The school of psychology called Functionalism agrees with the focus on studying behavior and mental processes as functions aiding adaptation to the environment, influenced by Darwin's theory of evolution.
The school of psychology that would agree with the statement that "psychology should stress the study of how behavior and mental processes function to allow people and animals to adapt to their environments" is known as Functionalism. This school was established by influential figures such as William James, John Dewey, and Charles Sanders Peirce, who embraced Charles Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection. They believed that just as physical characteristics evolved to aid in survival and function, so too did psychological characteristics. Functionalists focused on how mental activities help an organism adapt within its environment and saw thinking as instrumental to behavior.
Which of the following statements is true? (a) Extracellular signal molecules that are hydrophilic must bind to a cell-surface receptor so as to signal a target cell to change its behavior. (b) To function, all extracellular signal molecules must be transported by their receptor across the plasma membrane into the cytosol. (c) A cell-surface receptor capable of binding only one type of signal molecule can mediate only one kind of cell response. (d) Any foreign substance that binds to a receptor for a normal signal molecule will always induce the same response that is produced by that signal molecule on the same cell type.
Answer:
Its option 'A'.
Explanation:
extracellular signal molecules that are hydrophilic must bind to a cell-surface receptor so as to signal a target cell to change its behavior.
For Example:
Acetylcholine acts at a GPCR on heart muscle to make the heart beat more slowly.
The following statements is true - (a) Extracellular signal molecules that are hydrophilic must bind to a cell-surface receptor so as to signal a target cell to change its behavior
Extracellular signals:Signals that originate from outside a cell
physical agents like mechanical pressure, voltage, temperature, light, or chemical
These are hydrophobic signals that can not cross the cell membraneBind to the specific signal receptor to target cell in order to initiate changes in cell function.For instance, neurotransmitters are hydrophilic molecules that bind to cell surface receptors.As neurotransmitters are hydrophilic molecules, they are unable to cross the plasma membrane of their target cells.Learn more:
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Which of the following is true for identical twins?
A. They are attached until just before birth.
B. They can have different genes.
C. They can have different fathers.
D. They can express the same genes differently.
Answer:
the answer is d
Explanation:
How many times does a cell divide during meiosis
Answer:
twice
Explanation:
divides to form two daughter cells
Answer:
twice
Explanation:
I just took a test that had a video and it said twice
{Hope this helps} : )
What are the main functions of DNA polymerase?
a. holds DNA strands apart and attracts bases
b. binds nucleotides and corrects base pair errors
c. zips and unzips the double-stranded DNA
d. breaks hydrogen bonds and exposes bases
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
zips and unzips the double stranded DNA
DNA polymerase is responsible for adding nucleotides to build a new DNA strand during replication, proofreading to correct base pair errors, and removing and replacing RNA primers with DNA nucleotides to complete the replication process, option a is correct.
The main functions of DNA polymerase include the synthesis of DNA by adding nucleotides to a primer or a pre-existing DNA strand, and the correction of base pair errors, which is known as proofreading. During DNA replication, DNA polymerase performs these functions by reading the template strand and adding complementary nucleotides to form a new strand. If an incorrect base has been incorporated, DNA polymerase's exonuclease activity removes the wrong nucleotide, and then the correct nucleotide is added.
Proofreading is a critical function of DNA polymerase, ensuring the accuracy of DNA replication. Additional roles of DNA polymerase involve the removal of RNA primers that are initially added by primase and replacing them with DNA nucleotides. Finally, DNA polymerase also works to fill in the gaps that are left after the RNA primers are removed.
Before contact with Europeans, a tiny, isolated group of South Pacific islands had a population of about 50,000 people. Because of poor management of their own resources, the population fell to around 5000 by about the year 1750. When Europeans finally arrived, they brought smallpox, and after the ensuing epidemic, only about 800 islanders were left alive. The unusual genetic makeup of the native population is due to what phenomenon?
Answer:
fitness
Explanation:
Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in birds and mammals? a. pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary circuit b. vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary vein c. vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery d. left ventricle → aorta → lungs → systemic circulation
The correct sequence of the blood circulation in the birds and mammals is c. vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle --> pulmonary artery, among the given options.
