Wildcat Co. purchased, on open account, 4,000 pounds of direct materials at a total cost of $20,200. The standard cost of these materials, at $5.00 per pound, was $20,000. The company records any price variance for direct materials at point of purchase. During the current month 1,000 units of output were produced. Each unit of output, at standard, requires 2 pounds of direct materials, at $5.00 per pound. A total of 1,950 pounds of material was consumed in production during the month. The direct labor payroll for the period was $25,000 and has yet to be paid. The standard direct labor hours to produce each unit is 2 and the standard wage rate per hour is $11. The actual wage rate per hour was $10. The standard direct manufacturing cost for each unit is $32. During the month, 1,000 units were produced. During the month, 900 units were sold, at a price of $50 per unit. Record the journal entries for each of the events and transactions.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
The pictures attached shows the full explanation
Related Questions
Pension data for Fahy Transportation Inc. include the following: (in millions Discount rate, 7% Expected return on plan assets, 10% Actual return on plan assets, 11% Projected benefit obligation, January 1 Plan assets (fair value, January 1 Plan assets (fair value), December 31 Benefit payments to retirees, December 31 $630 600 650 69 Required Assuming cash contributions were made at the end of the year, what was the amount of those contributions? Cash contributions million
Answers
Answer:
$53
Explanation:
The merged data in the question have to be separated first before answering the question as follows:
Projected benefit obligation, January 1 = $630
Plan assets (fair value), January 1 = $600
Plan assets (fair value) December 31 = $650
Benefit payments to retirees, December 31 = $69
Actual return = Plan assets (fair value), January 1 × 11% = $600 × 11% = $66
Cash contribution = Plan assets (fair value) December 31 - Plan assets (fair value), January 1 - Actual Return + Benefit payments to retirees, December 31
Therefore, we have:
Cash contribution = $650 - $600 - $66 + $69 = $53
Therefor, the amount of those contributions is $53.
Jake and Christina are married and file a joint return for 2019 with taxable income of $100,000 and tax preferences and adjustments of $30,000 for AMT purposes. Their regular tax liability is $13,717. What is the amount of their total tax liability? Group of answer choices $4,758 $13,717 $15,158 $18,475
Answers
Answer:
$13,717
Explanation:
The amount of AMTI is ($100,000+$30,000) $130,000.
AMT base
= $130,000 - $83,400
=$46,600.
TMT is $46,600 × .26 = $12,116.
Their tax liability which is $13,717 is greater of the TMT or regular tax which is $12,116.
Hence , the amount of their total tax liability in this case is $13,717
The net cash flows of Advantage Leasing for the next 3 years are $42,000, $49,000 and $64,000 respectively, after which the growth rate will be a constant 2% with a WACC of 8%. What is the present value of the terminal value
Answers
Answer:
The present value of terminal value is $ 863,689.48
Explanation:
Terminal value=Cash flows at third year*(1+g)/WACC-g
cash flows at the third year is $64,000
g is the growth rate of net cash flows which is 2% in perpetuity
WACC is 8%
Terminal value=$64,000*(1+2%)/(8%-2%)
=$64000*1.02/0.06
=$ 1,088,000.00
The present value of terminal=terminal value*discount factor in year 3
discount factor in year=1/(1+8%)^3=0.793832241
Present value of terminal cash flow=1,088,000.00 *0.79383224
=$ 863,689.48
Answer:
$863,689.48
Explanation:
Terminal value means the value of an asset at future date.. The terminal value is the last value after the third year.. The formula goes thus
Terminal Value=( Last cash flow X 1 + Growth rate) / (Required return - growth return)
TV= [640000 X (1+2%) ] / [8% - 2 %]
TV= 64000 X 1.02 / 0.08-0.02
TV=65280 / 0.06
TV=$1,088,000
Terminal value is $1,088,000
To get the present value of Terminal value
Pv= Terminal value (1+i)^n
Pv= 1,088,000(1+0.08)^3
Pv= 1,088,000(1.08)^3
Pv=1,088,000(1.259712)
Pv=863,689.48
Therefore, the present value of the terminal value is $863,689.48
Oriole Company had these transactions during the current period. June 12 Issued 80,500 shares of $1 par value common stock for cash of $301,875. July 11 Issued 4,050 shares of $100 par value preferred stock for cash at $106 per share. Nov. 28 Purchased 1,350 shares of treasury stock for $8,550.
