making ropes.

Bark fibers surround the xylem and phloem and provide structural support and protection to the plant. They are part of the scleraenchym cells and are primarily composed of cellulose, hemicellulose, and lignin.

The fibers that surround the xylem and phloem are known as bark fibers. They essentially form a part of the peripheral bark of the tree and fall into the category of sclerenchyma cells, meaning they are hardened and thickened. These fibers, being composed primarily of cellulose, hemicellulose, and lignin, provide critical structural support to the plant. In addition to providing support, bark fibers also play a role in protecting the plant from physical damage and invasion by pathogens.

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Answer:

c. null alleles

Explanation:

Genetic mutation can produce a non functional allele called as null allele. There might not be any product from this allele or a defective product might be produced. If the mutant allele does not even produce a RNA transcript, it is called as RNA null. If it is not able to produce the final protein product, it is called a protein null.

An example of null allele is The O blood group. Due to a mutation in the gene producing A antigen, an enzymatically inactive protein is produced by O blood group people. Both the copies of null allele O are required for O phenotype to be present.  

Answer:

rotating cloud

Explanation:

The nebular hypothesis -

According to this hypothesis , the stars are made up of dense and massive clouds of hydrogen gas , called the giant molecular clouds .

The clouds are gravitationally not stable .

And the formation of the planetary system is a natural result of the star formation .

The solar system evolved a huge rotating cloud .

Answer:

The sliding filament theory is the illustration that how the contraction of muscles takes place in order to generate force. At the start of the process, the motor neuron instigates an action potential or impulse to pass down a nerve cell to the neuromuscular junction. This activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which discharges calcium into the cells of the muscles.  

When calcium comes within the muscle cells, it combines with troponin, thus, permitting the binding of actin with myosin. The actin and myosin bind with each other and form cross-bridges, which further contracts by utilizing ATP as the source of energy.  

ATP is manufactured again, thus, permitting actin and myosin to sustain their strong binding condition. Relaxation takes place when stimulation of the nerve ceases. Calcium is then moved back within the sarcoplasmic reticulum dissociating the association between the actin and myosin.  

The actin and myosin go back to their unbound condition making the muscle to relax.  

Explanation:

Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are both forms of gametogenesis, in which a diploid gamete cell, sperm, and eggs respectively produces haploid cells through meiosis.

I hope you find this information useful! good luck!

I added images for both processes!

Answer:

Systematics, molecular analysis, and cellular morphology offer enough proof that plants had originated from green algae. In fact, the green algae, red algae, and the land plants come under a similar eukaryotic group, that is, Archaeplastida. The group had descended from an ancient protist that engulfed a cyanobacterium.  

If the plants had originated from green algae than this can be demonstrated by sequencing the genes of both the green algae and plants. If the sequence of gene of plants is closely associated with the gene sequence of green algae, then the hypothesis that the plants had originated from green algae would be certainly true.  

Thus, the mentioned hypothesis can be tested with the help of gene sequencing.  

The hypothesis that plants evolved from green algae can be tested by comparing DNA sequences, looking for shared structural and biochemical traits, and identifying adaptations for terrestrial living such as the presence of a cuticle or vascular tissue.

When applying the "If... then" logic of science to the hypothesis that plants evolved from green algae, several predictions can be made to test this hypothesis. One prediction might be that if plants evolved from green algae, then they should share common ancestral traits with green algae. Some of these ancestral traits can include the presence of cellulose in their cell walls and the use of similar pigments for photosynthesis.

To test this hypothesis, scientists could compare the DNA sequences of plants and green algae, expecting to find significant similarities. Additionally, they would look for structural and biochemical characteristics that plants and green algae have in common, such as the types of chlorophyll used in photosynthesis or the presence of similar reproductive strategies like the alternation of generations observed in some marine algae species.

Moreover, if plants have adapted from green algae, which are aquatic, we might expect early plants to have features that allowed them to cope with the challenges of transitioning to a terrestrial environment. Such adaptations could include the development of embryo retention, a protective cuticle, stomata for gas exchange, and vascular tissue for transport of water and nutrients. Confirmation of these predicted features would further strengthen the hypothesis that plants are indeed evolved from green algae.

The correct answer is B. Brain and spinal cord

Explanation:

In biology, the nervous tissue is one of the main tissues in the nervous system that is responsible for movement, communication between different parts of the body and perception/processing of information. This tissue can be found mainly in the brain, the spinal cord and the nerves which are also the most important structures in the Nervous system. Also. this tissue includes different types of specialized cells such as the neuroglia cells and neurons. According to this, the largest mass of nervous tissues is found in the brain and spinal cord, because it is in these structures most nervous tissues can be found.

