Why do you believe many cancers go unrecognized until after the formation of tumors and/or the person becomes

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Explanation:

Some cancers go unrecognised because they tend not to grow in a steady, linear order. These tumors can remain dormant for long periods of time unless triggered by a promoter agent that will promote its growth followed by a period of rapid and fast growth, such as occurs after angiogenesis is initiated. Thus, equipment that will be extremely sensitive to the processes that these cells before they metastasize has to be developed to detect their presence. Some available equipments detect their actions through the substances they shed into the bloodstream but these cells would have begun metastasis by this period.

Answer 2
Final answer:

Cancers often grow slowly and do not cause symptoms in the early stages, which makes them difficult to detect. Additionally, they can develop in parts of the body that aren't easily observable, leading to further delays in diagnosis.

Explanation:

Many cancers go unrecognized until after the formation of tumours and/or the person becomes symptomatic because these diseases often develop slowly and may not cause symptoms in their early stages. The body doesn't always recognize cancerous cells because they are similar to normal body cells.

As a result, they don't cause an immunological reaction. Furthermore, tumours can grow unnoticed in areas of the body that are not easily observed, like the lungs or pancreas. This lack of immediately recognizable symptoms can lead to a delay in diagnosis.

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Related Questions

What are the Animal cells label?

Answers

Answer:Here they are.

Explanation:

Cell Membrane

   The thin layer of protein and fat that surrounds the cell. The cell membrane is semipermeable, allowing some substances to pass into the cell and blocking others.

Centrosome (Microtubule Organizing Center)

   A small body located near the nucleus - it has a dense center and radiating tubules. The centrosomes is where microtubules are made. During cell division (mitosis), the centrosome divides and the two parts move to opposite sides of the dividing cell. The centriole is the dense center of the centrosome.

Cytoplasm

   The jellylike material outside the cell nucleus in which the organelles are located.

Golgi body (Golgi Apparatus/Golgi Complex)

   A flattened, layered, sac-like organelle that looks like a stack of pancakes and is located near the nucleus. It produces the membranes that surround the lysosomes. The Golgi body packages proteins and carbohydrates into membrane-bound vesicles for “export” from the cell.

Lysosome (Cell Vesicles)

   Round organelles surrounded by a membrane and containing digestive enzymes. This is where the digestion of cell nutrients takes place.

Mitochondrion

   Spherical to rod-shaped organelles with a double membrane. The inner membrane is infolded many times, forming a series of projections (called cristae). The mitochondrion converts the energy stored in glucose into ATP (adenosine triphosphate) for the cell.

Nuclear Membrane

   The membrane that surrounds the nucleus.

Nucleolus

   An organelle within the nucleus - it is where ribosomal RNA is produced. Some cells have more than one nucleolus.

Nucleus

   Spherical body containing many organelles, including the nucleolus. The nucleus controls many of the functions of the cell (by controlling protein synthesis) and contains DNA (in chromosomes). The nucleus is surrounded by the nuclear membrane.

Ribosome

   Small organelles composed of RNA-rich cytoplasmic granules that are sites of protein synthesis.

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (Rough ER)

   A vast system of interconnected, membranous, infolded and convoluted sacks that are located in the cell’s cytoplasm (the ER is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane). Rough ER is covered with ribosomes that give it a rough appearance. Rough ER transports materials through the cell and produces proteins in sacks called cisternae (which are sent to the Golgi body, or inserted into the cell membrane).

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (Smooth ER)

   A vast system of interconnected, membranous, infolded and convoluted tubes that are located in the cell’s cytoplasm (the ER is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane). The space within the ER is called the ER lumen. Smooth ER transports materials through the cell. It contains enzymes and produces and digests lipids (fats) and membrane proteins; smooth ER buds off from rough ER, moving the newly-made proteins and lipids to the Golgi body, lysosomes, and membranes.

Vacuole

   Fluid-filled, membrane-surrounded cavities inside a cell. The vacuole fills with food being digested and waste material that is on its way out of the cell.

Answer:

cytoplasm

cell membrane

mitochondrion

chloroplast

ER

Nucleus

Golgi Apparatus

Nuclear Envelope

Ribosom  

Lysosomes

Explanation:

Hope this helps!