Mammals and birds both have a four-chambered heart which is very efficient that makes two circuits of blood circulation for oxygenated through the body and deoxygenated blood to the lungs separately.
Vena cavae are vessels used to carry the deoxygenated blood from the body and enters the right atrium.There is a valve called the tricuspid valve between the right atrium and right ventricle through which the deoxygenated blood enters into the right ventricle.The pulmonary valve brings the deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle into the main pulmonary artery that carries it to the lungs for uptake of oxygen again.Learn more about blood circulation:
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Which of the following statements regarding RNA polymerase II, the enzyme that synthesizes mRNA in eukaryotic cells, is true?
a. RNA polymerase II converts between an active form that binds to a promoter and an inactive form that cannot bind to a promoter.
b. RNA polymerase II can bind to a promoter region and initiate transcription either alone or in conjunction with transcription factors.
c. RNA polymerase II requires other transcription factors in order to bind to a promoter site.
d. RNA polymerase II is blocked from initiating transcription when transcription factors bind to a promoter region.
Answer:
hi the correct answer is a
RNA polymerase II needs other transcription factors to bind to a gene promoter site for mRNA synthesis in eukaryotic cells. It cannot initiate transcription alone nor is it blocked when transcription factors bind to a promoter region.
Explanation:The correct statement about RNA polymerase II, the enzyme responsible for synthesizing mRNA in eukaryotic cells, is option c: RNA polymerase II requires other transcription factors to bind to a promoter site. The transcription process is initiated when different transcription factors recognize and bind to the promoter region of the gene, thereby facilitating the recruitment of RNA polymerase II for mRNA synthesis. It does not switch between an active and inactive form (Option a), nor can it bind to a promoter region and initiate transcription without the assistance of transcription factors (Option b). Transcription factors do not block RNA polymerase II from initiating transcription; they actually aid in its action (Option d).
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Imagine that you are performing a cross involving seed color in garden pea plants. What traits would you expect to observe in the F1 offspring if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds and yellow seeds?
(A) Yellow seed color is dominant over green.
(B) only yellow-green seeds
(C) green seeds:yellow seeds 1:3
(D) yellow seeds:green 1 : 1
(E) only yellow seeds
Answer:
Option E, only yellow seeds
Explanation:
True breeding means when the genotype of one parent consists of two identical alleles.
Let allele for green color seed be represented by "g" and yellow color seed be represented by "G"
In this scenario,
Genotype of true-breeding parents with green seeds is "gg"
Genotype of true-breeding parents with yellow seeds is "GG"
It is given that Yellow seed color is dominant over green
The punnet square representing this cross would be
G G
g Gg Gg
g Gg Gg
All the offspring are heterogyzous yellow seeded plants
Thus, option E is correct
Dr. Billings studies brain wave patterns that occur when people are dreaming. He attaches a device to the outside of people’s skulls to measure electrical activity in the brain. What type of device is he using?
Answer: the device is called an Electroencephalography machine.
Explanation:
An EEG or Electroencephalography is an electrophysiological monitoring method to record electrical activity of the brain.
The device used by Dr. Billings to study brain wave patterns during dreaming is the Electroencephalogram (EEG). This device records the electrical activity in the brain using electrodes placed on the person's scalp.
Explanation:Dr. Billings is using a device known as an Electroencephalogram (EEG). An EEG is a noninvasive, painless method used to record the electrical activity within the brain. It does so by placing multiple small, flat metal discs (electrodes) on a person's scalp. These electrodes detect minute electrical activities in the brain, and the results are depicted in the form of brainwaves on a computer screen. This device is typically used in research and clinical settings to study sleep patterns, diagnose conditions such as seizures, and analyze brainwave patterns.
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A "motor homunculus" can be visualized as an overlay on the precentral gyrus. The reason why the facial region of this homunculus covers such a large surface area is because
(A) our ears are large for hearing.
(B) our eyes are large for seeing.
(C) we have very expressive faces.
(D) we have very sensitive lips.
Answer: the correct answer is (C) we have very expressive faces.
Explanation:
A cortical homunculus is a distorted representation of the human body based on a "neurological map" of the areas and proportions of the human brain.
