Why does the lining of the uterus thicken with blood and tissue before ovulation?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

to create a place where a potential fertilized egg can implant and grow

Explanation:

Answer 2
Final answer:

The lining of the uterus, or the endometrium, thickens with blood and tissue before ovulation due to hormonal changes. This provides a suitable environment for a potential fertilized egg to implant and grow. If fertilization does not occur, the thickened lining sheds during menstruation.

Explanation:

The lining of the uterus, or the endometrium, thickens with blood and tissue before ovulation in preparation for potential pregnancy. The thickening is a result of an increase in blood vessels and endometrium in response to hormones such as estrogen and progesterone. This process allows for a fertilized egg or zygote to implant itself into the endometrium after ovulation. If the egg is not fertilized, the thickened lining, specifically the stratum functionalis layer of the endometrium, sheds during menstruation.

On the other hand, hormones LH and FSH can cause the endometrium to start to thicken after ovulation. If fertilization does not occur, no signal is sent to extend the life of the corpus luteum which is responsible for progesterone production, leading it to degrade and stop progesterone production. This results in menstruation, or the sloughing off of the endometrium.

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Related Questions

What is the primary role of communication in enhancing health?

Communication prevents a person from having cancer.
Communication helps medical staff determine a healthcare plan.
Communication ensures that a person will get great health care.
Communication prevents medical staff from misdiagnosing a condition.

Answers

Answer: Communication helps medical staff determine a healthcare plan.

Explanation:

This is the best option out of all of these choices. Communication is key for a healthcare plan because the individual wanting healthcare has to voice what they want and their needs.

Answer:

B

Explanation:

What does the sympathetic nervous system control?

a) the release of endorphins
b) the secretion of dopamine
c) the mind-body connection
d) the fight-or-flight response

Answers

D.) the fight-or-flight response.
The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) is a part of the larger autonomic nervous system (ANS) and works to regulate the body’s unconscious responses such as fight-or-flight and homeodynamic homeostasis.

Select the correct answer.
In the preparation stage, individuals are aware of the problem, but they still believe the positive aspects outweigh the negative aspects. They are
beginning to think about changing, but they have made no commitment to change.​

Answers

It’s B wallah im not Cappin on foenem

What is outbreak at Watersedge?

Answers

Answer: A public health discovery game

Explanation:

Final answer:

The query seems to explore the reasons behind and connections between certain events that could lead to public health concerns, referencing environmental damage and infrastructure failure. Confirming any links requires a multidisciplinary approach, incorporating historical, environmental, and health studies.

Explanation:

The question regarding 'Outbreak at Watersedge' appears to refer to a hypothetical scenario possibly linked to historical events or environmental studies, as the provided excerpts do not directly relate to a specific outbreak named 'Outbreak at Watersedge'. However, based on the context given, examining potential causes and links between described scenarios can include factors such as environmental damage, infrastructure failure, and public health concerns. For instance, the breakage of moorings and water pipes, and the displacement of a piling due to a north mooring line could lead to water contamination, which is a common precursor to public health crises. The historical note on the Winnebago Outbreak of 1827 suggests that investigating historical records and environmental impacts can offer insights into possible causes and connections between seemingly disparate events. Confirming suspected links would involve interdisciplinary approaches, combining historical research, environmental science, and public health studies to trace the origins and impacts of such events.

Which of the following is linked to tobacco use?
O
A. Heart attack
O
B. Memory loss
O
O
C. Dehydration
D. Cirrhosis

Answers

Answer:

A. heart attack

hope it helps

A : Heart Attack
hope this helps !

how can you most effectively change your body fat percentage?​

Answers

Answer:

Going onto a diet plan and excising daily for a certain amount of time each day for so and so days

Explanation:

The pattern by which our lives be measured is

Answers

Answer:

what god measured

Sorry but the question is not very direct, please specify what you are generally looking for, thank you :)

All of an organisms genetic information can be obtained within the chromosomes in a single cell almost every kind of cell in an organism has the same number of chromosomes for example most human cells have each 46 chromosomes which is a type of cell that contains 23 chromosomes in a human?

Answers

Answer:

Genetic information are derived from the chromosome of a single cell.

Explanation:

Each organism has a particular number of chromosome in their cell. Almost every kind of organism has the similar number of chromosomes, as in human. Human cells have 46 chromosomes which have 23 pairs, known as homologous pairs.