A(n) ______ is a stretch of DNA consisting of an operator, a promoter, and genes for a related set of proteins, usually making up an entire metabolic pathway.

The _________ is/are arranged sequentially after the promoter

A(n) ______ is a specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that binds RNA polymerase, positioning it to start transcribing RNA at the appropriate place.

A(n) _______ codes for a protein, such as a repressor, that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.

Regulatory proteins bind to the ________ to control expression of the operon.

A(n) ______ is a protein that inhibits gene transcription. In prokaryotes, this protein binds to the DNA in or near the promoter.

A(n) ______ is a specific small molecule that binds to a bacterial regulatory protein and changes its shape so that it cannot bind to an operator, thus switching an operon on.

Answers

Answers:

A(n) operon is a stretch of DNA consisting of an operator, a promoter, and genes for a related set of proteins, usually making up an entire metabolic pathway.

The Gene of an operon is arranged sequentially after the promoter

A(n) promoter is a specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that binds RNA polymerase, positioning it to start transcribing RNA at the appropriate place.

A(n) regulatory gene codes for a protein, such as a repressor, that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.

Regulatory proteins bind to the operator to control expression of the operon.

A(n) repressor is a protein that inhibits gene transcription. In prokaryotes, this protein binds to the DNA in or near the promoter.

A(n) inducer is a specific small molecule that binds to a bacterial regulatory protein and changes its shape so that it cannot bind to an operator, thus switching an operon on.

Answer:

A(n) operon is a stretch of DNA consisting of an operator, a promoter, and genes for a related set of proteins, usually making up an entire metabolic pathway.

The genes of an operon is/are arranged sequentially after the promoter.

A(n) promoter is a specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that binds RNA polymerase, positioning it to start transcribing RNA at the appropriate place.

A(n) regulatory gene codes for a protein, such as a repressor, that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.

Regulatory proteins often bind to the operator to control expression of the operon.

A(n) repressor is a protein that inhibits gene transcription. In bacteria, this protein binds to the DNA in or near the promoter.

A(n) inducer is a specific small molecule that binds to a bacterial repressor protein and changes its shape so that it cannot bind to an operator, thus switching an operon on.

what are the six kingdoms of life?​

Answers

Answer:

Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Fungi, Protista, Plants, Animals

Explanation:

A venus fly trap has green leaves for photosynthesis as well as consumes insects. Explain how it has two roles in an ecosystem.

Answers

Answer:

Well, photosynthesis converts CO2 into Oxygen, so it helps in that way. Also, by eating insects and decomposing them, it also helps with the carbon cycle.

Hope this helps :)

Sort each of the following descriptions into the most appropriate bin based on whether it accurately describes a cofactor, a coenzyme, or a prosthetic group. (Not every answer may be used.)

- the heme group of catalase is an example of one of these

- a small molecule that an enzyme requires to function; can be amino-acid based, a metal, or an organic compound

- a metal, such as iron, that is not permanently associated with an enzyme may be an example of one of these

- a coenzyme that is permanently associated with an enzyme

- it is usually derived from vitamins

- a cofactor that has an organic component, but no amino acids

a small molecule that an enzyme requires to function; can be a metal or an organic compound

Answers

Final answer:

Enzymes require the help of helper molecules called cofactors and coenzymes. The heme group in catalase is an example of a prosthetic group, which is a coenzyme permanently associated with an enzyme. Cofactors can be amino-acid-based, metallic ions, or organic compounds.

Explanation:

In biology, enzymes often require the help of non-protein molecules known as helper molecules, which include cofactors and coenzymes. Cofactors are inorganic ions such as iron and magnesium, while coenzymes are organic molecules derived from vitamins. The heme group of catalase is an example of a prosthetic group, which is a coenzyme that is permanently associated with an enzyme. A small molecule that an enzyme requires to function can be a cofactor, which can be amino-acid-based, a metal, or an organic compound.

Tubular reabsorption: a) involves the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular fluid. b) involves the movement of a substance from the tubular fluid into the peritubular capillary blood. c) is considered to be active if any one of the steps of transepithelial transport is active. d) both [a] and [c] e) both [b] and [c]

Answers

Final answer:

Tubular reabsorption is the process where substances are transported from tubular fluid back into the peritubular capillary blood, primarily via active transport, which involves energy expenditure, such as the use of ATP.

