Answer:
The digestive system fuels the cells and the excretory system rids the body of the cells’ waste.
Explanation:
Answer: A
The digestive system fuels the cells and the excretory system rids the body of the cells’ waste
Explanation:
A cholera outbreak has occurred, and the culprit is contaminated drinking water. Which controllable risk factors might have caused this outbreak? Check all that apply
Answer:
The options are given below:
A. The unsanitary handling of human waste by nearby waterways.
B. The genetic makeup of individuals reporting cholera-related symptoms.
C. The significant difference in reported cases between males and females.
D. The reduction in accessibility to regions that use filtered bottled water.
E. The lack of access individuals with symptoms have to health clinics.
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Cholera is caused by the a bacterium called Vibrio cholerae. People become infected after they eat food or drink water that has been contaminated by the faeces of infected persons.
Also, raw or undercooked seafood may be a source of infection in areas where cholera is prevalent and sanitation is poor.
Therefore, in an area where there is cholera outbreak, which has been caused by contaminated drinking water, the likely cause of this outbreak will be as a result of the improper and unsanitary handling of human waste by nearby waterways.
Answer:
1. The unsanitary handling of human waste by nearby waterways
4. The reduction in accessibility to regions that use filtered bottle water
5. The lack of access individuals with symptoms have to health clinics.
Explanation:
just did it on edge
The nursing instructor is teaching students about assessment and the importance of having baseline data when caring for clients. The instructor should inform the students that the best place to get baseline data is:_______.
Answer:
The initial comprehensive nursing assessment.
Explanation:
Getting information they say is equal to getting power. Every business or company/organizations need data or information to perform perfectly and efficiently and this does not exclude the health industry that is the hospital.
The information medical personnels collect are one of the things that do assist them in treating patients efficiently.
A baseline data simply means the information or data from a source that has previously existed Before.
So, in medicine the best place to get baseline data is during your first assessment.
Which statement about dietary protein sources is FALSE? Animal products are the most highly concentrated sources of protein. Plant sources of protein are typically rich in fiber and phytochemicals. Legumes provide about as much protein per ½ cup serving as a cup of milk. Most people in the U.S. need protein supplements to meet dietary requirements.
Answer:Option D
Explanation:
Proteins is building block of the body. It is the most important component of the body which is required by all the cells.
The diets like soy milk, soy bean, animal products and legumes have high amount of protein in it. Besides this there is no need of supplements for the body if a person is taking food rich in these materials there is no need of supplements for the body.
The U.S diet consists of protein rich diet so there is no need of dietary supplements in order to meet the dietary requirements.
The FALSE statement about dietary protein sources is that most people in the U.S. need protein supplements to meet dietary requirements.
Explanation:The FALSE statement about dietary protein sources is: Most people in the U.S. need protein supplements to meet dietary requirements. While animal products are highly concentrated sources of protein, plant sources of protein are typically rich in fiber and phytochemicals. Legumes provide about as much protein per ½ cup serving as a cup of milk.
Animal products tend to be highly concentrated sources of protein, while plant sources often provide fiber and phytochemicals. Legumes, such as lentils or chickpeas, do offer significant protein content - around the same amount per ½ cup serving as found in a cup of milk.
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why is it important to eat a variety of foods?
Answer:
Because when you eat a variety of foods you expand your pallet and it makes you healthier
Explanation:
Just trust me
-hope this helped!
The actions of the muscles that cross the hip do not include __________.
Does not include bones
A 24-year old client who has diabetes mellitus accidentally cut herself while preparing dinner and has sustained a large laceration on her left wrist. After the laceration is sutured, the client asks the nurse, "How long will it take for my scars to disappear?" Which statement is the nurse's best response?
A) "The contraction phase of wound healing can take 2 to 3 years."
B) "With your history and the type and location of your injury, it's hard to say."
C) "Wound healing is very individual but the scar should fade within 4 months."
D) "If you don't develop an infection, the wound should heal in 1 to 3 years."
With your history and the type and location of your injury, it's hard to say.
Diabetes mellitus damages nerves, which can slow down healing. The time for the healing of the laceration would depend on how deep the cut was.
The solution is alternative C) "Wound restoration may be very individual but the scar should fade within 4 months."
Diabetes mellitus damages nerves, that can sluggish down recuperation. The time for the healing of the laceration would depend on how deep the reduce was.
What do you mean via diabetic mellitus?Diabetes mellitus refers to a set of sicknesses that have an effect on how your body uses blood sugar (glucose). Glucose is crucial for your health because it's an critical source of electricity for the cells that make up your muscular tissues and tissues. it's also your brain's foremost source of gas.
What are the main reasons of diabetes mellitus?Although not absolutely everyone with kind 2 diabetes is obese, obesity and an inactive life-style are of the most common causes of kind 2 diabetes. this stuff are accountable for about 90% to 95% of diabetes instances within the united states.