The correct option is ( c) we have very expressive faces.
The homunculus in the sensory cortex is almost invisible to humans. The face and hands are drawn larger than the torso, arms, and legs. This is because the brain maps each sensory receptor to the cortex rather than considering the area of the body where the sensor is located. Why is the motor homunculus significant?The motor homunculus represents a map of the brain region dedicated to the motor processing of the various anatomical divisions of the body. The primary motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus and processes signals coming from the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe.Learn more about https://brainly.com/question/13962137 here
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To maximize the number of thymine dimer mutations following UV exposure, should you keep human cells in tissue culture in the dark, in the light, or does it matter at all?
Answer:
It doesn't matter at all.
Explanation:
Thymine dimers are corrected by DNA photolyases. The chromophore of these enzymes absorbs the energy of light to fix the dimers. However, the placental mammals such as human do not have the DNA photolyases to correct the dimers formed by exposure to UV radiations.
Hence, keeping the UV exposed cells in light or dark would not have any effect on the number of thymine dimers produced by UV exposure of a human cell.
In mountain areas, when large amounts of rock fragments move downslope of their own weight, they are called ________.
Answer:
Avalanche
Explanation:
They mostly happen in mountainous regions where there is snow/ice and rocks. The ice underneath the boulders thaws momentarily due to the pressure of the rocks and ice above hence acting as a lubricant for the sliding down of the rocks down the mountain. Avalanches can be triggered by earthquakes, explosions, and etcetera.
One of the reasons why statins are effective in reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease is ______.
a. they increase the transport of cholesterol away from the liver
b. they reduce the protein content of LDLs
c. they decrease the incidence of cholesterol deposition in arterial walls
d. All of the listed responses are correct.
Answer: c. they decrease the incidence of cholesterol deposition in arterial walls.
Explanation:
The statin is a drug which block the action of the liver enzyme which controls the production of the cholesterol. The cholesterol is a biomolecule which aggregate inside the blood vessels such as arteries may lead to arteriosclerosis. This condition will lead to increase in blood pressure which may lead to the condition of hypertension or heart attack.
By lowering the levels of the cholesterol in the arteries the statins can reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option D.
Explanation:
Statins are a class of drug provided in the medication to treat cardiovascular disease.
Statins act by reducing the amount of bad cholesterol called low-density lipoprotein (LDL) from blood, preventing the formation of cholesterol from the liver by blocking the enzyme and pathway of cholestrol synthesis and the degradation of the deposited cholestrol form the arterial walls which make the arteries narrow.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
Hormone secretion is often regulated through a negative feedback mechanism, which means that once a hormone is secreted it will cause the hypothalamus and pituitary to shut down the production of signals necessary to secrete the hormone in the first place. Most oral contraceptives are made of small doses of estrogen and/or progesterone. Why would this be an effective means of contraception?
Answer:
Oral contraceptives inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins by inhibiting the secretion of GnRH through a negative feedback mechanism.
Explanation:
Most oral contraceptive pills have combined dosages of estrogen and progesterone or one of these hormones. The estrogen and progesterone are involved in negative feedback inhibition of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Presence of small dosages of estrogen and progesterone inhibit the secretion of GnRH and thereby, prevents the secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH).
FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone) is required for maturation of follicles while LH (Luteinizing Hormone) is required for ovulation of mature follicle.
Hence, hormonal contraceptives prevent conception by preventing follicle development and ovulation due to the absence of gonadotropins (FSH and LH).
Previously, it was thought that the blending hypothesis explained inheritance. The blending hypothesis maintained that __________.
A. the characters governed by genes in the egg are different from the characters governed by genes in the sperm
B. many genes are lost in their transmission to offspring, but the remaining genes gradually reproduce the lost genes
C. mutation is the major source of new gene combinations
D. after a mating, genes of the two parents are mixed in the offspring and lose their individual identities
Answer:
D. after a mating, genes of the two parents are mixed in the offspring and lose their individual identities.
which of the following is NOT a way a cell can increase its surface area
A. decrease its volume
B. add organelles
C. let water out of the cell
D. all of the above
the answer to this question is D.all of the above
Answer:
D. all of the above
Explanation:
Cells increase their surface area through microvilli, which are often digitiform plasma membrane projections, ie, glove-finger shaped. They are stable or permanent type specializations on the cell surface. Microvilli enlarge the surface of the plasma membrane increasing its efficiency for exchanges with the cavity or extracellular medium.