Explanation:

Tubular reabsorption involves the movement of substances from tubular fluid into the peritubular capillary blood. During this process, substances such as water, electrolytes, and nutrients, which were previously filtered out of the blood and into the renal tubule, are moved back into the blood. Various transport mechanisms are involved in tubular reabsorption, including active transport, passive diffusion, facilitated diffusion, co-transport, and endocytosis. Active transport is essential for substances like sodium (Na+), which is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), and then water follows due to osmotic pressure differences, facilitated by the presence of aquaporins. This results in reabsorption steps that can be classified as active if one of the transport mechanisms requires energy, such as ATP.

What the difference between cathexis and arti-cathexis

Answers

Answer: the cathexis and anticathexis control how the id utilizes its energy. Cathexis refers to the id's dispersal of energy while the anticathexis serves to block inappropriate uses of this energy.

Explanation:

Answer:

According to the Freudian Theory of Drives

According to psychoanalyst Sigmund Freud, the cathexis and anticathexis control how the id utilizes its energy. Cathexis refers to the id's dispersal of energy while the anticathexis serves to block inappropriate uses of this energy. Learn more about how this process works.

A technique known as polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is able to produce millions of copies of a DNA molecule in only a few hours. Which of the following cellular processes is PCR most similar to? Choose 1 answer: Choose 1 answer: (Choice A) A Translation (Choice B) B Replication (Choice C) C Transcription (Choice D) D Mitosis

Answers

Answer:

B. Replication

Explanation:

The process of replication is similar to the process of PCR which involves the production of many copies of DNA molecules. the process of replication is also a fundamental process in the cell. This process facilitates the production of a new copy of the DNA molecule which is to be transferred to each daughter cells after division.

Which statement describes an operon? heritable changes in gene expression that occur without altering the DNA sequence the processing of exons in mRNA that results in a single gene coding for multiple proteins a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand mRNA modifications, such as the addition of a 5′ ‑cap and 3′ poly‑A tail and the removal of introns protein modifications such as the addition of a functional group, or alternate folding of the protein

Answers

Answer:

A gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand

Explanation:

Operon are set of genes transcribed under the control of an operator gene.It consists of an operator, promoter, regulator and structural genes.

An operon is very important and is regarded as the functional unit of transcription and genetic regulation.

It is also known as a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand

Final answer:

An operon is a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand.

Explanation:

An operon is a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand. It consists of multiple genes that are transcribed together as a single unit in prokaryotic cells. The expression of the operon can be activated or repressed depending on cellular needs and the surrounding environment.

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who discovered CRISPR-Cas9?​

Answers

Answer:

Jennifer Doudna and Emmanuelle Charpentier.

Explanation:

Suppose there are 50 couples with the same blood type and hemoglobin genotypes. They live on a small, isolated Pacific island on which very few mosquitoes have been identified. All the individuals are heterozygous for type A blood and have sickle cell trait. The 50 couples had 224 children over the years. The children were all tested for blood type and for the presence of the sickle cell allele.

Here are the results. Testing Results Blood Test Results Number of Children Type A, normal RBCs 48 Type O, normal RBCs 18 Type A, sickle cell trait 92 Type O, sickle cell trait 33 Type A, sickle cell disease 27 Type O, sickle cell disease 6 Are these data significant? Explain using a chi-square statistical analysis test.

a. What is χ2 ?

b. Calculate df.

c. Using the critical values table, determine the P value.

d. Interpret the P value as it relates to these data. Explain the significance.

From what you know about hemoglobin, sickle cell disease, and blood type, what selection pressure is acting on this population of children and causing the null hypothesis to be rejected? Explain your answer. (Hint: Look at the actual differences between the observed and expected numbers.)

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Observed phenotype(o)Expected(e) (o-e) (o-e)²/ e

Type A, normal RBCs 48 42 6 0.86

Type O, normal RBCs 18 14 4 1.14

Type A,sickle cell trait 92 84 8 0.76

Type O,sickle cell trait 33 28 5 0.89

Type A,sickle cell Dx 27 42 -15 5.36

Type O, sickle cell Dx 6 14 -8 4.57

a. chi-square value x² = 13.58

b. the degrees of freedom (df).

df = 6 – 1 = 5

c. Using the Critical Values Table, we determine the p value. p < 0.05 (0.025 < p <0.01)

d. To Interpret the p value as it relates to these data and explain the significance.

