You are on the scene in the bad part of town for an unresponsive 18-year-old type 1 diabetic patient. his mother states that he is very noncompliant with his diabetes management and goes unresponsive often due to low blood sugar. after performing the primary assessment, you believe that this is the most likely cause of his unresponsiveness. however, after taking a capillary glucose reading you are surprised to see that the patient's sugar level is normal. how will you now determine the field impression?

Answers

Answer 1
The answer would be: Continue patient care by getting a complete SAMPLE history and perform a complete secondary assessment.

If the reading of glucose test is normal, then you can exclude hypoglycemia from the possible diagnosis. Because the patient is accompanied by his mother, you can ask a brief history to exclude other possible diagnosis and complete secondary assessment before further help comes. The information would be beneficial to the healthcare personnel that will comes for help.
Answer 2

Final answer:

In the case of an unresponsive type 1 diabetic patient with a normal blood sugar reading, one must consider differential diagnoses other than hypoglycemia. Tests like the insulin and glucagon tolerance tests help deduce the underlying cause of unresponsiveness. Monitoring blood glucose and maintaining strict dietary adherence are crucial in managing diabetes.

Explanation:

When an 18-year-old type 1 diabetic patient exhibits unresponsiveness and a capillary glucose reading reveals a normal sugar level, a differential diagnosis must be conducted to arrive at a correct field impression. This would include considering possibilities beyond hypoglycemia, such as hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis, or other medical conditions. Given the patient's history of noncompliance, it's crucial to consider if hormone resistance might be a factor, as is common in type 2 diabetes; however, type 1 diabetics are not usually hormone-resistant. It may also be necessary to conduct further tests, such as an insulin tolerance test or glucagon tolerance test, to understand the patient's specific diabetes complications, like defective insulin receptors or excessive insulin antagonists indicated by varying responses to hormone injections.


Related Questions

Active transport ________. uses atp as an energy source can involve the transport of ions can move solutes against their concentration gradient all of the answer options

Answers

All of the above.
Active transport
-requires energy in the form of ATP
-can transport ions (charged molecules)
-transports solutes against concentration gradient
-requires specific protein structures embedded in phopholipid bilayer

Active transport uses ATP as the source of energy, takes part in the transport of ions, and can move solutes against the concentration gradient.  

• A kind of cellular transport in which components like glucose, ions, and amino acids are mediated across a biological membrane towards the region, which already comprises ample of substances is known as active transport.  

• The mechanism of active transport used ATP as the chemical energy to move the substances against their concentration gradient.  

• The common regions where active transport takes place are the walls of small intestine and root hair cells.  

Thus, the correct answer is all the options.

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What is a difference between the oxidation of coal when it is burned and the oxidation of glucose during cellular respiration?

A) Cellular respiration is an endothermic reaction.
B) Energy is released only during the burning of fossil fuels
C) Complete oxidation takes place only during the burning of fossil fuels
D) Energy is produced and stored during cellular respiration.

Answers

energy is produced and stored during respiratory respiration 
D IS UR ANSWER

Ans. (D). Energy is produced and stored during cellular respiration.

Oxidation of glucose during cellular respiration is better than burning of coal in the presence of oxygen. It is because burning coal generates heat, which is not generally useful and cannot be captured by cells as energy source.

On the other hand, cellular respiration involves complete oxidation of glucose, which provides so much energy. This energy is stored by the cell for its cellular activities.

Thus, the correct answer is option (D).

BRAINLESET Exposure to UV rays can cause _____.

asthma

skin cancer

heart disease

lung cancer

Answers

i use gradpoint and originally i got that wrong and it showed me the right answer and it was skin cancer or B

Answer:

Skin cancer

Explanation:

Can anyone help me please

Answers

I think C or B hope it helped sorry if im wrong


Explain how the isotopes of an element differ. (1 point)
They each have a different number of electrons in their outermost energy level.
They each have a different number of protons in their nuclei.
They each have a different number of neutrons in their nuclei.
They each have a different charge.,

Answers

they will have a different number of neutrons in their nuclei
They each have a different number of neutrons in their nuclei.