Human sperms have haploids i.e. one homologous  chromosome for each pair. When the process of sperm fusion takes place the genetic components of the sperm unite themselves into a single set of diploid chromosomes.

The two chromosomes of mother and father in a pair are quite similar and carry same genetic information. However the gene types are different.

Which body part should be lifted when clearing a person's airway during CPR?
A)arm
B)chest
C) shoulder
D)chin

Answers

the body part that would be lifted is the chin

Place one hand on the person's forehead and put the fingers of your other hand under the chin. Press down on the forehead and lift out the chin so that the mouth is slightly open.

What are environmental communication barriers?

Answers

Answer:

Time, place, space, climate and noise are all examples of environmental communication barriers.

Explanation:

They are things that may interfere with the message(s) that is/are trying to be sent.

Environmental communication barriers are obstacles that hinder effective communication between individuals or groups due to factors in the physical or natural surroundings.

What are Environmental communication barriers?

Environmental communication barriers refer to obstacles that prevent effective communication in the context of the natural environment. These barriers can include physical barriers such as noise, distance, or visual obstructions, as well as cultural or linguistic barriers that can arise when communicating with people from different backgrounds or communities.

For instance, when communicating about environmental issues, language barriers can be a major obstacle in conveying messages to non-native speakers or communities with a different dialect. Similarly, cultural differences in how people understand and respond to environmental concerns can pose challenges in communication and collaboration.

Other environmental communication barriers can arise from the use of technical language, the absence of clear and concise messaging, or the lack of access to information or communication technologies. Addressing these barriers can require creative solutions such as using visual aids or translation services, building trust and understanding through community engagement, or simplifying complex technical information to make it more accessible to diverse audiences.

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Subatomic particles that do not provide any charge are called _____.

Answers

Subatomic particles that do not provide any charge are called neutrons
Final answer:

Subatomic particles that do not have any charge are known as neutrons and neutrinos. Neutrons are part of an atom's nucleus and neutrinos are elementary particles similar to electrons but lack charge.

Explanation:

Subatomic particles that do not provide any charge are called neutrons. Neutrons are elementary particles found in the nucleus of an atom. They carry no electrical charge, unlike protons, which carry a positive charge, and electrons, which carry a negative charge. For example, an atom of helium contains two protons, two neutrons, and two electrons. The protons and electrons each carry opposite charges that balance each other out, leaving the neutral neutrons to add mass to the nucleus without affecting the atom's total charge.

Another particle that does not have charge is the neutrino. Neutrinos are subatomic particles that are very similar to electrons but do not carry electric charge. They are incredibly small and rarely interact with other particles, hence they are challenging to detect.

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Which term defines a person one sees occasionally or only knows casually?
stranger
acquaintance
peer
friend

Answers

Answer:

acquaintance

Explanation:

you don't know a stranger at all, and you know a friend really well

so probably acuantainance

Why does your heart stay in one place instead of bobbing around inside your chest?

Answers

Answer:

your chest cavity is what keeps your heart in one place

Explanation:

your heart is connected to your chest cavity .

Final answer:

The heart stays in place in the chest due to a combination of structures like the pericardium, sternum, rib cage, and the attachment of blood vessels. It is a muscular organ responsible for pumping blood through rhythmic contractions, ensuring continuous blood circulation throughout the body.

Explanation:

The human heart is a vital muscular organ located behind the sternum, slightly to the left in the center of the chest. Despite what many believe, when you place your hand on your heart, it is not entirely on the left side but more centrally positioned. The heart is anchored securely in place within the chest by various structures. This includes the pericardium—a double-walled sac containing the heart and the roots of the great vessels, the sternum and rib cage that provide a protective enclosure, and the vascular structures and lungs that envelop it.

Furthermore, the heart itself is composed of specialized tissue -- the cardiac muscle. This muscle is responsible for the rhythmic contractions, known as your heartbeat, that pump blood throughout your body. These contractions move the blood by getting shorter and exerting force, which propels the blood through the cardiovascular system. This activity brings vital oxygen and nutrients to every cell and removes waste products from them.