Since p < 0.05, the null hypothesis is rejected, this suggests that there is a statistically significant

difference between the observed and expected data. Therefore, the difference between the observed and expected data is not solely due to chance.

e. From what you know about hemoglobin, sickle cell disease, and blood type, what selection pressure is acting on this population of children causing the null hypothesis to be rejected? Explain your answer. (Hint: Look at the actual

differences between the observed and expected numbers).

This population of individuals is isolated on a small Pacific island on which very little or no quality healthcare is available. Thus, there is selection against the children with sickle cell disease. The presence of this selection pressure distort the observed numbers from the expected values, causing the null hypothesis to be rejected, which suggests that something other than chance is acting on the population which would be the selection against the SS genotype in this case.

Answer:

x2= 13.58

Explanation:

χ2 =sum ( o− e) ^2 /e

χ2 = 13.58

degree of freedom = 6 – 1 = 5

using the critical values table,

P value.

P < 0.05 (0.025 < P < 0.01)

As P < 0.05, the null hypothesis is rejected,

This indicates that there is a statistically significant difference between the observed and expected data.

Accept------ Alternative hypothesis :

================

null hypothesis :

there was NO significant difference between the observed and expected data.

Alternative hypothesis :

there was significant difference between the observed and expected data.

what does the immune system provide

Answers

Answer:

It provides you

Explanation:

Answer:

The immune system has a vital role: It protects your body from harmful substances, germs and cell changes that could make you ill. It is made up of various organs, cells and proteins

All of the cells in the human body contain the same genes. How do cells have different morphologies and functions when they contain the same genetic information? Different cell types express particular genes at different levels. Different cell types synthesize proteins at a different rate. Different cell types obtain different types of nutrients from their surroundings. Different cell types receive different paracrine signals.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is: Different cell types express particular genes at different levels.

Explanation:

The human body, as the complex multicellular eukaryotic organism that it is, has many types of cells that differ both in morphology and function. This diversity is not given by the genes they possess, because all cells have all of the DNA (except for particular cells like the red blood cells, which do not have nuclei).

The mechanism that makes these differences possible is gene expression. Gene expression refers to the process in which genes are "selected" from the whole genome to be translated into proteins. For this reason, a neuron differs from a hepatocyte: because it expresses different genes, which leads to different sets of proteins being synthesized in the cell, which of course will relate to the function and structure of the overall cell.

Gene expression can be regulated in many ways by making modifications directly to the DNA, the RNA or even the protein.

Answer:

The Correct Option is "Different cell types express particular genes at different levels"

Explanation:

Although the heritable makeup of every cell is comparable, they need precise levels of their organic phenomenon that is named as disparity appearance. There may be numerous causes for variance organic phenomenon either because of the encompassing atmosphere, quite signaling they acquire or the speed of fusion. But, in comprehensive expressions, it's known as completely differential factor that is liable for diverse morphology and performance of genetically like cells within the organic structure.

Match the organ or gland with the enzymes or secretions it releases. amylase peptidase lipase HCl bile A. pancreas B. small intestine C. stomach (chief cells) D. salivary glands E. liver F. stomach (parietal cells)

Answers

Answer:

Amylase-  alpha amylase in salivary glands and pancreatic amylase in pancreas

peptidase - stomach (chief cells)

lipase - pancreas

HCl - (parietal cells)

bile - liver

Explanation:

Alpha-amylase which is an enzyme also known as ptyalin is produced in the salivary gland and found in the saliva helping in the first step in the hydrolysis of starch. The leftover starch molecules are further broken down by the pancreatic amylase produced in the pancreas. Peptidase is secreted in the chief cells of the stomach and they catalyze the breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides or single amino acids. Lipase is produced from the pancreas and converts fats to fatty acids. HCl also produced in the stomach aids in the process of digestion in the stomach. Bile produced by the liver is involved in the emulsification of fats.

How do seed plants lose water and how they prevents too much water for being lost ?

Answers

Seed plants lose water from the pores present in the leaves through transpiration and they prevent too much water from being lost by reducing the rate of transpiration.

What is Transpiration?

