Answer: Cerebellum
Explanation:
The frontal lobe is made up of two large cortical areas: the motor cortex and the prefrontal cortex. The motor cortex is located in the region of the pre-central gyrus, between the central sulcus and the pre-central sulcus. The primary motor cortex has the function of voluntary motion control while the supplementary motor cortex has the function of planning the movements of the limbs and eye. The cerebellum connections with various regions of the central nervous system have long been known and explain the involvement of this organ in multiple brain functions. It has been known for several decades that the cerebellum plays an essential role in motor coordination, verbal articulation, and control of eye movements, while also participating in the control balance and autonomic functions.
How does the egg of a flower become fertilized? 1 answer, not multiple choice.
as soon as the pollen reaches the stigma
after the pollen grain descends down the style
when the pollen tube grows into the ovule
when the seed germinates
Answer:
as soon as the pollen reaches the stigma
Explanation:
When pollen lands on stigma, it germinates and gives rise to a pollen tube that passes through the style and reaches the ovary of a pistil
Answer:
when the pollen tube grows into the ovule
Explanation:
Fertilization in plants occurs after pollination. Pollination does not always guarantee fertilization. Whether fertilization will occur or not totally depends upon the later stages which occur after pollination.
The following stages give a better idea of how egg of flower is fertilized:
1) Pollination: A soon as a pollen reaches the stigma pollination is said to occur.
2) Germination: When pollen comes in contact with stigma, it absorbs some chemicals like inositol, Ca²⁺, boran, brassinosteroids and water from the stigma as a result of which pollen starts to increase in size to form pollen tube. The pollen tube begins to grow which is also known as germination.
3) Penetration of ovule & 4) Fertilization: The growing pollen tube travels through style to reach ovary which has ovule inside it. The pollen contains 2 haploid nuclei while ovule contains 3 haploid nuclei. One of the nuclei in ovule is in the egg cell so it is haploid while 2 nuclei are inside central cell. When the pollen tube keeps on increasing in size, it ultimately penetrates the ovule and one of the nuclei of pollen tube fuses with egg cell and the process is known as fertilization.The other nuclei of pollen tube fuses with central cell which ultimately has 3 nuclei and the process is known as triple fusion. These two processes i.e. fertilization & triple fusion are collectively known as double fertilization.
In genetic engineering, genes are isolated and inserted into other DNA, producing recombinant DNA. To do this, both the source and the vector DNA are first cut into fragments by ____________ .
They need to be cut or cleaved by restriction enzymes called endonucleases in a way that both source and vector are left with complementary DNA strands for ligation using DNA ligase enzymes
Cns nerve fibers regenerate because of the actions of schwann cells. True or False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Nerve fibers can regenerate because of the actions of schwann cells.
What foods are good sources of multiple micronutrients
Answer:
Calcium - milk, yogurt, spinach, and sardines.
Vitamin B12 - beef, fish, cheese, and eggs.
Zinc - beef, cashews, garbanzo beans, and turkey.
Potassium - bananas, spinach, potatoes, and apricots.
Vitamin C - oranges, peppers, broccoli, and bananas.
Explanation:
vitamin B6, vitamin C, vitamin E, magnesium, and zinc—play roles in maintaining immune function, and supplements containing them are often sold as immune boosters in doses that greatly exceed the recommended daily allowance
A cloned mammal is made by removing the DNA from the unfertilized egg of an egg donor, replacing it with DNA from a cell of a mature animal, and then implanting that cell into the uterus of a surrogate mother. The cell then divides and behaves as if it were a regular embryo
Answer: there is no question. Where is the question?
Explanation:
Just in case. I guess the question is:
Of whom is the baby a clone? And the answer is of the DNA donor.
Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a neuron at a single ___________.
a.neuromuscular junction
b.sarcomere
c.synaptic cleft
d.transverse tubule
e.synaptic knob
Answer:
a. neuromuscular junction
Explanation:
Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a neuron at a single neuromuscular junction.
A single cylindrical muscle cell makes up each skeletal muscle fiber. A single skeletal muscle might consist of hundreds or even thousands of muscle fibers that have been bundled together and covered in connective tissue. The epimysium, a sheath of connective tissue, encases each muscle.
A neuron at a single Location controls every skeletal muscle fiber.
Neuromuscular connection is the answer.