Answers
Answer:
June 12
Dr Cash $301,875
Cr Common Stock $80,500
Cr Paid-in Capital in Excess of Stated Value—Common Stock $221,375
July 11
Dr Cash $429,300
Cr Preferred Stock $405,000
Cr Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value—Preferred Stock $24,300
Nov. 28
Dr Treasury Stock 8,550
Cash 8,550
Explanation:
Oriole Company
Journal entries
June 12
Dr Cash $301,875
Cr Common Stock (80,500×$1) $80,500
Cr Paid-in Capital in Excess of Stated Value—Common Stock $221,375
July 11
Dr Cash (4,050×$106) $429,300
Cr Preferred Stock (4,050×100) $405,000
Cr Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value—Preferred Stock [4,050×($106-$100)$6] $24,300
Nov. 28
Dr Treasury Stock 8,550
Cr Cash 8,550
Today, Stock A is worth $20 and has 1,000 shares outstanding. Stock B costs $30 and has 500 shares outstanding. Stock C is priced at $50 per share and has 1,200 shares outstanding. If, tomorrow, Stock A is priced at $22, Stock B at $35, and Stock C is worth $48, what would the value-weighted index amount equal? (The index has a base period value of 100.)
Answers
Answer:
$102.21
Explanation:
The computation of value-weighted index is shown below:-
Today value
Stock A = $20 × 1000
= $20,000
Stock B = $30 × 500
= $15,000
Stock C = $50 × 1200
= $60,000
Total market value = $60,000 + $15,000 + $20,000
= $95,000
Tomorrow
Stock A = $22 × 1,000
= $22,000
Stock B = $35 × 500
= $17,500
Stock C = $48 × 1,200
= $57,600
Total market value = $57600 + $17,500 + $22,000
= $97,100
Value weighted return = Tomorrow Total market value ÷ Today Total market value × 100
= $97100 ÷ $95000 × 100
= $102.21
Final answer:
Understanding the calculation of a value-weighted index for a group of stocks with different prices and shares.
Explanation:
The value-weighted index calculates the performance of a group of stocks by considering the market capitalization of each stock.
To find the value-weighted index amount, we first calculate the market value of each stock before and after the price change:
Stock A: (1000 shares x $20) + (1000 shares x $22) = $40,000 + $44,000 = $84,000Stock B: (500 shares x $30) + (500 shares x $35) = $15,000 + $17,500 = $32,500Stock C: (1200 shares x $50) + (1200 shares x $48) = $60,000 + $57,600 = $117,600Then, calculate the index for each day using the base period value of 100:
Base period value: 100Day 1 value: $84,000 + $32,500 + $117,600 = $234,100Day 2 value: $84,000 + $32,500 + $117,600 = $234,100Therefore, the value-weighted index amount for both days would be 234.1.
(a) Compare the EUAC for the following plans using a MARR of 8%, and an analysis period of 50 years..
(b)What assumptions were made that should be considered before deciding between Plans A and B?
Data Plan A Plan B Equipment First Cost $50,000 $75,000 Annual Operation & Maintenance Cost $3,000 $2,500 Salvage Value $10,000 $0 Service Life, Years) 25 50
Answers
Answer:
The EUAC of A & B respectively are:
$4,497.10 and $6,335.07 (decision should be to go with Plan A as it costs less on an annualized assessment
B.
We considered the purchase costs against the time value of the costs and interest rate.
We also considered the operational costs and benefits of salvage costs
Explanation:
Equivalent uniform annual cost (EUAC)
This is an approach adopted when faced with an option of outright investment in an item or rentals or lease of similar or same item over a period of time.
It helps in converting the costs of the acquisition into equivalent uniform annual costs which can then be compared to the rentals uniform cost to help with easy decision making
Step 1.
You will need a rate (possible a rate of opportunity cost)
Step 2
Add 1 to the interest rate
Step 3
Raise the answer to the power of n (n is the useful life of the purchase)
....let's call d result (a)
Step 4.
Take (a) - 1
.....let's call this (b)
Step 5.
(a) divided by (b)
Let's call the result (c)
Step 6.
(C) multiply by the interest rate in step 1.
Let's call this (d)
Step 7.
(d) multiply by the purchase price of the item
The result you get is the EUAC....let's call it (e)
Where the item has a salvage value after its useful life, this counts as an inflow and benefit to the purchaser. This is how we factor that in:
Step 8.
Multiply the salvage value by our (b) above.
Let's call that (f)
Step 9
Multiply (f) by the interest rate in step 1
This is the Uniform salvage benefits
Let's call it (g)
Step 12.
Now deduct (g) from (e), this becomes the adjusted EUAC which can be compared to the periodic rental cost to help with decision making.