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The registered nurse is teaching the nursing student about the interventions to be followed while caring for a client undergoing treatment with anxiolytic drugs. Which statement made by the nursing student indicates the need for further teaching?
A. "I should monitor vital signs of the client."
B. "I should check the client's oral cavities for cheeking of drugs."
C. "I should encourage the client to use compression stockings."
D. "I should encourage the client to change positions quickly."
Answer: D) "I should encourage the client to change positions quickly"
Explanation: Anxiolytic drugs are usually used to treat anxiety, so if the nursing student says this, it would probably indicate that they need further instruction and teaching.
Where does food move right after passing through the stomach?
a. Esophagus c. Large intestine
b. Pancreas d. Small intestine
Answer:
D) small intestine
Explanation:
Examples of where range of motion can take place in body is the elbow and hip? True or false
Clara wants to follow a diet that is high in carbohydrates. Which type of vegetables should Clara consume
Answer:
Cereal bars, fast food, snacks
Answer:
Starchy root vegetables, like potatoes
Explanation:
Kimmy is training for a half marathon. As her event date approaches, she has increased the percentage of calories from carbohydrate in order to maximize her glycogen stores.
What percent of calories in her diet comes from carbohydrates?
a) 35.46% calories from carbohydrates.
b) 88.26 % calories from carbohydrates.
c) 55.08 % calories from carbohydrates.
d) 64.58% calories from carbohydrates.
The calories in Kimmy's diet comes from carbohydrates: 64.58% calories from carbohydrate.
CarbohydratesAs Kimmy is training for a half marathon, the intake of more carbohydrates will help her maintain stamina in the race.
Increasing the percentage of calories from carbohydrates will turn into glucose.
Glucose will transfer into energy by passing it into cells and organs.
Thus option D is the correct answer.
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Rahil drinks 1.5 ounces of 80-proof liquor before dinner most evenings. Lisette drinks two glasses of wine during dinner each night. Yvette does not drink during the week but usually consumes five bottles of beer on most Friday and Saturday nights. Who is at greater risk for alcohol-related problems, and why?
In addition to increasing the risk of injury, binge drinking impairs the body’s ability to heal from those injuries.
“If a person is drunk and gets injured, the person will have more complications when alcohol is present in the body, as opposed to a person who may not have been exposed to alcohol,” said Mashkoor Choudhry, PhD, director of the Alcohol Research Program at Loyola University Chicago Stritch School of Medicine.
Binge drinking can also affect your:
1.Heart causing high blood pressure, irregular heartbeat, or sudden death from heart failure. Answer:
Yvette is at greater risk for alcohol related problems because she is binge drinking.
Explanation:
Binge drinking is defined as consuming five or more drinks within about two hours.About 90 percent of the alcohol in your blood is broken down by the liver. For an average person, the liver can only break down about one standard drink per hour. If you drink more alcohol than what your liver can process, your blood alcohol content (BAC) will increase. this will have negative effects on the body.Binge drinking can lead to death from alcohol poisoning. Or by depressing the gag reflex, which puts a person who has passed out at risk of choking on their own vomit.
Binge drinking can also affect your:
1.Heart as it can cause high blood pressure, irregular heartbeat, or sudden death from heart failure.
2.Kidneys beacuse alcohol is a diuretic, which causes the kidneys to produce more urine. This, alone or with vomiting, can lead to dehydration and dangerously low levels of sodium, potassium, and other minerals and salts.
3.Lungs beacause alcohol inhibits the gag reflex, which can lead to vomit, saliva, or other substances entering the lungs. This can cause inflammation or infection in the lungs.
4.Pancreas because it can lead to dangerously low blood sugar (hypoglycemia).
when both chest compressions and rescue breaths are used in CPR, how many rescue breaths are included in one cycle?
Thanks :)
Answer: 2 rescue breaths are in one cycle
Dr. Zakaria, a young faculty member at Soujourner University, is interested in how personal characteristics such as hopefulness, trustworthiness, and kindness affect self-perceived happiness. Dr. Zakaria is most likely a __________.A) cognitive psychologist.
B) positive psychologist.
C) psychoanalyst.
D) social psychologist.
Answer:
B) positive psychologist.
Explanation:
-Cognitive psychologist focuses on studying mental processes and understanding how someone processes and remembers information.
-Positive psychologist focuses on studying the things that help people to be succesful trying to understand positive emotions like happiness.
-Psychoanalyst focuses on analyzing people's past experiences that have unconsciously influenced their current behavior.
-Social psychologist focuses on analyzing people's behavior in a social environment.
According to this, the answer is that Dr. Zakaria is most likely a positive psychologist.