Skeletal muscle is controlled by what kind of neuron?
a motor neuron in alpha
Muscle contractions that result in movement are triggered by alpha motor neurons, also known as lower motor neurons, which innervate skeletal muscle. At a synaptic junction known as the neuromuscular junction, motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
To learn more about Skelton muscle fiber refer to:
https://brainly.com/question/4297845
#SPJ2
During replication, the function of the enzyme DNA polymerase is to
a. send messages
b. locate replication sites.
c. bind nucleotides together.
Answer:
b. locate replication sites.
Explanation:
During replication, the function of the enzyme DNA polymerase is to locate replication sites.
_____ gave Stanford nursery schoolchildren a choice between a marshmallow now and two later. He found that the children who were able to wait had higher completion rates and incomes and were less likely to experience addiction as an adult. He also found that this tendency to wait or not persisted even 40 years later.
Answer: the correct answer is Walter Mischel.
Explanation: Walter Mischel was an important Austrian psychologist that studied personality.
The drug AZT Multiple Choice inhibits the production of HIV proteins. is incorporated into DNA by reverse transcriptase, making it impossible to add additional nucleotides. binds to human cell receptors, thereby blocking HIV's access to them. inhibits the enzyme protease.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The drug AZT belongs to the group of drugs that is used in case of HIV. These class of drugs are known as Nucleoside analogues.
This drug interferes with the enzyme reverse trsncriptase which is used by the cells affected from HIV for the production of new viruses.
So, this drug reduces the activity of reverse transcriptase which reduces the chances of the cells to divide further to new HIV infected cell.
Hence, the correct answer is option A
Alice has just delivered her baby; however, because of financial constraints, she has to go back to working both of her jobs, and she can't give her baby the attention and stimulation it needs. Due to Alice's situation, her baby could suffer from:
Answer: Non organic failure to thrive.
Explanation:
This is a psychosocial failure in which the child who is less than 2 years of age and have no known medical conditions but fails to get proper growth and health.
In this condition the child does not suffers from any medical condition but the child lacks emotional or maternal deprivation which is indirectly or directly related to nutritional deprivation.
In this condition the child lacks proper feeding or care.
What is a characteristic of annelids? smooth bodies radial symmetry armlike tentacles segmented bodies
Answer:
The correct answer is option - segmented bodies.
Explanation:
Annelids are large phylum known as the segmented worms or the ringed worms. The member of these phyla are earthworms and leaches. These are invertebrate animals with bilateral symmetry.
The segmented body is the distinguished character of the members of this phylum. These segments are joined together like rings chain in the body of annelids.
Thus, the correct answer is option - segmented bodies.
Are the reactions serving as flux control points conside?
Answer:
Explanation:
Yup
Which of the following is the correct sequence of development from zygote to embryo?
cleavage, gastrula, morula, blastocyst
blastocyst, cleavage, gastrula, morula
cleavage, blastocyst, morula, gastrula
cleavage, morula, blastocyst, gastrula
Answer:
Cleavage, morula, blastocyst, gastrula
Explanation:
The zygote is formed after fertilization of sperm and ovum. Then the zygote undergoes a repeated cell division to form a number of cells. These tiny cells formed by mitotic cell division but present inside the zygote. It forms 2 cells then 2 cells, then 8 cells and so on. After forming the number of cells the zygote has a number of tiny cells. This stage is called morula and the tiny cells are called morulae. Then these cells migrate towards the periphery of the morula and creating a central space called blastocoel. This hollow ball structure is known as the blastocyst. After this blastocyst stage, the cells migrate to form 3 layers such as endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm. From this layer different organs are formed. This 3 layered stage is known as gastrula. Thus the zygote development starts from cleavage, morula, blastula, and gastrula.
The correct developmental order from a zygote to an embryo is cleavage, morula, blastocyst, and gastrula, which involves cell division and restructuring into layers.
Explanation:The correct sequence of development from a zygote to an embryo is as follows: cleavage, morula, blastocyst, gastrula. Initially, the zygote undergoes rapid cell division known as cleavage, forming smaller cells called blastomeres. This process leads to the formation of a morula, which is a solid ball of cells.
Following this, the structure develops into a blastocyst, which has a distinct inner cell mass and is surrounded by an outer layer of cells.
Finally, gastrulation occurs, where the blastocyst reorganizes into a gastrula with different layers that will develop into various tissues and organs of the embryo.