If a cell lets water out it will lose volume. The volume of the cell is proportional to the size of the surface area, so if the cell decreases its volume it also decreases its surface area. Also, the cell cannot add new organelles.
The application of evolutionary principles to the study of human variation: a. helped replace earlier views based solely on observed phenotypes. b. allowed scientists to divide the human species precisely into well-defined races. c. reinforced traditional views of races as fixed biological entities that do not change. d. has been of little value for understanding human variation. e. allowed scientists to ignore the adaptive significance of most traits.
Answer: Helped replace earlier views based solely on observed phenotypes.
Explanation: Historically, physical differences such as skin color were used as the basis of racial classification due to differences in skin pigment being so noticeable.
This thinking can be traced back to before World War II, where most studies of human variation were solely based on the visual phenotypic variations. It was only in the second half of the twentieth century that we started looking at genetics and realized that we could not trace human evolution based on visual phenotypes observed, but rather genetic heritages.
Applying evolutionary principles to the study of human variation has replaced views based solely on observed phenotypes and advanced our understanding of genetic diversity. The concept of 'race' as a fixed biological entity has been debunked, with more genetic variation existing within 'racial' categories than between them. Therefore, this application has not prompted a precise division of the human species into races or ignored the adaptive significance of traits.
Explanation:The application of evolutionary principles to the study of human variation has indeed helped replace earlier views based solely on observed phenotypes (option a is correct). This is because contemporary biological anthropologists use an evolutionary perspective to understand how living organisms, including humans, thrive in different environments. Central to this is the idea of natural selection, which suggests that those organisms with characteristics better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and proliferate. This approach has facilitated a greater understanding of human genetic diversity.
However, the concept of 'race', traditionally seen as a fixed biological entity, has been largely debunked by this approach. Most scientists now agree that there is actually more genetic variation within a given 'racial' category than there is between different 'racial' categories (options b and c are incorrect). Therefore, the application of evolution to the study of human variation has not allowed scientists to divide the human species precisely into well-defined races, nor has it reinforced traditional views of races as unchanging.
Far from being of little value or allowing scientists to ignore the adaptive significance of traits (options d and e are incorrect), the evolutionary perspective has been crucial in advancing our understanding of human variation, adaptation and evolution.
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(50 POINTS + BRAINLIEST!!!)What did the Miller-Urey experiment demonstrate?
Earth's early atmosphere contained abundant oxygen.
Early Earth was constantly bombarded with comets.
Small organic molecules formed from gas mixture of Earth's early atmosphere.
Organisms were spontaneously generated on early Earth.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Miller and Urey performed an experiment, using some inorganic molecules such as water, methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen in laboratories conditions similar to early earth conditions .
Amino acids molecules formed as the result of this experiment, this proved that small organic molecules such as amino acids are formed from inorganic molecules.
Hence, the correct answer is option C
Answer: c
Explanation:
A rapid mechanism is thought to govern the localization of AQP5 in response to changes in extracellular osmolarity. If this mechanism is independent of both PKA activity and S156 phosphorylation, which of the following will most likely be observed?
(A) HEK cells exposed to the most hypertonic conditions will display the greatest degree of AQP5 membrane localization, allowing water to flow into the cells.
(B) HEK cells exposed to the most hypotonic conditions will display the greatest degree of AQP5 membrane localization, allowing water to flow into the cells.
(C) HEK cells exposed to the most isotonic conditions will display the greatest degree of AQP5 membrane localization, allowing water to flow into the cells.
Answer:
(B) HEK cells exposed to the most hypotonic conditions will display the greatest degree of AQP5 membrane localization, allowing water to flow into the cells.
Explanation:
The function of AQP5 (an aquaporin) is to allow the water to move into or out of the cell down the concentration gradient. When placed in hypotonic solutions, the internal environment of HEK cells will be hypertonic. Water always moves from hypotonic (higher water concentration) to hypertonic (lower water concentration) solution.