You may please refer to the attached for a detailed presentation of the answer.
g A Disney Corporation Bond with a $1,000 par value has a 10% annual coupon that pays $50 every 6 months. There are eight years (16, 6 month periods) before maturity and Disney will pay $50 each of those 16 periods plus it will pay back the $1,000 principal at maturity. The prevailing market rate for this bond has gone down from 10% to 8% annually (4% every six months). What is the value of the bond given this lower rate environment
Answers
Answer:
The value of the bond is $1,116.52.
Explanation:
The value of the bond is the sum of present value of cash flow earned from the bond, discounting at the market rate of 4% every six month, which are:
+ 16 semiannual dividend payments, $50 each whose present value is: (50/4%) / [ 1 - 1.04^(-16) ] = $582.61;
+ Principal repayment of $1,000 at the end of 8 years ( 16 periods - as one period is 6 months) whose present value is: 1,000/ 1.04^16 = $533.91.
=> Value of the bond = 582.61 + 533.91 = $1,116.52.
So, the answer is $1,116.52.
The value of the Disney Corporation bond is $1,135.69.
To find the value of the bond, we calculate the present value of all future cash flows, which includes 16 semi-annual coupon payments of $50 each and the $1,000 principal at maturity. The formula for the present value of an annuity (coupon payments) and the present value of a lump sum (principal) is used.
Present Value of Coupons:PV(Coupons) = $50 × [1 - (1 + 0.04)^-16] / 0.04 = $50 × [1 - (1.04)^-16] / 0.04 = $601.045Present Value of Principal:
PV(Principal) = $1,000 / (1.04)^16 = $534.64Total Present Value (Bond Value):
Total PV = PV(Coupons) + PV(Principal) = $601.045 + $534.64 = $1,135.69
The bond's value in the current lower rate environment is $1,135.69, reflecting the higher valuation due to the market interest rate being lower than the coupon rate.
Becker Office Service purchased a new computer system in Year 1 for $35,000. It is expected to have a five-year useful life and a $3,800 salvage value. The company expects to use the system more extensively in the early years of its life. Requireda. Calculate the depreciation expense for each of the five years, assuming the use of straight-line depreciation.
Answers
Answer:
Under straight line depreciation, the depreciation expense per year for every year will be $6240
Explanation:
The straight line depreciation charges a constant depreciation expense per year through out the useful life of the asset regardless of how it is used over the useful life. The formula for straight line depreciation expense per year is,
Depreciation expense per year = (Cost - Salvage Value) / estimated useful life
Depreciation expense per year = (35000 - 3800) / 5 = $6240
Free Corporation had the following transactions occur in the current year: 1. Cash sale of merchandise inventory. 2. Sale of delivery truck at book value. 3. Sale of Xanthe common stock for cash. 4. Issuance of a note payable to a bank for cash. 5. Sale of a security held as an available-for-sale investment. 6. Collection of loan receivable.
Answers
Answer:
The requirement was to determine of the listed items would feature under investing activities in cash flows Statement
The correct option is A,3
Explanation:
Sales of truck at book value is a cash inflow under the investing activities the same way purchase of truck would a cash outflow under investing activities.
The sale of security held a an available-for-sale investment is an investing activities inflow same way purchase of such investment would be an investing activities outflow.
Collection of loan receivable is also an investing activities inflow,the loan would have been treated as an outflow when it was made initially.
Firms that operate internationally are able to do all of the following EXCEPT: A. realize location economies. B. benefit from producing more standardized products and services. C. realize greater cost economies from experience effects. D. earn a greater return by leveraging any valuable skills developed in foreign operations and transferring them to other entities.
Answers
Answer:
The incorrect statement is letter "B": benefit from producing more standardized products and services.
Explanation:
Companies that broaden their operations are most likely in need to adapt their products or services to local markets. All consumers around the world do not have the same preferences and expectations because of different factors mainly cultural. Therefore, the greater the presence of a firm in foreign countries, the more diverse their products will be according to each region of operations.
g The La Salle Bus Company has decided to purchase a new bus for $95,000 with a trade-in of their old bus. The old bus has a BV of $10,000 at the time of the trade-in. The new bus will be kept for 10 years before being sold. Its estimated SV at that time is expected to be $15,000. a. Determine which asset class of the bus. b. Determine annual Straight-Line Depreciation charge'
Answers
Answer:
The new bus is rolling stock asset
depreciation is $8,000
Explanation:
Rolling stock asset in the U.S is a conveyance vehicle such a buses,vans ,locomotives,ferryboats and so on.
annual depreciation =(cost-salvage value)/useful life
cost of the new bus is $95,000
salvage value is $15,000
useful life is 10 years
yearly depreciation charge =($95,000-$15,000)/10 years
=$8,000
Note that the $10,000 trade-in value is relevant when computing the cash payable to the car dealer,it is not deducted here since it forms part of asset cost.