The neuromuscular junction is a well-studied example of a chemical synapse. Which of the following statements describes a critical event that occurs at the neuromuscular junction?
a) Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron.
b) When the action potential reaches the end of the axon terminal, voltage-gated sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse into the terminal.
c) Acetylcholine binds to its receptor in the junctional folds of the sarcolemma. Its receptor is linked to a G protein.
d) Acetylcholine is released and moves across the synaptic cleft bound to a transport protein.
Answer:
A- Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron.
Explanation:
The general mechanism of muscle contraction can be explained as follows:
a) The action potential which is generated, travels along the motor nerve to its ends on muscle fiber (or motor end plate) at the neuro-muscular junction.
b) The nerve endings then secrete small amounts of neurotransmitter called acetylcholine.
c) The actylecholine binds to the receptors on the membrane of muscle fiber and opens the voltage gated sodium channels.
d) Opening of these channels leads to flow of large quantities of sodium ions into the muscle fiber which ultimately results in initiation of action potential in muscle fiber.
e) This action potential depolarizes the fiber including the T-tubules, triggering the release of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum.
f) The calcium ions thus released initiated the process of muscle contraction.
Anson is 75 years old and has recently been experiencing a change in his personality. He is acting more impulsively and does not seem to care about his loved ones, to whom he has always been very devoted. While he was always frugal with his money, he is now gambling frequently and losing much of his retirement savings. He does not seem to be experiencing any physical symptoms. From which is Anson most likely suffering?
Answer: anxiety disorder
Explanation:when people get older there is always a creeping fear of dying. As a coping mechanism Anson resorts to gambling and violence inorder to copy with his fears and escape reality.
Final answer:
Anson appears to be experiencing personality changes indicative of a neurological or psychiatric condition, such as dementia. Medical evaluation, including cognitive tests and brain imaging, is critical for diagnosis and management.
Explanation:
Anson's sudden change in personality and the development of impulsive behaviors, such as compulsive gambling and disregard for his loved ones, could be symptomatic of a neurological or psychiatric condition. Such symptoms are not typical aspects of normal aging, and they may indicate the onset of a form of dementia, a frontal lobe disorder, or other mental health issues.
It's important for Anson to receive medical attention. A health professional would likely assess his cognitive functioning through various tests, conduct a physical examination, and possibly order brain imaging studies to identify any structural changes. Personality changes in elderly individuals, especially those involving impulsive behavior and poor money management, are concerning and should not be dismissed as part of normal aging.
One of the reasons why statins are effective in reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease is ______.
a. they increase the transport of cholesterol away from the liver
b. they reduce the protein content of LDLs
c. they decrease the incidence of cholesterol deposition in arterial walls
d. All of the listed responses are correct.
Answer: c. they decrease the incidence of cholesterol deposition in arterial walls.
Explanation:
The statin is a drug which block the action of the liver enzyme which controls the production of the cholesterol. The cholesterol is a biomolecule which aggregate inside the blood vessels such as arteries may lead to arteriosclerosis. This condition will lead to increase in blood pressure which may lead to the condition of hypertension or heart attack.
By lowering the levels of the cholesterol in the arteries the statins can reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option D.
Explanation:
Statins are a class of drug provided in the medication to treat cardiovascular disease.
Statins act by reducing the amount of bad cholesterol called low-density lipoprotein (LDL) from blood, preventing the formation of cholesterol from the liver by blocking the enzyme and pathway of cholestrol synthesis and the degradation of the deposited cholestrol form the arterial walls which make the arteries narrow.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
Dr. Tylka is conducting research about the risk of developing eating disorders in adolescent boys. She concludes that her findings apply not only to the sample of high school boys she studied, but to other males in other settings and contexts. In this regard, Dr. Tylka is stating that her findings have high __________ validity.
Answer: External validity.
Explanation:
When any research is done, then there are two possibility of its validation. One is internal validation and other is external validation.
The internal validation refers to the condition in which the conclusion of the study is within context of the particular study.
The external validation refers to the condition in which the conclusion of the study is out of the context.
Here, The study was performed only on the eating disorders in the adolescent boys but the conclusion included other males of different age groups.
Dr. Tylka's conclusion that her research findings on the risk of developing eating disorders in adolescent boys can be generalized to other contexts indicates she believes her findings have high external validity.
Explanation:Dr. Tylka is stating that her findings have high external validity. This term refers to the extent to which the conclusions drawn from a particular study can be generalized, or extended, to other settings, populations, or times. The generalizability of a study's results is an important aspect of its external validity. It relies on the use of valid survey questions which accurately measure what they are intended to measure, and reliable survey questions that consistently produce similar results across different instances to ensure a lack of bias.