Attached to the heart are large blood vessels that do not allow much movement, and additionally, there are ligament-like structures that secure the heart to the spinal column and other parts of the thoracic cavity. This combination of the cardiac muscle contractions and the stabilizing structures ensures that the heart does not 'bob around' inside the chest. Consequently, the heart remains securely in place, performing its essential function of continuously circulating blood throughout the body.

4. Heartburn is caused by
a. seepage of gastric acid into the esophagus.
b. seepage of gastric acid into the cardiac muscle.
c. seepage of bile into the stomach.
d. seepage of salivary amylase into the stomach.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A.

Explanation:

Heartburn happens because stomach acid becomes backed up in the esophagus, which moves food from your mouth to your stomach.

The burning sensation is usually the result of stomach acid leaking up into the esophagus through a flaw in a valve known as the lower esophageal sphincter (LES), which connects the esophagus and the stomach. When the LES doesn't tighten properly or becomes weakened, stomach acid can flow back into the esophagus, causing a burning feeling.

Heart burn is caused by A

Which activity is BEST for weight management?​

Answers

Answer:

240 to 300 calories doing light activity such as cleaning house or playing baseball or golf.

370 to 460 calories doing activity such as a brisk walk (3.5 mph), gardening, biking (5.5 mph), or dancing.

580 to 730 calories doing activity such as jogging at a pace of 9 minutes per mile, playing football, or swimming laps.

The type of movements made by the TMJ is

Answers

The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) allows for movement of the mandible during speech and mastication. Two basic types of movement are performed by the joint and its associated muscles: a gliding movement and a rotational movement

You go into a back bedroom at a party to pick up your coat, and find someone passed out on the floor laying on his side. you try to wake him up, but he doesn’t move. what do you do next?

Answers

Answer:

check to see if he is breathing

Explanation:

always make sure the person is breathing first. if not breathing begin CPR while dialing 911. if breathing and just unresponsive call 911

A person is said to be passed out if they might have taken any drugs or alcohol. If the person doesn't wake then one should check the breathing followed by CPR if needed, or should call EMS.

What is EMS?

EMS is the emergency medical service are paramedics that provide urgent medical treatment to patients. They are called in emergencies where the person needs to be hospitalized.

If a person is passed out then, one should pinch the skin causing him pain, and if they still don't wake then one should call EMS and not leave the person till the help arrives.

Therefore, in an emergency, EMS should be called.

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Why should the DXA be completed before the brachytherapy?

Answers

Explanation:

Brachytherapy is a type of cancer radiation therapy/ treatment which involves the placement of radioactive material within specific regions of the body. This maybe utilized to deliver more specific cancer treatments in affected areas. Available within higher doses in comparison to whole body radiation treatments.

Bone density tests called DEXA (dual energy x-ray) scans measure the bones density by focusing on specific regions namely the spine and hip bones This diagnoses and  can even determine a person's risk of developing developing osteoporosis which is a condition in which the bones are weakened and fragile

The test uses small doses of ionizing radiation (X-rays) to provide internal scans.

DXAs are also used prior to cancer treatment in order to potentially diagnose cancer present in the bone and to monitor bone health throughout treatment uses a very small dose of ionizing radiation to produce pictures of the inside of the body (usually the lower (or lumbar) spine and hips) to measure bone loss.

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Final answer:

DXA, which measures bone density, should be completed before brachytherapy to evaluate the risk of radiation-related bone damage. This step aids in developing a safe and effective treatment plan.

Explanation:

The DXA (Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry) should be completed before brachytherapy because DXA is used for bone density measurement. Brachytherapy, on the other hand, is a type of radiotherapy where a sealed radiation source is placed inside or next to the area requiring treatment. Before implementing brachytherapy, especially when the pelvic area or prostate is involved, a DXA scan is necessary to measure the bone density and evaluate the risk of radiation-related bone damage. This precautionary measure is essential for developing an effective and safe treatment plan.

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23
Which is a hormone that is released by the endocrine system?
pineal
testosterone
thymus
pancreas

Answers

Pineal is a hormone that is released by the endocrine system.

What is endocrine system ?

The glands and organs that make hormones and release them directly into the blood so they can travel to tissues and organs all over the body.

What are 3 types of endocrine?Adrenal glands: Two glands that sit on top of the kidneys that release the hormone cortisol.Hypothalamus: A part of the lower middle brain that tells the pituitary gland when to release hormones.Ovaries: The female reproductive organs that release eggs and produce s.e.x hormones.