Transpiration is the process of water movement and its loss through a plant and its evaporation from the different aerial parts, such as the leaves, stems, and flowers. Water is necessary for all the plants however only a small amount of water is taken up by the roots is actually used for the growth and metabolism of the plant.

Factors that are responsible for affecting the rate of transpiration include sunlight, temperature, wind, and humidity. Sunlight is the major factor during day time, stomata remain open to allow the diffusion of gases such as carbon dioxide and oxygen for photosynthesis. This leads to the increased loss of water from stomata of leaves.

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What was the science of classification and naming organisms based on the different characteristics called?

Answers

Answer:

taxonomy

Explanation:

In one day, a zebra eats 10 kg of grass. A lion kills and eats the zebra, How much of the energy contained in the grass is usable by the lion?

10 kg

5 kg

1 kg

0.1 kg

Answers

Answer:

0.1

Explanation:

Answer:

D.) 0.1 kg

Explanation:

What do huge and giant stars become as they become older and larger

Answers

Stars with higher mass have shorter lifespans. When the sun becomes a red giant, its atmosphere will engulf the Earth. During the red giant phase, a main sequence star's core collapses and burns helium into carbon. After about 100 million years, the helium runs out, and the star turns into a red supergiant.

I hope this finds you what you were looking for.

In order for the synthesis of vitamin D to occur, a series of steps are necessary and any disruption in this process can result in a deficiency of vitamin D. With this in mind, choose the situations or conditions that could contribute to a vitamin D deficiency. Check all that apply.

O Limited or no use of sunscreen outdoors
Having a lighter skin pigmentation
Living in a region without a lot of sunlight
Having liver disease
Increased activation of vitamin D will result in absorption of calcium in the small intestine and risk of inadequate bone mineralization

Answers

Answer: Having liver disease

Living in a region without a lot of sunlight

Explanation:

Vitamin D is gotten from sunlight i.e the exposure of body to sunlight helps synthesis vitamins D. In area with low sunlight when the body

Cannot trap enough sunlight to produce vitamin D the body could have low vitamin D leading to its deficiency.

An impairment to the skin leads to an inability of the skin to synthesis it.

Vitamin D is transform to active for in the liver hence a damage to liver will lead to vitamin D deficiency.

Definitely include Ricket, softening of bone in adult.

Final answer:

Vitamin D deficiency can result from living in areas with limited sunlight, liver disease, and having a darker skin complexion. Limited use of sunscreen would not cause a deficiency. Increased vitamin D activation improves bone mineralization.

Explanation:

The conditions that could contribute to a vitamin D deficiency include living in a region without a lot of sunlight, having liver disease, and having a darker skin pigmentation, which requires more UV exposure to synthesize the same amount of vitamin D compared to those with lighter skin. Limited or no use of sunscreen outdoors would typically not contribute to a deficiency and, in fact, might increase vitamin D production. Increased activation of vitamin D leads to the absorption of calcium in the small intestine and aids in bone mineralization, so this would not typically result in a deficiency or inadequate bone mineralization.

When disinfecting a whirlpool foot spa after use by a client, you must circulate the disinfectant for ______________ or the length of time indicated on the product label.

Answers

Answer:

10 minutes

Explanation:

It is crucial to study ocean microbes because

Answers

Answer:

THEY CONTROL THE MAJOR BIOGEOCHEMICAL CYCLES THAT KEEP EARTH'S BIOSPHERE IN BALANCE

Explanation:

Select the statements that are true for lactic acid fermentation carried out in muscle cells.

a. This process results in a net synthesis of NADH .
b. This process increases the pH in the muscle fibers.
c. This process is inhibited by ATP .
d. This process releases energy.
e. This process is inhibited by AMP .

Answers

Answer:

option a, c and d

Explanation:

In lactic acid fermentation, this process produces NADH, lactic acid and 2 ATP molecules. this process decreases the pH in the muscle fibers. If there is enough ATP in the fibers, the process is inhibited. and this process is stimulated to release energy in the absence of oxygen.

The statements that are true for lactic acid fermentation carried out in muscle cells are:

This process is inhibited by ATP.

This process releases energy.

Fermentation is an incomplete oxidation process that does not require oxygen to take place.