Dr. Tylka's confidence in her research suggests that she believes her study's constructs and their measurement methods, including the survey questions, have been well designed to accurately represent and assess the risk of developing eating disorders among adolescent boys. This assurance further implies that these methodological tools are likely to yield similar findings if used in different contexts, which strengthens the claim of high external validity.
You have an F2 generation derived from two true-breeding parents with different characteristics for the same trait (determined by two alleles of a single gene). What percentage of the F2 generation with a dominant phenotype would you expect to be homozygous for the allele of interest? (Hint: the parental cross results in the F1 generation. Two F1s are crossed to get the F2 generation.)
Answer:
The percentage for the homozygous dominant trait would be 25%. in the F2 generation.
Explanation:
Suppose true-breeding parents with the different alleles for the same trait are TT (dominant) and tt (recessive) than the cross of these parents will produce gametes T, T and t, t respectively.
These gametes will form offspring ultimately. Produced offspring will be TT (homozygous dominant), Tt (heterozygous dominant), Tt (heterozygous dominant) and tt (homozygous recessive).
Thus, the percentage of dominant homozygous phenotype in F2 would be 25% in respect of the dominant allele which is TT.
The percentage of the F2 generation with a dominant phenotype that would be expected to be homzygous for the allele of interest would be 33.33%
Let us assume that the allele of interest is A, the alternate form would be a.
Starting with true-breeding parents of different characteristics of the same trait:
AA x aa
Aa Aa Aa Aa
All the F1 offspring would be Aa.
Advancing the cross to F2:
Aa x Aa
AA Aa Aa aa
3/4 (AA and 2Aa) of the F2 offspring are with the dominant phenotype. However, only 1 out of the offspring is homzygous.
Thus, if the total of the F2 offspring with the dominant phenotype is 100%, the percentage with homzygous alleles can be calculated as:
1/3 x 100% = 33.33%
More on monohybrid crossing can be found here: https://brainly.com/question/1185199
During naturalistic observation research, you only focused on information that supported your hypothesis, later research proved that your hypothesis was incorrect. What type of bias did you exhibit?
Answer:
Confirmation bias.
Explanation:
Confirmation bias may be defined as a type of cognitive bias in which the hypothesis is confirmed by the over weigh evidence. The under weigh evidence are rejected in this confirmation bias.
The confirmation bias mainly focuses on the the observation that can support the hypothesis. Later, the research can prove to be incorrect based on the hypothesis in the confirmation bias.
Thus, the answer is confirmation bias.
In mountain areas, when large amounts of rock fragments move downslope of their own weight, they are called ________.
Answer:
Avalanche
Explanation:
They mostly happen in mountainous regions where there is snow/ice and rocks. The ice underneath the boulders thaws momentarily due to the pressure of the rocks and ice above hence acting as a lubricant for the sliding down of the rocks down the mountain. Avalanches can be triggered by earthquakes, explosions, and etcetera.
Urinary tract infections are commonly caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Escherichia coli, less commonly caused by Proteus mirabilis. You have a mixed culture of these pathogens, which you inoculate onto both MacConkey agar and nutrient agar, and then you incubate the plates at optimal growth conditions. On the MacConkey agar, E. coli appears pink, P. mirabilis appears colorless, and S. saprophyticus does not grow. All three microorganisms appear cream on the nutrient agar plate. What is the best explanation for this data?
Answer:
It tells that Macconkey agar is both selective as well as differential media.
Explanation:
Macconkey media can differentiate both particular species as well as group of closely related species too, which makes it both differential as in case of growth of both E.coli & P.mirabillis. And colored growth of E.coli shows that it is a gram negative and could ferment lactose.
information on a animal grooming career?
Answer: just do it map
Explanation : u got this ROCKSTAR !!!!!!
Final answer:
A career in animal grooming involves tasks like bathing and styling pets, understanding different breeds, and safely handling animals. Online research and direct interaction with professionals offer insights into the grooming industry. Training programs and certifications can provide necessary skills and open career opportunities.