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Final answer:

Testosterone is a hormone released by the endocrine system, mainly produced by the testes in males and ovaries in females, and is responsible for developing male reproductive tissues and secondary sexual characteristics.

Explanation:

The question asks which is a hormone released by the endocrine system. Among the options provided, testosterone is a hormone that is released by the endocrine system. Testosterone is produced mainly in the testes in males and in the ovaries in females, with small amounts also produced by the adrenal glands. It plays a key role in the development of male reproductive tissues as well as promoting secondary sexual characteristics such as increased muscle and bone mass, and the growth of body hair. Furthermore, as part of the endocrine system, the pineal gland secretes melatonin, which regulates the sleep-wake cycle, the pancreas produces hormones like insulin to maintain energy stores, and other glands like the thyroid regulate metabolism. However, it is the word 'testosterone' from the given answer choices that specifically represents a hormone.

Which of the following is NOT part of the male reproductive system?
A. Seminiferous tubules
B.Vas deferens
C. Epididymis
D. Bartholin’s glands

Answers

Answer: i believe its the Vas deferens

Why do red meats have a high nutritional value?

Answers

red meats have high nutritional because they have lots of proteins including iron, b12, zinc and other nutrients.

Points
How could you best help people with eating disorders?

Answers

Answer:

A.

Explanation:

You can help my trying to figure out what caused the eating disorder. Trying to figure out if there is anything you can do to help basically try and be their new form of comfort

Which of the following is not a
function of Public Health
organizations?
A. Treating patients.
B. Providing immunizations.
C. Keeping health statistics.
D. Working to prevent and control epidemics.

Answers

Hi !

Which of the following is not a

function of Public Health

organizations?

C. Keeping health statistics.

2 Points
Which of the following is not a risk associated with using legal drugs without
medical supervision?
A. Taking inappropriate or dangerous dose amounts,
O
B. Ignoring or not recognizing the side effects.
C. Paying too much on the black market instead of getting a
prescription
D. Not having a guarantee of purity or potency of the drug,
SUBMIT

Answers

Answer:

C. paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription

Explanation:

this will not happen with illegal prescription

The option that is not associated with the risk of using legal drugs without medical supervision is paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription. Thus, the correct option is C.

What is Medical Supervision?

Medical supervision may be defined as the process of regular coordination, direction, and inspection by a physician of an individual's exercise of delegation to deliver medical services to patients.

Paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription may be considered an illegal activity that can not have any risk associated with using legal drugs without medical supervision.

Therefore, the correct option for this question is C.

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Please Help ASAP!!

1. Which of the following Child Care Center policies would be most effective in helping infants and toddlers resolve the trust vs. mistrust crisis? (1 point)

a. Follow a new routine every day so the children do not become bored.

b. Rotate teachers among the children frequently to stimulate interest in learning.

c. Establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children.

d. Make sure each child is able to spend several hours alone each day.


2. Solitary play is characteristic of __________ year-old children. (1 point)

a. 2- to 2½-

b. 2½- to 3½-

c. 3½- to 4½-

d.4½- to 5½-


3. Teaching infants and toddlers requires more __________ than teaching preschoolers and school aged children. (1 point)

a. emotional investment

b. physical care

c. specialized training

d. lesson planning


4. Which of the following is an example of telegraphic speech? (1 point)

a. “More.”

b. “No eat.”

c. “Daddy wants lunch.”

d. “I don't want that.”


5. Which of the following statements best describes the role of assessment in teaching infants and toddlers? (1 point)

a. Assessment is not an appropriate activity for teaching infants and toddlers.

b. Initial screenings with parents represent the full extent of assessment for infants and toddlers.

c. There is no reliable way to access the cognitive development of infants and toddlers.

d. Recording developmental milestones is an effective assessment method for infants and toddlers.


6. Children typically speak their first words between __________ months of age. (1 point)

a. 6 and 12

b. 12 and 18

c. 24 and 30

d. 30 and 36


7. Which of the following activities is typical of the cognitive development levels of infants and toddlers? (1 point)

a. pretending that a black is a truck

b. repeatedly dropping a block to see what happens

c. cooperating with peers to build a block tower

d. counting the total number of blocks in a tower


8. Right- or left handedness typically emerges by age (1 point)

a. one.

b. two.

c. three.

d. four.