Answer:

Largest mass of Nervous tissue is found in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves.

Explanation:

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Answer: Option D

Explanation:

The process in which the macro molecules breakdown in order to derive energy from them to sustain life is known as metabolism.

It includes intake of carbohydrates, fats, protein, nuclei acid and other compounds  in order to break them and obtain energy for various types of cellular processes is known as metabolism.

The macro molecules breakdown to provide energy that is used for living.

Hence, the correct answer is option D

Answer:

Although now a days we have evidence that evolution and speciation process can happen in 1 or just a few generations (e.g. clone crayfish or the golden rain tree bug florida and there are many more) usually evolution and speciation process work at a broader scale of time. This is important because communities are evolving together and this creates equilibrium in ecosystems. If evolution happens only in several other may not adapt to these changes.

DNA technologies can be dangerous especially with bacteria  because Gram Negative Bacteria have been found to be fairly capable of inter-species conjugation, this is dangerous because DNA can change bacteria in a way that may be invasive or harmful to other organism.

DNA-based technologies could potentially alter the course of evolution in several significant ways:

1. Directed Evolution: With DNA-based technologies like gene editing (e.g., CRISPR-Cas9), humans could directly manipulate the genetic makeup of organisms, accelerating the rate of evolution. This could lead to the intentional modification of traits in plants, animals, and even humans, potentially bypassing the slow, random process of natural selection.

2. Selective Breeding: Humans have been selectively breeding plants and animals for thousands of years, but with advancements in DNA technology, this process could become more precise and efficient. Rather than relying on observable traits, scientists could select for specific genetic markers associated with desired traits, potentially leading to the rapid development of new varieties and species.

3. Gene Drives: Gene drives are genetic systems that bias inheritance in sexually reproducing organisms, allowing a particular gene variant to spread rapidly throughout a population. While this technology holds promise for combating diseases and pests, it also raises ethical concerns about its potential ecological impact and unintended consequences.

4. Synthetic Biology: DNA synthesis technologies enable scientists to design and create entirely new DNA sequences, including genes and even entire genomes. This could lead to the creation of organisms with novel traits not found in nature, potentially opening up new avenues for innovation in fields such as medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology.

5. Genetic Engineering for Environmental Adaptation: As climate change continues to alter ecosystems, DNA-based technologies could be used to help organisms adapt more quickly to changing environmental conditions. This might involve introducing genes from other species that confer tolerance to heat, drought, or other stressors.

Overall, while DNA-based technologies offer unprecedented opportunities to shape the course of evolution, they also raise profound ethical questions about the implications of playing such an active role in the genetic destiny of life on Earth. Balancing the potential benefits of these technologies with their potential risks will be a crucial challenge for scientists, policymakers, and society as a whole.

Answer:

Genetic code comprises 64 codons, out of which 61 codes for 20 amino acids, while the remaining three codons do not code for any amino acids. In nature, only twenty standard amino acids prevail.  

A standard amino acid is considered as an amino acid that possesses an alpha-carboxyl and alpha-amino acid, and which are found in the proteins. Though there are some of the compounds that possess alpha carboxyl and alpha-amino group but are not regarded as standard amino acids, as they do not take place in proteins like the standard one does, and these are termed as non-standard amino acids.  

The frequency of these non-standard amino acids in the proteins is less and they do not comprise all the characteristics demonstrated by the standard amino acids. The genetic code is degenerative and because of this, a single amino acid is encrypted by more than one codon.  

The non-standard amino acids do not exhibit the corresponding amino acids, which can code for them and they are not mediated by the t-RNA's to the location of translation, as there is no corresponding tRNAs for them. Thus, genetic code utilizes only the twenty standard amino acids.  

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-A.

Explanation:

ATP synthase is an enzyme complex made up of two regions called F₀ and F₁ cells.  The complex helps in the production of ATP molecules which provides energy to the cell.

The ATP synthase is found in the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast and inner membrane of the mitochondria The F₀  particle is embedded in the membrane while F₁ particle faces matrix in mitochondria and stroma in the chloroplast.

Thus, option-A is the correct answer.

Answer:

The correct answer will be option-D.

Explanation:

Photosynthesis process proceeds in two phases: light-dependent reaction and independent reaction. The light-dependent reaction is necessary as it converts the light energy to chemical energy by capturing the light photons by photosystems.