Hence, the HEK cells exposed to the hypotonic conditions will localize AQP5 in their membranes to allow the water to move from out hypotonic conditions to the inner hypertonic environment.
What foods are good sources of multiple micronutrients
Answer:
Calcium - milk, yogurt, spinach, and sardines.
Vitamin B12 - beef, fish, cheese, and eggs.
Zinc - beef, cashews, garbanzo beans, and turkey.
Potassium - bananas, spinach, potatoes, and apricots.
Vitamin C - oranges, peppers, broccoli, and bananas.
Explanation:
vitamin B6, vitamin C, vitamin E, magnesium, and zinc—play roles in maintaining immune function, and supplements containing them are often sold as immune boosters in doses that greatly exceed the recommended daily allowance
The drug AZT Multiple Choice inhibits the production of HIV proteins. is incorporated into DNA by reverse transcriptase, making it impossible to add additional nucleotides. binds to human cell receptors, thereby blocking HIV's access to them. inhibits the enzyme protease.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The drug AZT belongs to the group of drugs that is used in case of HIV. These class of drugs are known as Nucleoside analogues.
This drug interferes with the enzyme reverse trsncriptase which is used by the cells affected from HIV for the production of new viruses.
So, this drug reduces the activity of reverse transcriptase which reduces the chances of the cells to divide further to new HIV infected cell.
Hence, the correct answer is option A
After the drought of 1977, researchers hypothesized that on the Galápagos island Daphne Major, medium ground finches with large, deep beaks survived better than those with smaller beaks because they could more easily crack and eat the tough Tribulus cistoides fruits. A tourist company sets up reliable feeding stations with a variety of bird seeds (different types and sizes) so that tourists can get a better look at the finches. Which of these events is now most likely to occur to finch beaks on this island?A) evolution of yet larger, deeper beaks over time, until all birds have relatively large, deep beaksB) evolution of smaller, pointier beaks over time, until all birds have relatively small, pointy beaksC) increased variation in beak size and shape over timeD) no change in beak size and shape over time
With the presence of reliable feeding stations providing various seeds, there is likely to be increased variation in finch beak size and shape on Daphne Major, leading to a more diverse finch population.
Explanation:After the introduction of reliable feeding stations by a tourist company on the Galápagos island of Daphne Major, it is most likely that finch beaks would show increased variation in size and shape over time. This scenario would occur because the artificial food source removes the need for specialized beak types that evolved due to natural selection pressures. With a variety of seeds available, there is less advantage to having a beak specialized for a specific seed type. This is in contrast to the situation that led to the evolution of larger beaks following the 1977 drought, where the natural food scarcity meant that finches with larger beaks were more likely to survive. Now, with the removal of this selective pressure, finches with a wider range of beak sizes and shapes can thrive and reproduce, potentially leading to a more diverse finch population.
When you meet your new roommate for the first time, he is wearing glasses, listening to classical music, and reading a copy of the New Yorker Review of Books. You think, “Well, maybe rooming with an intellectual this year will be good for me.” You instantly categorized your roommate as an intellectual on the basis of your(A) schemas.(B) memories.(C) intuitions.(D) heuristics.
Answer:
A- Schemas
Explanation:
Schemas are used to categorize information and draw conclusions, based on patterns and the relationships between them. In this case, you see your new roommate looking and behaving the way we believe an intellectual person would and you automatically assume that he/she is intellectual.
You categorized your new roommate as an intellectual using a heuristic, which is a mental shortcut our brains use to make quick judgments.
When meeting your new roommate, you instantly categorized him as an intellectual based on various cues such as wearing glasses, listening to classical music, and reading the New Yorker Review of Books. The cognitive process you used to quickly judge and categorize your roommate is known as a heuristic. Heuristics are mental shortcuts that help us make quick, efficient decisions by simplifying the processing of complex information. In this context, your heuristic led you to label your roommate as an intellectual without needing more extensive information.
Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages kill human cells. carry plasmids. kill the bacteria, causing release of endotoxins. produce toxins. give new gene sequences to the host bacteria.