The following market information was gathered for the corporation. The firm has 1,000 bonds outstanding, each selling for $1,100 with a required return of 8%. It has 5,000 shares of preferred stock outstanding selling for $40.00 per share and 50,000 shares of common stock outstanding selling for $18 per share. If the the preferred stock has a required return of 11%, and the common stock requires a 14% return, and the firm has a corporate tax rate of 30%, then calculate the firm's WACC adjusted for taxes.
Answers
Answer:
9.127%
Explanation:
For calculating the WACC we need to do following calculations which are shown below:
value of debt = 1,000 × $1,100 = $1,100,000
cost of debt = 8% × (1 - 0.3) = 4.8%
value of equity = 50,000 shares × $18 = $900,000
value of preferred stock = 5,000 × $40 = $200,000
Now
Market value of firm = $1,100,000 + $900,000 + $200,000 = $2,200,000
The formula is shown below:
= Weightage of debt × cost of debt + (Weightage of common stock) × (cost of common stock) + (Weightage of preferred stock) × (cost of preferred stock)
WACC = ($1,100,000 ÷ $2,200,000) × 4.8% + ($900,000 ÷ $2,200,000) × 14% + ($200,000 ÷ $2,200,000) × 11%
= 9.127%
Monczka-Trent Shipping is the logistics vendor for Handfield Manufacturing Co. in Ohio. Handfield has daily shipments of a power-steering pump from its Ohio plant to an auto assembly line in Alabama. The value of the standard shipment is $271 comma 590. Monczka-Trent has two options: (1) its standard 2-day shipment or (2) a subcontractor who will team drive overnight with an effective delivery of 1 day. The extra driver costs $180. Hadfield's holding cost is 35% annually for this kind of inventory. a) ▼ is more economical, with a daily cost of $ nothing. (Enter your response as a whole number.)
Answers
Answer:
$260 per day
Explanation:
Handfield Manufacturing Co.
Holding cost = 35% annually = 0.35
Standard Cost = $271,590
Number of Days in a Year = 365 days
Hence;
Daily Holding Cost = (Standard Cost x Holding Cost) / Number of Days in a Year
Daily Holding Cost = ($271,590 x 0.35) / 365
Daily Holding Cost = $260 per day
Extra Driver Cost = $180
Hence the benefit of subcontractor who will team with an effective delivery of 1 day can be calculated as follows;
Daily Holding Cost - Extra Driver Cost
= $260 - $180
= $80
Therefore, the use of subcontracting the team who will drive overnight is more economical, with a daily cost of $260 per day.
The question is about evaluating the cost and efficiency of different shipping options for a company in the field of business.
Explanation:The subject of this question is business, specifically logistics and supply chain management. The question involves evaluating the cost and efficiency of different shipping options for a company. The company has two options: a standard 2-day shipment or a subcontractor who will team drive overnight with a delivery time of 1 day.
To determine which option is more economical, we need to calculate the daily cost of each option. The holding cost for inventory is given as 35% annually, and the value of the standard shipment is $271,590. By calculating the daily holding cost and comparing it to the cost of the extra driver for the subcontractor option, we can determine which option is more economical.
The answer to part (a) of the question is that the subcontractor option is more economical with a daily cost of $180.
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Kingbird Construction Company changed from the completed-contract to the percentage-of-completion method of accounting for long-term construction contracts during 2021. For tax purposes, the company employs the completed-contract method and will continue this approach in the future. (Hint: Adjust all tax consequences through the Deferred Tax Liability account.) The appropriate information related to this change is as follows.
Pretax Income from:
Percentage-of-Completion Completed-Contract Difference
2020 $752,200 $586,700 $165,500
2021 683,500 444,700 238,800
(a) Assuming that the tax rate is 30%, what is the amount of net income that would be reported in 2021?
(b) What entry(ies) are necessary to adjust the accounting records for the change in accounting principle?
Answers
Answer:
a) 2021 year income: 526,540
b) journal entries
income tax expense 225.660 debit
income tax deferred liability (*1) 49.650 debit
income tax payable 176.010 credit
Explanation:
Year Accounting Tax purpose Difference
2020 752200 586700 165500
2021 683500 444700 238800
2021
752,200 x 30% = 225,660
after tax income: 526.540
2022
683,500 x 30% = 205,050
after tax income: 478.450
We recognize the income tax expense n the accounting method of revenue/expense recognizition
while, the payable will use the goverment purposes.