It is a catabolic process, that is, the transformation of complex molecules into simple molecules and the generation of chemical energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate).

In fermentation, ATP synthesis is accomplished by phosphorylation at the substrate level, where the energy-rich phosphate bonds of a phosphorylated organic intermediate are transferred directly to ADP to synthesize ATP.

Lactic fermentation consists of a partial oxidation of glucose, carried out by lactic bacteria or by muscle cells (when they run out of oxygen to breathe).

Specifically, this process generates ATP but produces lactic acid as a by-product, which produces, when it accumulates, the painful sensation of muscle fatigue.

Therefore, we can conclude that the statements that are true for lactic acid fermentation carried out in muscle cells are: this process is inhibited by ATP and releases energy.

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Which of the following statements concerning animal taxonomy is (are) TRUE? 1. Animals are more closely related to plants than to fungi. 2. All animal clades based on body plan have been found to be incorrect. 3. Kingdom Animalia is monophyletic. 4. Animals only reproduce sexually. 5. Animals are thought to have evolved from flagellated protists similar to modern choanoflagellates.

Answers

Answer - 3) Kingdom Animalia is monophyletic

                5) Animals are thought to have evolved from flagellated protists                    similar to modern choanoflagellates.

Please mark brainliest..

Animal Kingdom comprises of eukaryotic, multicellular species of animals. Kingdom Animalia is monophyletic. Animals are evolved from flagellated protists similar to modern choanoflagellates.

What is Animal Kingdom?

Animal Kingdom  includes organisms from simplest forms to the complex ones. All animals here are multicellular, eukaryotic and almost every animal is having specialised cells.

Some characteristics of animal kingdom includes:

Animals are more closely related to fungi than to plants. Kingdom Animalia is monophyletic.Animals are evolved from flagellated protists similar to modern choanoflagellates.Animals have a unique feature namely, gastrulation.

Thus, option 3 and 5 are correct.

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In his study on canine cognition, Sherman guesses that German shepherds are more likely to find hidden objects than other breeds. After he collects his data, he finds that German Shepherds perform at the same rate as other breeds. In this scenario, Sherman is engaging in ____________

a. population estimation.b. inferential deduction.c. symbolic analysis.d. hypothesis testing.

Answers

Answer:

d. hypothesis testing.

Explanation:

Any experiment or study is preceded by a hypothesis. An experimenter forms a proposed explanation and then conducts the study to test it. Here, Sherman made a hypothesis that German shepherds are better than other breeds in finding hidden objects. To test this hypothesis he conducted the experiment and started to analyse the data. Thus, Sherman is engaging in hypothesis testing.


In the cell, newly made proteins move directly from the ribosomes into the rough what

Answers

Answer us Rough endoplasmic reticulum


is an organelle found in eukaryotic cells. Its main function is to produce proteins. It is made up of cisternae, tubules and vesicles. The cisternae are made up of flattened membrane disks, which are involved in the modification of proteins.

In a control experiment, a plasmid containing a HindIII recognition sequence within a kanamycin resistance gene is cut with HindIII, religated, and used to transform E.coli K12 cells. Kanamycin-resistant colonies are selected, and plasmid DNA from these colonies is subjected to electrophoresis. Most of the colonies contain plasmids that produce single bands that migrate at the same rate as the original intact plasmid. A few colonies, however, produce two bands, one of original size and one that migrates much higher in the gel. Propose the origin of this slow band as a product of ligation.

Answers

Answer:

The origin could be a different DNA plasmid.

Explanation:

The band that migrates at a slow rate is probably a full plasmid that is selected in a few kanamycin-resistant colonies. However there is a possibility that some plasmids that were religated after the cut with Hind III produced some ligations of more than one plasmid creating a double resistance plasmid, for instance.

Final answer:

The slow band observed in a few colonies during electrophoresis in this control experiment can be attributed to the ligation process. When the plasmid is religated, it is possible for an extra piece of DNA to be incorporated, resulting in the higher migrating band in the gel.

Explanation:

In this control experiment, a plasmid containing a HindIII recognition sequence within a kanamycin resistance gene is cut with HindIII, religated, and used to transform E.coli K12 cells. The kanamycin-resistant colonies are then selected and the plasmid DNA from these colonies is subjected to electrophoresis. Most of the colonies produce single bands that migrate at the same rate as the original intact plasmid. However, a few colonies produce two bands, one of original size and one that migrates much higher in the gel.