Answer: give new gene sequences to the host bacteria.
Explanation:
Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Viruses are the most numerous organisms on earth and play functions in the biotic component of virtually every ecosystem. They are distinct biological entities and the main feature of this group is the dependence on specific hosts for reproduction, hence known as obligate intracellular parasites. In the lysogenic cycle, phage nucleic acid recombines with that of the bacteria forming a prophage and replicates in the host cell from one generation to another without cell lysis. By doing this, the bacteriophages give new gene sequences to the host bacteria, contributing to bacterial virulence.
Which process drives darwin’s theory of evolution?
Answer:
Natural selection
Explanation:
I did some research and got that for an answer
Answer:
PLEASE GIVE BRAINLIEST AND HAVE A NICE DAY
The process that drives Darwin's theory of evolution is natural selection
(BRAINLIEST ANSWER GUARANTEED)Taste preferences in humans are the result of the following except:
A. Cultures
B. Body Chemistry
C.Set point
D.Environmental factors
Answer:
A. Cultures
Explanation:
In the middle east, spicyness is a flavor that all love and need. Up north in germany, and etc. Spicyness is not loved and is avoidable
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. Set point
Explanation:
Hello!
Let's solve this!
Let's analyze each of the options:
Cultures: cultures help the preferences of flavors, since the population since they begin to feed, begin to taste the flavors of cultures.
Body Chemistry: the chemistry of the body limits what flavors we like and which do not.
Set point: this option does not limit taste preferences.
Environmental factors: limits preferences because some foods depending on the area where they live are consumed or not, for example.
After the analysis, we conclude that the correct answer is option C. Set point
You are dispatched to a 1-year-old child with respiratory distress. En route, you review how to assess and treat infants with respiratory problems. Which of the following would NOT be a standard part of assessment for breathing?
A.
Work of breathing
B.
Mental status
C.
Chest expansion
D.
Sounds of breathing
Answer:
B. Mental status
Explanation:
Respiratory diseases are medical conditions that affect the lungs and breathing capacity, but do not alter the child's mental state, so in assessing the child's breathing, it will not be necessary to evaluate breathing work, chest expansion and sounds of the child's breath. It is not necessary to evaluate the mental states to know if the child has breathing problems.
Some breathing problems are genetic while others are caused by lifestyle or environmental factors. Common breathing problems include asthma, bronchitis, emphysema, tuberculosis and sinusitis.
What is the second arterial branch of the aortic arch?
Answer: The Carotid Artery
Explanation:
Supplies Blood to the left side of the Head of the neck
If calcium levels are low, camp activity increases which leads to synthesis and release of parathyroid hormone. camp acts as a(n)
Answer:
Second messenger
Explanation:
When a hormone binds on its cell receptor on the cell, it initiates a cascade of membrane protein changes that begin a secondary signaling process inside of the cell. The cAMP is a secondary messenger that is involved in intracellular signaling. In this case, it causes the cell to produce more PTH in response to low calcium levels.
The neuromuscular junction is a well-studied example of a chemical synapse. Which of the following statements describes a critical event that occurs at the neuromuscular junction?
a) Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron.
b) When the action potential reaches the end of the axon terminal, voltage-gated sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse into the terminal.
c) Acetylcholine binds to its receptor in the junctional folds of the sarcolemma. Its receptor is linked to a G protein.
d) Acetylcholine is released and moves across the synaptic cleft bound to a transport protein.
Answer:
A- Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron.
Explanation:
The general mechanism of muscle contraction can be explained as follows:
a) The action potential which is generated, travels along the motor nerve to its ends on muscle fiber (or motor end plate) at the neuro-muscular junction.
b) The nerve endings then secrete small amounts of neurotransmitter called acetylcholine.
c) The actylecholine binds to the receptors on the membrane of muscle fiber and opens the voltage gated sodium channels.
d) Opening of these channels leads to flow of large quantities of sodium ions into the muscle fiber which ultimately results in initiation of action potential in muscle fiber.
e) This action potential depolarizes the fiber including the T-tubules, triggering the release of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum.
f) The calcium ions thus released initiated the process of muscle contraction.