Then, the differnce wi considered either income tax deferred.
*1 it is a liability as the company is paying lower taxes to day to pay more than before.
When machine-hours are used as an overhead cost-allocation base, the MOST likely cause of a favorablevariable overhead spending variance is: A. the production scheduler efficiently scheduled jobs B. excessive machine breakdowns C. strengthened demand for the product D. a decline in the cost of energy
Answers
Answer:
D. a decline in the cost of energy
Explanation:
As per definition, A variable overhead spending variance is favorable that means the the actual rate per hour is less in this case as machine hours is the allocation base so any decline in cost of energy.
The S&P 500 Index is one of the most commonly used benchmark indices for the US equity markets. Consisting of 500 companies, it is a market value weighted index. This means that each company's performance is reflected in the index, weighted by the ratio of the company's value to the total value of all the companies.
Description Terms
This type of risk relates to changes in the interest rate Pick one : systematic risk
This can be used to reduce the stand-alone risk of an investment by combining it with other investments in a portfolio Diversification or correlation coefficient
This type of risk is inherent in a firm's operations systematic risk or unsystematic risk
A listing of each possible outcome and the probability of each outcome occurring Probability distribution or risk premium
You invest 100,000 in only one stock. What kind of risk will you primarily be exposed to
A. stand-alone risk
B. Portfolio risk
Generally, investors would prefer to invest in assets that have:
A. A low level of risk and high expected returns
B. A high level of risk and low expected returns
Answers
Answer: Please refer to Explanation
Explanation:
Your question is quite confusing as it has elements of other questions. However I shall try my best.
This type of risk relates to changes in the interest rate. SYSTEMATIC RISK.
This type of risk is inherent in a firm’s operations. UNSYSTEMATIC RISK.
A listing of each possible outcome and the probability of each outcome occurring. PROBABILITY DISTRIBUTION
This can be used to reduce the stand-alone risk of an investment by combining it with other investments in a portfolio. DIVERSIFICATION
You invest 100,000 in only one stock. What kind of risk will you primarily be exposed to?
- STANDALONE RISK
This is involving yourself with only one type of financial instruments. It can lead to massive losses if the value of the instrument goes down.
Generally, investors would prefer to invest in assets that have:
- A. A low level of risk and high expected returns.
Human beings are rationale beings that will always seek to maximise their utility. They do this under certain risk appetites but generally, people prefer that they get high returns for low risk. Essentially, people want money but they don't want to risk losing it to get it.
If you need any clarification do comment.
Burger Prince buys top-grade ground beef for $1.00 per pound. A large sign over the entrance guarantees that the meat is fresh daily. Any leftover meat is sold to the local high school cafeteria for 80 cents per pound. Four hamburgers can be prepared from each pound of meat. Burgers sell for 60 cents each. Labor, overhead, meat, buns, and condiments cost 50 cents per burger. Demand is normally distributed with a mean of 301 pounds per day and a standard deviation of 37 pounds per day. What daily order quantity is optimal? (Hint: Shortage cost must be in dollars per pound.)
Answers
Answer:
The optimal order quantity is 316 pounds
Explanation:
In order to calculate What daily order quantity is optimal, we have to calculate first The cost of underestimating the demand Cu and cost of overestimating demand Co
Cu = ($0.60 - $0.50)*4 = $0.40
Co = $1 - $0.80 = $0.20
Next we have to calculate the Service Level = Cu / (Cu + Co)
= 0.40 / (0.40 + 0.20)
= 0.40/0.60
= 0.6667
So, Z Value at above service level = 0.430727
Therefore, in order to calculate the Optimal Order quantity, we would have to use the following formula
Optimal Order quantity= Mean + Z Value × Std Deviation
= 301 + 37 * 0.430727
= 301 + 15.36899
= 316 pounds
Suppose we calculate the percent change in real GDP from year 1 to year 2 using the prices from year 1, and we get 15 percent. When we calculate the percent change in real GDP from year 1 to year 2 using the prices from year 2, we obtain 12 percent. According to the chain weighting method, the growth of real GDP from year 1 to year 2 is roughly: A. 13.5 percent B. 12.75 percent C. 12.5 percent D. 1.5 percent
Answers
Answer:
a) 13.5%
Explanation:
A chain weighted inflation method is a method that measures or compares both the change in price and pattern of spending . In this case the chain weighted method will be used to measure price change and real GDP in both year 1 and year 2.