9. __________ are typically associated with the reflexive phrase of motor development. (1 point)

a. Infants

b. Toddlers

c. Preschool-age children

d. Primary-age children


10. One-year-old Sam is able to stand and speak he is in the __________ phrase of motor development. (1 point)

a. reflective

b. rudimentary

c. fundamental

d. specialized

Answers

Answer:

I got a HORRIBLE SCORE. So people can know the correct answer....

Explanation:

1. C - Establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children.

2. A - 2- to 2½-

3. B - Physical Care

4. B - "No Eat"

5. D - Recording developmental milestones is an effective assessment method for infants and toddlers.

6. B - 12 and 18

7. B - repeatedly dropping a block to see what happens

8. C - three

9. A - Infants

10. B - rudimentary

Final answer:

In order to help infants and toddlers resolve the trust vs. mistrust crisis, the most effective Child Care Center policy would be to establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children. Solitary play is characteristic of 2½- to 3½-year-old children. Teaching infants and toddlers requires more specialized training than teaching preschoolers and school-aged children.

Explanation:

1. Establish continuity of care by assigning teachers to children.



This policy would be most effective in helping infants and toddlers resolve the trust vs. mistrust crisis. By having the same teachers consistently care for the children, they can develop a sense of trust and familiarity, which is important for their emotional well-being.

2. 2½- to 3½-year-old children



Solitary play is characteristic of children in this age range. They prefer to play alone and may engage in activities like exploring objects, building with blocks, or drawing without actively seeking interaction with others.

3. specialized training



Teaching infants and toddlers requires more specialized training than teaching preschoolers and school-aged children. Because early childhood development is critical, educators need to understand the unique needs and development of infants and toddlers to provide appropriate care and support.

4. 'No eat.'



This is an example of telegraphic speech. Telegraphic speech refers to the use of short, simple phrases or sentences that omit nonessential words. In this example, the words 'no' and 'eat' convey the message without including additional words like 'I' or 'want.'

5. Recording developmental milestones is an effective assessment method for infants and toddlers.



Assessment in teaching infants and toddlers can be done by recording their developmental milestones. These milestones include physical, cognitive, and social-emotional achievements, such as sitting up, babbling, and imitating gestures. Regularly monitoring and documenting these milestones can provide valuable information about a child's progress and help identify any areas that may need additional support.

6. 12 and 18



Children typically speak their first words between 12 and 18 months of age. This is an important milestone in language development and signifies the beginning of expressive language skills.

7. repeatedly dropping a block to see what happens



This activity is typical of the cognitive development levels of infants and toddlers. During this stage, they are curious about cause and effect, so repeating actions like dropping a block allows them to observe and learn about the consequences of their actions.

8. Two



Right- or left-handedness typically emerges by age two. At this age, children begin to show a preference for using one hand over the other when engaging in fine motor activities like drawing or eating.

9. Infants



Infants are typically associated with the reflexive phase of motor development. During this phase, their motor movements are automatic and reflexive, such as grasping objects or sucking on a bottle.

10. fundamental



One-year-old Sam, who is able to stand and speak, is in the fundamental phase of motor development. This phase marks the development of foundational motor skills like sitting, standing, and walking.

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List some of the most common problems for which people go to a doctor when seeking medical advice and an examination

Answers

Answer:

colds/Viruses

the flu

allergies

gas buildup

major heartburn

addiction

How much exercise should teens do daily

Answers

Answer:

At least 60 mins

Explanation:

Doctors recommend that teens age 13 to 18 get at least one hour of moderate to vigorous physical activity most days of the week. The minimum amount should be 30 minutes three times a week. Not all teens meet the ideal amount, but if your teen can get 30 to 60 minutes a day three or four days a week

What best describes an act of self-management? taking positive risks that benefit one’s overall health monitoring negative behavior through the use of strong social networks practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk practicing abstinence of alcohol, drugs, and tobacco

Answers

Answer:

Reducing negative influences and risk, practicing abstinence of alcohol, drugs, and tobacco

Practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk. Therefore option C is correct.

Self-management involves proactively taking charge of one's well-being and making informed choices to maintain and enhance their health.

Practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk, best encapsulates this concept. This approach encompasses actions like engaging in regular exercise, maintaining a balanced diet, managing stress, and avoiding harmful habits.

It involves conscious decisions to promote physical, emotional, and mental health while minimizing risks that could compromise well-being.

This proactive stance empowers individuals to lead healthier lives, displaying a combination of awareness, responsibility, and action towards their own health and wellness.

Therefore option C is correct.

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What about their job sounds appealing to you and what would you enjoy about this job?

Answers

Answer:

Hi, please give us the background of this question so we know what job you're referring to.

Explanation:

What is the name of the division of U.S. Public Health Services which is in charge of
investigation and control of various diseases?
a. NCCLS
b. OSHA
c. CDC
d. ASCP

Answers

cdc

stands for center of disease control

Final answer:

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is the division of the U.S. Public Health Services in charge of investigating and controlling various diseases.

Explanation:

The division of U.S. Public Health Services that is responsible for the investigation and control of various diseases is the CDC, or the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

This agency is a significant entity in monitoring public health in the United States. It conducts research, provides education, and establishes policies regarding health issues.

For example, during a disease outbreak, the CDC would take a lead role in identifying the disease, providing guidance to health professionals and the public, and coordinating efforts to control its spread.

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Other Questions
In the United States, nonprofits employ about one in hundred workers, accounting for less paid workers than the entire construction industry and less than the finance, insurance, and real-estate sectors combined.True / False. Part A - Processes that determine heredity and contribute to genetic variation Meiosis guarantees that in a sexual life cycle, offspring will inherit one complete set of chromosomes (and their associated genes and traits) from each parent. The transmission of traits from parents to offspring is called heredity. Another important aspect of meiosis and the sexual life cycle is the role these processes play in contributing to genetic variation. Although offspring often resemble their parents, they are genetically different from both of their parents and from one another. The degree of variation may be tremendous. The following processes are associated with meiosis and the sexual life cycle: DNA replication before meiosis crossing over chromosome alignment in metaphase I and separation in anaphase I chromosome alignment in metaphase II and separation in anaphase II fertilization Sort each process into the appropriate bin according to whether it contributes to heredity only, genetic variation only, or both. -dna replication(assume no errors), -crossing over, -metaphase 1 -> anaphase 1, -metaphase 2 -> anaphase2, -fertilization hereditary only: genetic variation only: both: Evaluate the expression below4 - 2 2x2 + 3Is my answer right he continuity of life is based on heritable information in the form of DNA. In a short essay (100150 words), explain how the passage of genes from parents to offspring, in the form of particular alleles, ensures perpetuation of parental traits in offspring and, at the same time, genetic variation among offspring. Use genetic terms in your explanation. Considering the research on preschoolers' ability to provide accurate testimony about past events, which piece of advice would be the MOST important for an interviewer to be told prior to interviewing a young child? a) Bring a doll to aid the child in answering your questions. b) Make sure you know the answers to the questions before asking the child. c) If you do not think the child has answered a question accurately, ask the question again. d) Ask questions that will help children to testify accurately. Describe whether is it ethical to use fear appeals to increase demand for emergency response devices among elderly consumers. Jasons salary and Karens salary were each p percent greater in 1998 than in 1995. What is the value of p ? (1) In 1995 Karens salary was $2,000 greater than Jasons. (2) In 1998 Karens salary was $2,440 greater than Jasons. difference between declaration of independence and common sense Based on the graph, what is the initial value of the linear relationship?(A) 2(B) 0(C) 2/3(D) 3 Who was the author of the famous storybook 'Alice's Adventures in Wonderland'? HELP needed!!Completely the steps to find the value of x in the angle? Descriptions of mauryan empire Solve the inequality Show your work-5/2(3x+4) The sum of three numbers is 95. The first number is 5 more than the third. The second number is 4 times the third. What are the numbers? Which President established the custom of not seeking a third term? What was one reason that Patriots were more willing to go to war with britian than the loyalist ? Mutations that improve an individuals ability tosurvive and reproduce are Know the difference between lipid soluble and water soluble hormones and how they elicit their effects on target cells. Write the equation of the sequence in the form y = mx + b:0.5, 2.5, 4.5, ... The sum of a number and its additive inverse is equal to ?