Light causes excitation of the electrons from chlorophyll which travels down electron transport chain and produces the intermediate energy equivalents mainly ATP and NADPH.  These ATP and NADPH are directly utilized in the second phase of the photosynthesis which forms the glucose molecule.

Thus, option-D is the correct answer.

In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, ATP and NADPH are produced, which are used in the light-independent reactions to produce sugars.

The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis convert light energy into chemical energy, specifically producing ATP and NADPH. These molecules provide the energy for the light-independent reactions, where sugars are synthesized. The light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts, involving two photosystems (Photosystem I and Photosystem II) which contain chlorophyll molecules that absorb light at specific wavelengths, aiding in the energy capture process.

Answer:

a. The pH of the matrix increases is the correct answer.

Explanation:

When electrons flow along the electron transport chains of mitochondria,The pH of the matrix increases because the electron transport chain is forming a gradient of hydrogen ions in respects to the matrix and the inner membrane surface of the mitochondria.

The concentration of hydrogen ion outside is higher as compared to the matrix. Thus due to higher concentration of hydrogen ions outside creates lower pH and the pH of the matrix increases.

When electrons flow along the electron transport chains of the mitochondria, the pH of the matrix increases. This is because protons are pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space, creating a more alkaline (high pH) environment in the matrix.

When electrons flow along the electron transport chains of the mitochondria, a change that occurs is the increase of the pH in the matrix (option a). Here's why: The process of electron transport chain plays a crucial role in cellular respiration.

As electrons pass along the chain, protons (H+ ions) are actively pumped from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space, creating a proton gradient. The intermembrane space becomes more acidic (low pH) while the matrix becomes more alkaline (high pH). So the pH of the mitochondrial matrix increases during the process.

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Answer:

A. DNA repair

Explanation:

The p53 protein acts as a tumor remover by controlling a set of genes required for the cell division. This protein protects the genome by restricting abnormal cells to proliferate avoiding the replication of damaged DNA. The first resource the protein uses and prometes is DNA repair and if the DNA has irreparable damage,  the last resource used by this protein is apoptosis.  

Answer:

c. fermentation of pyruvate into lactate to regenerate NAD+

e. the breakdown of glucose

Explanation:

Fermentation of pyruvate into lactate to form NAD+ to drive glycolysis occurs in absence of oxygen in the cytoplasm. It does not include Kreb's cycle and oxidative phosphorylation of aerobic cellular respiration.

Aerobic respiration starts with glycolysis to split glucose into pyruvate and is followed by Kreb's cycle. Pyruvate enters Kreb's cycle in the form of acetyl CoA and is completely broken down into CO2 and H2O.

Oxidative phosphorylation is responsible for ATP synthesis in mitochondria. The dinucleotides (NADH and FADH2) formed during glycolysis and Kreb's cycle are oxidized by giving their electrons to the terminal electron acceptor oxygen molecule via electron transport chain.

The process reduces oxygen molecules into water and also generates the electrochemical gradients across the inner mitochondrial membrane to drive the ATP synthesis.

ATP synthesis requires a hydrogen ion concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane, oxidation of dinucleotide molecules, and reduction of oxygen. The breakdown of glucose and fermentation of pyruvate into lactate is not directly involved in ATP synthesis in the mitochondria.

The synthesis of ATP (adenosine triphosphate), which is the main energy currency of the cell, within mitochondria depends on a series of biological processes including glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. However, the processes that are NOT required are 'fermentation of pyruvate into lactate to regenerate NAD⁺' (c) and 'the breakdown of glucose' (e).

ATP synthesis primarily relies on the existence of a hydrogen ion concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane (a), which is created through the electron transport chain. This process also requires the oxidation of dinucleotide molecules (which are electron carriers such as NADH or FADH₂) (b), and the reduction of oxygen, forming water (d).

The breakdown of glucose is an essential step in glycolysis, which is a preceding step to ATP synthesis inside the mitochondria but is not directly involved in ATP formation within mitochondria. Besides, the fermentation of pyruvate into lactate takes place under anaerobic conditions when the oxygen supply is low, and thus, it is not required for ATP synthesis in mitochondria.

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The  inoculating loop is used as a tool to inoculate microbes on plates. So it is necessary to flame the inoculating loop to destroy any kind of microorganisms that may contaminate ou interfer the culture medium. The fire, together with ethanol, helps to sterilize the loop, allowing it to inoculate a pure culture.