Given:
Number of years, n= 2
Using prices from year 1, % change in real GDP = 15%.
Using prices from year 2, % change in real GDP = 12%.
According to the chain weighted method, the growth of real GDP from year 1 to year 2 will be:
(15%/2) + (12%/2)
= 7.5% + 6%
= 13.5%
The growth of real GDP from year1 to year2 is 13.5%
Cost of equity: SML. Stan is expanding his business and will sell common stock for the needed funds. If the current risk-free rate is 4.0% and the expected market return is 12.0%, what is the cost of equity for Stan if the beta of the stock is a. 0.75? b. 0.90? c. 1.05? d. 1.20? a. What is the cost of equity for Stan if the beta of the stock is 0.75? nothing% (Round to two decimal places.)
Answers
Answer:
a.
The cost of equity is 10% if beta is 0.75
b.
The cost of equity is 11.20% if beta is 0.9
c.
The cost of equity is 12.40% if beta is 1.05
d.
The cost of equity is 13.60% if beta is 1.2
Explanation:
The SML approach is used to calculate the required rate or return (r) which is the minimum return that the investors require to invest in a company's stock. This is also referred to as the cost of equity. The formula for required rate of return under SML is,
r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)
Where,
rRF is the risk free raterM is the return on Marketa.
r = 0.04 + 0.75 * (0.12 - 0.04)
r = 0.10 or 10%
b.
r = 0.04 + 0.9 * (0.12 - 0.04)
r = 0.112 or 11.20%
c.
r = 0.04 + 1.05 * (0.12 - 0.04)
r = 0.124 or 12.40%
d.
r = 0.04 + 1.2 * (0.12 - 0.04)
r = 0.136 or 13.60%
A thirty-year annuity has end-of-month payments. The first year the payments are each $120. In subsequent years each payment increases by $5 over what it was the previous year. Find the present value of the annuity if i D 3%:
Answers
Answer:
NPV of the annuity = $209,782.38
Explanation:
Note: See the attached file to see how the Present Values (PV) and the Net Present Value (NPV) are calculated.
The following explanation should be read with the attached.
i = Monthly interest rate = 3%/12 = 0.25%, or 0.0025
DF = Discounting factor = (1 + i)^n = (1 + 0.0025, where n denotes relevant month
Number of months = 30 years * 12 months = 360 months
CF = Cash Flow = P + 5, where P denotes previous payment
The present value of the annuity has to be calculated year by year, taking into account the change in payment amount each year, and then all these present values have to be added up. The present value of each year's payments is calculated using the formula for the present value of an annuity.
Explanation:The problem has to do with the concept of the present value of an annuity in the field of finance. The present value of an annuity refers to the current worth of a stream of payments, given a specified rate of return or discount rate.
For a 30-year annuity with end-of-month payments that start at $120 and increase by $5 each subsequent year, we will have to calculate the present value of each year's payments and then sum them up. The present value of each year's payments will be calculated using the formula for the present value of an annuity:
PV = P * [1 - (1 + r)^-n]/r
where PV is the present value, P is the payment amount, r is the interest or discount rate (3% in this case), and n is the number of periods.
The interest rate will be divided by 12 to adjust for the monthly payments, and the number of periods will range from 12 to 360 (30 years x 12 payments per year). Given the complexity of this calculation, it may be most easily performed using a financial calculator or spreadsheet software.
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Haberdashery Company has a beginning Work-in-Process Inventory of 37,000 units (40% complete). During the period, 122,000 units were started and the ending Work-in-Process Inventory consisted of 32,000 units (80% complete). What are the equivalent units for conversion costs using weighted-average process costing
Answers
Answer:
152,600 units
Explanation:
Weighted average costing adds the value of beginning inventory in the period cost to calculate the average cost per unit.
According to this method the equivalent units formula is as follow
Equivalent Units = Unit completed and transferred to Finished goods + Units in Work in Process x Completion percentage
Units Completed in the period = 37,000 + 122,000 - 32,000 = 127,000
Equivalent Units = 127,000 + (32,000 x 80%) = 152,600 units
McGregor argues that ___ is self-fulfilling. If management expects little from its workers, little is what they’ll get.
Theory X
Theory Y
Theory A
Theory B
Answers
McGregor argues that theory Y is self fulfilling. If management expects little from its workers, little is what they will get.
Explanation:
The Theory Y states that most of the people wants to work and they are self sirected and motivated , creative in undergoing their individual goals. These people use their full potential to make decisions. This theory is mainly applied to small business owners, and independent professionals.