The origin of this slow band can be attributed to the ligation process. When the plasmid is religated after being cut with HindIII, it is possible for the religation to result in the formation of a circular plasmid with an extra piece of DNA. This extra piece of DNA could be from a different region of the plasmid, resulting in the higher migrating band in the gel.

Which of the following choices supports a circular economy?
A. Products that come with lots of packaging
B. Public libraries with lots of books
C. Free shipping with purchase of $50 or more
D. Memberships at warehouse superstores
LES

Answers

Answer:

B. Public libraries with lots of books.

Public libraries with lots of books support a circular economy.

The correct option is B. Public libraries with lots of books.

What is the concept of the circular economy?

A circular economy involves markets that supply incentives to reusing merchandise, rather than scrapping them and then extracting new sources. In such a financial system, all kinds of waste, including clothes, scrap metal, and obsolete electronics, are back into the economy or used more efficaciously.

A circular economy is a version of manufacturing and intake, which includes sharing, leasing, reusing, repairing, refurbishing and recycling present substances and products as long as viable.

it is a trade to the model wherein resources are mined, made into products, after which turn out to be waste. A circular economy system reduces material use, redesigns materials to be much less useful resources in-depth, and recaptures “waste” as a resource to fabricate new materials and products.

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Paulo makes the argument that the asteroid strike that likely contributed to the extinction of the dinosaurs was a short-tem environmental change because it happened so quickly.

Which is the best analysis of Paulo’s position?

He is correct; it happened in just a few seconds.
He is correct; it did not cause any long-term changes.
He is incorrect; it caused long-term changes.
He is incorrect; impacts are not environmental changes.

Answers

Answer:

3rd one.

Explanation:

I would say that because after the immediate results of the impact, the dust and debris settled into the atmosphere, blocking out the sun and creating a nuclear winter of sorts. I'd say the winter killed more dinosaurs than the asteroid impact.

The best analysis of Paulo's position is: He is incorrect; impacts are not environmental changes and the correct option is option 4.

While the asteroid strike that likely contributed to the extinction of the dinosaurs did happen relatively quickly in geological terms, it resulted in significant long-term changes to the environment. The impact caused a massive release of energy, triggering wildfires, tsunamis, and a global-scale dust cloud that blocked sunlight. These immediate effects had immediate and devastating consequences for many organisms.

Furthermore, the aftermath of the impact led to long-term changes in the environment. The dust cloud caused a decrease in sunlight, leading to a significant drop in temperature and disrupted photosynthesis. This, in turn, had cascading effects on the food chain and ecosystems. The loss of plant life and subsequent collapse of food webs had long-lasting impacts on both terrestrial and marine ecosystems.

Thus, the ideal selection is option 4.

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There are _____ possible codons using 4 letters with 3 letters per codon in any order. However, there are only 20 amino acids, and each codon "codes" for one amino acid. What does this mean?​

Answers

Answer:

64 possible codons

Explanation:

hope it helps:)

Final answer:

There are 64 possible codons using 4 letters with 3 letters per codon. However, there are only 20 amino acids. This is due to the 'degeneracy' of the genetic code, where multiple codons can code for a single amino acid, providing a protection against mutations.

Explanation:

There are 64 possible codons using 4 letters (A, T, G, C) with 3 letters per codon in any order. This is because there are 4 possibilities for each of the 3 positions in the codon (4 x 4 x 4 = 64). However, there are only 20 amino acids. The inequity comes from the fact that multiple codons can code for a single amino acid, a feature known as the 'degeneracy' of the genetic code. Some amino acids are encoded by more than one codon, which is why there are more codons than amino acids. This redundancy in the genetic code serves as a protective mechanism against mutations, since changes in the third position of a codon often don't affect the amino acid that is produced.

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How do the finches of the Galapagos Islands demonstrate evolution?

Answers

The finches adapted over time to better suit their environment that they were in -- the size and shape of their beaks changed as a result of natural selection.

Finches beaks and overall head shape adapted to live in certain areas or eat certain foods. These adaptations are due to natural selection, as the birds with the best suited beak for certain foods (an example) are most likely to survive than those that cannot.
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