Explanation:
Career Path in Animal Grooming:
Considering a career in animal grooming requires understanding the responsibilities, skills, and qualifications needed to be successful. One way to gather information is through online research, which can provide an overview of the industry, average salaries, working conditions, and necessary certifications. Yet, to truly grasp what a career in animal grooming entails, it's beneficial to connect directly with professionals in the field. Speaking with practicing groomers, visiting salons, and potentially shadowing an experienced groomer can provide invaluable insights into the daily work and whether this career aligns with your interests. By engaging with the community and building a network, you also open doors for mentorship and employment opportunities.
To dive deeper, you might consider attending industry-specific conferences, taking part in workshops, and joining professional organizations that offer certifications in grooming. The actual job involves tasks like bathing, trimming, and styling pets, as well as understanding the needs of different breeds and how to handle animals safely and effectively. Communication skills are vital as well, since interacting with pet owners is an integral part of the job. In many regions, becoming a groomer may involve completing a grooming training program or apprenticeship, which equips you with both the practical skills and knowledge needed to thrive.
(BRAINLIEST ANSWER GUARANTEED)Taste preferences in humans are the result of the following except:
A. Cultures
B. Body Chemistry
C.Set point
D.Environmental factors
Answer:
A. Cultures
Explanation:
In the middle east, spicyness is a flavor that all love and need. Up north in germany, and etc. Spicyness is not loved and is avoidable
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. Set point
Explanation:
Hello!
Let's solve this!
Let's analyze each of the options:
Cultures: cultures help the preferences of flavors, since the population since they begin to feed, begin to taste the flavors of cultures.
Body Chemistry: the chemistry of the body limits what flavors we like and which do not.
Set point: this option does not limit taste preferences.
Environmental factors: limits preferences because some foods depending on the area where they live are consumed or not, for example.
After the analysis, we conclude that the correct answer is option C. Set point
Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for which of the following changes that occur during inflammation? (redness of the inflamed tissue, swelling of the inflamed tissue, heat of the inflamed tissue, the localization of proteins and cells necessary for the body defense, all of the above)
Answer:
All of the above.
Explanation:
Inflammation may be defined as the immune response generated triggered by the affected tissue. The main purpose of inflammation is the elimination of injurious agent, removes the damaged tissue and helps in healing of the tissue.
Various changes occur during the inflammation process. Pain in the affected tissue (dolor), heating in the tissue (calor), redness in the inflamed tissue (rubor), swelling of the tissue (tumor). Proteins and cells localization is necessary for the body defense during inflammation.
Thus, the correct answer is (5).
One of the most important theories in forensic science is regarding the Principles of Trace Evidence.
True or False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
One of the most important theories in forensic science is regarding the Principles of Trace Evidence.
A student conducts an experiment to see how music affects plant growth. The student obtains four identical plants. Each one is potted in the same type of soil and receives the same amount of sunlight and water each day. Plant A listens to classical music for three hours each day. Plant B listens to rock music for three hours each day. Plant C listens to country music for three hours each day. Plant D does not listen to any music at all.
1. Based on the experiment in the scenario, which visual aid would be most helpful in showing the change in the plants' heights over time?
A. A line graph
B. A bar graph
C. A pie chart
D. A timeline
Answer:
C. A pie chart
How many times does a cell divide during meiosis
Answer:
twice
Explanation:
divides to form two daughter cells
Answer:
twice
Explanation:
I just took a test that had a video and it said twice
{Hope this helps} : )
Plants from the genus Solanum include such common vegetables as potatoes and eggplants. The many species include some plants native to tropical West Africa as well as closely related species native to tropical South America. What might you reasonably conclude?
Answer:
The plants from West Africa and South America were once together as one population.
Explanation:
This could be used as a source of proof for continental drift. When West Africa and South America were connected as one continent, known as Pangea, these two now existing plants were one species of plant in the genus Solanum. As the continents drifted apart the plants evolved separately on each continent according to their different environments. Now they are just closely related species as they have evolved more differences.
When Dr. Emory looks at slides of blood samples, he sees a rich and diverse world of cellular life instead of small dots on a slide. In using his years of experience looking at slides, what is Dr. Emory is using?
Answer: He is using Top Down Processing
Explanation:
Top Down Processing is related to how our brains use information that was already in them.
RNAi
a. is any chemical that inhibits transcription.
b. uses short pieces of double-stranded RNA to direct the degradation of specific RNA transcripts.
c. is the form of mRNA that initiates translation in most pathogenic bacteria.
d. is a mechanism of genetic regulation found in all prokaryotes.
e. uses short pieces of single-stranded RNA to direct the degradation of specific RNA transcripts