The managers are often self fulfilling. These employees take full responsibility for their work and to create a quality product. They perform the task and wait for the managers approval. The work is efficient and productive based on company standards.
.. Attitude formation is based on cognitive and affective factors * true or false
Answers
The fixed overhead volume variance is a measure of a. the cost of unused activity capacity acquired. b. the effect of the actual output differing from the output used to calculate the predetermined fixed overhead rate. c. both the effect of the actual output differing from the output used to calculate the predetermined fixed overhead rate and the cost of unused activity capacity. d. both the cost of overspending on fixed overhead items and the effect of the actual output differing from the output used to calculate predetermined fixed overhead rate. e. the cost of overspending on fixed overhead items.
Answers
Answer:
d. both the cost of overspending on fixed overhead items and the effect of the actual output differing from the output used to calculate predetermined fixed overhead rate.
Explanation:
Fixed overhead volume variance is a measure of difference between actual fixed overheads applied based to production volume and the budgeted fixed overhead based on production volume. The variance can be favorable or unfavorable. The unfavorable variance indicates that the fixed overheads actually applied based on production volume are less than budgeted fixed overhead cost based on production volume.
Final answer:
The fixed overhead volume variance is primarily a measure of the effect of actual output differing from the output anticipated during the calculation of the predetermined fixed overhead rate. It helps in understanding the utilization of capacity and the potential inefficiencies in spreading fixed costs over the actual production volume.
Explanation:
The fixed overhead volume variance is a measure of b. the effect of the actual output differing from the output used to calculate the predetermined fixed overhead rate. This variance helps businesses assess whether they are utilizing their capacity efficiently. It represents the difference between the budgeted and the actual fixed costs incurred due to a difference in actual production volume compared to the expected production volume. When production volumes are lower than expected, the average fixed cost per unit increases, because the total fixed costs are spread over fewer units, which is often referred to as spreading the overhead.
Fixed costs, such as rent or management salaries, do not change with the level of production in the short term. However, in the long term, all costs become variable. The fixed overhead volume variance is crucial in understanding how these fixed costs affect the overall cost structure of a company and its profitability. It is important to consider opportunity costs as well, which represents the cost of a foregone alternative that might have been chosen.
Dermody Snow Removal's cost formula for its vehicle operating cost is $2,930 per month plus $323 per snow-day. For the month of December, the company planned for activity of 17 snow-days, but the actual level of activity was 16 snow-days. The actual vehicle operating cost for the month was $8,700. The spending variance for vehicle operating cost in December would be closest to: rev: 11_08_2017_QC_CS-108685, 11_29_2017_QC_CS-110702 Multiple Choice $279 U $279 F $602 U
Answers
Answer:
602 U
Explanation:
Dermody Snow Removal's
Vehicle operating cost is $2,930 per month plus $323 per snow-day
Actual level of activity was 16 snow-days
Spending variance for vehicle operating cost = Flexible budget-actual
Hence;
= (323*16+2930)-8,700
=(5,168+2,930)-8,700
=8,098-8,700
=602 U
Therefore the spending variance for vehicle operating cost in December would be closest to 602 U
What is Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF) primarily used for?
Estimating cash flow available to the firm's finance org.
Estimating cash flow available to shareholders only.
Estimating cash flow available to invest in firm-specific projects.
Estimating cash flow available to creditors and shareholders.
Answers
Answer: Estimating cash flow available to creditors and shareholders.
Explanation: Free cash flow to the firm (FCFF) is the cash available to shareholders and bondholders (creditors to the bond issuer) after depreciation expenses, taxes, working capital, and investments are accounted for and paid. It is a measurement of a company's profitability after all expenses and reinvestments and thus is useful in comparing and analyzing a company's financial health. Positive free cash flow to firm value indicates that the company has cash remaining after expenses while a negative value indicates that the firm has not generated enough revenue to cover its costs and investment activities.
GG Products, Inc., prepares tips and stems from a joint process using asparagus. It produced 215,000 units of tips having a sales value at the split-off point of $75,600. It produced 215,000 units of stems having a sales value at split-off of $32,400. Using the net realizable value method, the portion of the total joint product costs allocated to tips was $45,500. Required: Compute the total joint product costs before allocation. (Do not round intermediate calculations.)
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is $65,000.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:
Total joint product costs of Tip = $45,500
Sales value of tip at split-off = $75,600
NRV of total production = $75,600 +$32,400 = $108,000
So, we can calculate the total joint cost by using following data:
Total joint cost = $45,500 × ($108,000 ÷ $75,600)
= $45,500 × 1.43
= $65,000
Black Horse Transportation’s sales budget for the first quarter follows:
January $125,000
February 300,000
March 290,000
All sales are on account (credit) with 50% collected in the month of sale, 30% collected in the following month after sale, and 20% collected in the second month after sale. There are no uncollectable accounts.