Ashley comes to the clinic with a request for oral contraceptives. She has successfully used oral contraceptives before and has recently started dating a new boyfriend so would like to restart contraception. She denies recent intercourse and has a negative urine pregnancy test in the clinic. An appropriate plan of care would be ________.A. Recommending she return to the clinic at the start of her next menses to get a Depo Provera shot
B. Prescribing oral combined contraceptives and recommending that she start them at the beginning of her next period and use a back-up method for the first seven days
C. Prescribing oral contraceptives and having her start them the same day, with a back-up method used for the first seven days
D. Discussing the advantages of using the topical birth control patch and recommending she consider using the patch
Answer:
C). Prescribing oral contraceptives and having her start them the same day, with a back-up method used for the first seven days
Explanation:
Having a negative urine pregnancy result doesn't necessarily mean Ashley is not pregnant. A negative pregnancy test result also means that there is no presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the urine. A negative urine pregnancy test may also mean that the test was performed too early, or that, she drank too much liquid before performing the test.
Oral contraceptives help prevent pregnancy by making cervical mucus thick and slowing the tubal motility.
Since Ashley has a negative urine pregnacy result, the appropriate plan of care for her would be to start taking the oral contraceptives the same day as the visit with a back-up method used for the first seven days.
Ron has a family history of high blood pressure. He has studied the causes, signs, and possible outcomes of the disease. What kind of strategy has he used to improve his health?
Answer:
go on a diet
Explanation:
he needs yo take care so he would not get a heart attack
A person having a blood-alcohol content of _________ is considered legally impaired or intoxicated under Texas law. *
0 points
0.75
0.08
1.25
0.2
Answer: .08
Explanation:
help please!!!!!!!!!
Answer:
All?
Explanation:
In my opinion all of these can be checked to describe someone who is mentally healthy.
Hope this helps!
A simple random sample of 1,000 persons is taken to estimate the proportion (p) of people with high blood pressure (HBP) in a large population. It turns out that 343 of those people have HBP. The box model that represents this chance process is 1,000 draws from a:
Answer:
0-1 box (1=HBP, 0=NHB) with 34.3% fraction of 1s.
Explanation:
Dana is pregnant and she is dining at a restaurant with her husband. She has been reading about foodborne illness risk during pregnancy and knows which foods to avoid. Which meal choice is the best for her as it is the least likely to cause foodborne illness?
A: Medium-well steak with mashed potatoes and sautéed squash
B: A medium-rare hamburger with a side of coleslaw containing raw cabbage
C: Nigiri sushi: raw fish sampler served on top of short grain white rice
D: A Greek salad with feta cheese; the server is unable to determine whether the feta cheese is pasteurized or not
Answer:
the answer is A
Explanation:
when you are pregnant you want to stay away from everything raw and any pasteurized cheese
You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should:
Answer: Request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine.
Explanation:
The dose of epinephrine helps in controlling the allergic reaction which has been caused due to the bite of scorpion. One dose of epinephrine is not enough as the patient is still feeling difficulty in breathing.
The mental status of the female is also not fine and the blood pressure is also low 80/50 mm Hg. This injection is used as a emergency medical treatment given to treat life threatening allergic reactions caused by the insect bite.
It is a class of alpha-beta adrenergic agonists which works by relaxing the muscles and tightening the blood vessels which increases the blood pressure.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain because of new onset of headaches. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate when preparing the patient for the scan?a.""You must shampoo your hair thoroughly tonight to remove oil and dirt.""b.""You will need to hold your head completely still during the examination.""c.""You may take fluids until about 8 a.m. Then we will give you a special radiopaque drink.""d.""We will partially shave your head tonight so that electrodes can be attached securely to your scalp.""
Answer:B---You will need to hold your head completely still during the examination
Explanation:
A CT scan of the brain is a diagnostic imaging procedure that uses special X-rays measurements to produce cross sectional images of the brain so as to provide an extra detailed information or data about brain tissue and structure concerning issues related to injuries or diseases of the brain.
During a brain CT, the X-ray beam moves in a circle around the body,and the scanner of the Ct SCAN xray starts to rotate around the body detecting the marked brain's tissues and then transmits the data to the computer. The computer will transmit the data fed into it into an image containing information that can interpreted by the radiologist.
One important procedure amongst others is to remain very still during the procedure so as to allow the right view to be captured by the scanner.
The most accurate statement is: b. "You will need to hold your head completely still during the examination."
The most accurate statement for a nurse preparing a patient for a brain CT scan is to instruct them to hold their head completely still during the examination. This ensures clear and precise imaging.
A Computed Tomography (CT) scan involves taking a series of x-rays from different angles to generate detailed images of the brain. It's crucial for the patient to remain completely still during the scan to ensure clear and precise images. This allows accurate diagnosis of conditions such as tumors, brain atrophy, and other abnormalities.
Tay–sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disorder. Homozygous recessive individuals lack a key enzyme called hexosaminidase a. True or False
Answer: True
Explanation:
Tay-Sachs disease can be defined as an autosomal recessive disorder in which there is a mutation on the hexa gene on the chromosome number 15 which codes for the subunit of the enzyme hexosaminidase.
This gene is inherited from a parent in an autosomal recessive manner. It is a genetic order which leads to destruction of nerve cells in the brain.
There is a hearing loss, seizures, and inability to move. These are some of the symptoms of Tay-sachs disease.
All of the following are risks from being underweight except:
A. earlier death during a famine or siege.
B. higher risk of developing heart disease.
C. greater risk of starvation when suffering from cancer.
D. higher risk of death following surgery.
Answer:
I think is d higher risk of death following surgery
A dose-response relationship has been detected between the prevalence of obesity and time spent viewing television. For each additional hour of television viewed in the 12- to 17-year-old group, the prevalence of obesity increased by:
Answer:
Based on dose-response relationship from the analysed data of National Health Examination Survey(NHES) Showed that, the prevalence of obesity increases by 2%. for 12-year old group. 11-13years has the highest watching rates
Also, dose-response relationship is also observed between hours of television view and overweight, by National Longitudinal Health Examination of Labour Market Experience and Youth Cohort.(NLSY). Survey correlating the relationship between obesity and long hours of television view in youths of age range 10-15yrs.
t was concluded that the energy expended during television viewing is less than the resting energy expenditure. Therefore long sitting hours of television viewing is a contributing factor to obesity. Hence one way of preventing obesity is to prevent long hours TV watching
Explanation:
What is the reaction of the body and mind to everyday challenges and demands.
Stress is the body's physiological and psychological reaction to everyday challenges and demands. It is primarily registered through the fight-or-flight response and can lead to severe health consequences if not appropriately managed.
Explanation:The body and mind's reaction to everyday challenges and demands is known as stress. Stress can be characterized by the processes wherein an individual perceives and responds to certain situations that are seen as overwhelming or threatening to one's sense of well-being. This is closely studied in the field of health psychology.
Our body registers stress primarily through the fight-or-flight response, a coordinated physiological action involving the sympathetic nervous system and the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. This was first identified by Walter Cannon in the early 20th century. Further on, Hans Selye, an endocrinologist, referred to these physiological reactions as part of a general adaptation syndrome. This process consists of three phases: alarm reaction (beginning of fight-or-flight reactions), resistance (the body starts to adapt to the ongoing stress), and finally exhaustion (adaptive energy is consumed and stress starts to have a physical impact).
Stressors triggering this response can be acute (short term) or chronic (long term), including traumatic events, significant life changes, daily hassles, and frequently exposed challenging circumstances. Persistent stress can result in both physical and mental illnesses, highlighting the importance of effective stress management.
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What is the relationship between an antibody and an antigen?
annabelle is in the grocery store when she notices, and she becomes very dizzy. She is shaking so that she is barely able to stand up, and she cannot seem to get enough air and begins to hyperventilate. Annebelle thinks that maybe she is having a heart attack or going insane. She was fine a few minutes ago. Annebelle is exhibiting symptoms of a(n)_______.
When the ambulance arrives at the scene of the collision, they find that the driver of one of the cars is conscious and standing up. However, he seems disoriented. He has cuts on his face and hands, and may have other, more serious injuries. However, he refuses all attempts to examine or treat him. When asked to explain his refusal, his speech is slurred and he doesn't seem to understand what has happened. The EMTs then use gentle force to get him to lie down and submit to an examination. What sort of paternalism are they using?
Answer: Weak soft paternalism
Explanation:
Paternalism can be defined as the interference of an individual with the other person against their will and is motivated by the claim that the person who is interfered will be protected from harm.
Here, the case is weak soft paternalism in which the person is not autonomous and is not able to take his decisions by his own as stated in the question.
Soft paternalism is the view in which it is necessary to determine that the person which is being interfered is acting knowledgeably and voluntarily
The quality improvement team reviews the records of clients on a monthly basis to determine whether protocols for pain assessment were followed. Which of the following best describes the major drawback to the team's approach?A) The client is no longer under the agency's care.
B) It is difficult to compare documentation of care to standards of care.
C) Records can be inaccurate or incomplete.
D) Team members may disagree on whether the standards of care were met.
Answer: A. the client is no longer under the agency's care
Explanation:
The major drawback approach of the team is A. the client is no longer under the agency's care because with this method, issues are only found after customers have been discharged. While the expectation is that potential clients can receive better treatment, little can be done for those clients who received less than ideal treatment.
Hence, the correct option is A.