The March cash receipts are:
A. $102,500
B. $260,000
C. $250,500
D. $172,500
Answers
Answer:
$260,000
Explanation:
The computation of the march cash receipts is shown below:
= Month credit sales × month collection percentage + February credit sales × following month collection percentage + January credit sales × month of sale collection percentage
= $290,000 ×50% + $300,000 × 30% + $125,000 × 20%
= $145,000 + $90,000 + $25,000
= $260,000
We simply applied the above formula
Final answer:
The March cash receipts for Black Horse Transportation are calculated by adding 50% of March sales, 30% of February sales, and 20% of January sales, resulting in a total of $260,000. Hence, the correct answer is Option B: $260,000.
Explanation:
The student's question is about calculating the March cash receipts for Black Horse Transportation based on the company's sales budget for the first quarter and their collections schedule. To determine this, we need to calculate the amount of cash collected from sales made in January, February, and March, following the given percentages.
For March cash receipts, we have:
50% of March sales = 0.50 * $290,000 = $145,000
30% of February sales = 0.30 * $300,000 = $90,000
20% of January sales = 0.20 * $125,000 = $25,000
Adding these up, we get a total of $145,000 (March) + $90,000 (February) + $25,000 (January) = $260,000 for March cash receipts. Therefore, the answer to the student's question is Option B: $260,000.
In a general partnership: no partner can be held legally responsible for decisions since the partnership itself is a legal entity. each partner is held responsible for an agreement/decision made by any one of the partners. partners can be held responsible only for decisions they make personally. no decision is binding unless all partners agree to it in writing.
Answers
Answer:
Each partner is held responsible for an agreement/decision made by any one of the partner.
Explanation:
Partnership can be defined as a business agreement between two or more individuals. This individuals share ownership of the business and as such are responsible for managing the activities of the company. The profit gotten from the company are shared among the business partners.
General partnership is a form of partnership in which all the partners involved contribute significantly to the daily activities of the organization.
General partnership is very easy to establish and it does not require any form of taxes on profits generated from the business.
Auditing standards don't specifically discuss the audit procedures that should be applied to a client's pension-related financial statement amounts. Identify five audit procedures that would be relevant to those items. For each audit procedure that you list, identify the related audit objective.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
(a). Audit Procedure (b) . Audit Objective
1.a Take note of trading/order paperwork with the pension (b). Existence of investment/accounts.
2a. Movement of funds within accounts. (b. Examine plan document for investment objectives
3a.make sure that investments agree with plan objectives and allowed risk level (b. Take note of current investment holdings
4a. Make sure that funds are held at updated market fair value(mark to market) (b. Take note of contracts, meeting minutes etc. Confirm that purchases/sales have been approved and falls into plan polices
5a. Extra examination of any significant plan holdings (b. Verify existence and appropriate value . This is important if the plan invest in non-public assets , example is assets are private, equity.
Auditing pension-related financial statement amounts involves a variety of procedures including reviewing actuarial assumptions, verifying plan assets, analyzing contributions and payments, examining regulatory compliance, and assessing disclosures to ensure accuracy, valuation, completeness, existence, compliance, and appropriate presentation and disclosure.
Audit standards may not specify procedures for every situation, including those involving pension-related financial statement amounts. However, auditors can apply various procedures tailored to addressing those items effectively. Below are five audit procedures relevant to pension-related amounts, along with their related audit objectives.
Review of Actuarial Assumptions and Calculations: Evaluate the appropriateness of assumptions used in pension calculations, such as discount rates, expected return on plan assets, and demographic factors. Objective: Accuracy and valuation.Verification of Plan Assets: Inspect the plan's investment to confirm existence and determine whether the valuation complies with relevant standards. Objective: Existence and valuation.Analysis of Plan Contributions and Payments: Examine transaction records for contributions to and payments from the pension plan to ensure they are correctly recorded and authorised. Objective: Completeness and occurrence.Examination of Regulatory Compliance: Assess compliance with laws and regulations governing pension plans. Objective: Compliance.Assessment of Disclosures: Review the financial statement disclosures related to the pension plan for completeness and accuracy. Objective: Presentation and disclosure.Each of these procedures addresses a different aspect of auditing pension-related amounts, ensuring a thorough assessment of the pension plan's financial presentation.