Every atom consists of 3 basic particles, protons, neutrons, and electrons. The actual element is determined by the number of protons, and for a neutral atom, each proton has a corresponding electron. The neutrons which have no charge are in the nucleus and may have a different count for different isotopes of the same element. With that in mind, let's look at the options:

They each have a different number of electrons in their outermost energy level.
* This is constant for each element if the atom has a neutral charge. It can be changed electrically, but that doesn't affect what isotope it is, so this is a bad choice.

They each have a different number of protons in their nuclei.
* If the number or protons change, then you have a different element. So this is a bad choice.
They each have a different number of neutrons in their nuclei.
* This is the correct choice.

They each have a different charge.
* The electrical charge doesn't affect what the isotope is, so this is a bad choice.

During the period of the fetus, the most rapid prenatal changes take place. true or false

Answers

The answer is false. Prenatal development is the process in which an embryo and fetus develops during gestation. Perenatal development starts with fertilization the first stage in embryogenesis which continues in fetal development until birth. Physiological changes occur in pregnancy to nurture the developing fetus and prepare the mother for labor and delivery. some of theses changes influence normal biochemical values while others may mimic symptoms of medical disease. 

Yes, the statement is true; the most rapid prenatal changes occur during the fetal period, especially in the third trimester, when there is an increase in body size and organ maturation.

The statement is true; the most rapid prenatal changes take place during the fetal period, notably in the third trimester. Prenatal development is divided into three stages: the germinal period, the embryonic period, and the fetal period, with each period seeing different types of growth and development. However, it is during the fetal period, especially the third trimester, that there is a significant increase in body size, accumulation of body fat, and maturation of all the organs.

By the end of the 38th week of pregnancy, all of the fetus's organs are fully functioning and the fetus is ready for birth. Any birth prior to this is considered premature. Therefore, the period of the fetus, particularly the later stages, is critical for ensuring the fetus is prepared for a healthy arrival into the world.

Which antibiotic would you use to determine if the recombinant dna was taken in?

Answers

Antibiotic used include kenamycin, ampicillin and tetracycline. This is useful to determine if and which bacteria took up the plasmid as they were supposed to during the process of recombination. Host bacteria are normally killed by these antibiotics. If the recombinant plasmids were taken up by the bacteria, plasmid may have contained a DNA gene for resisting the effects of one or more antibiotics. Host bacteria are placed in a growth medium containing an antibiotic to which they have a resistant gene in their recombinant plasmid DNA survivor. If they havent taken the plasmid they die.

A concerned male athlete brings a clear, red urine specimen to the physician's office.
a. would you expect to see rbcs in the microscopic examination?

Answers

Yes, normally red urine indicates "hematuria," or blood in the urine. This is due to RBCs if blood leaking into the urine and can have multiple causes.
There is another condition called rhabdomyolysis, that is severe, but it normally produces an orange-colored urine, and it due to strenuous exercise and dehydration.

Final answer:

The presence of red blood cells (RBCs) in a clear, red urine specimen would be expected upon microscopic examination and suggests hematuria, which can indicate conditions such as urinary tract injury or kidney issues. Hematuria needs to be distinguished from hemoglobinuria, where only free hemoglobin is present without RBCs.

Explanation:

If a male athlete brings in a clear, red urine specimen to the physician's office, the expectation upon microscopic examination of the urine would be to potentially observe red blood cells (RBCs). The presence of RBCs in the urine, known as hematuria, can be indicative of various medical conditions such as nephritis, trauma to the urinary tract, tuberculosis of the kidney, or kidney stones. Conversely, hemoglobinuria, which is the presence of free hemoglobin in the urine without RBCs, may occur in conditions like malaria, kala-azar, or typhoid. The distinction between the two conditions is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment planning.

The presence of white blood cells (WBCs) in the urine, for instance, suggests an infection or inflammation in the urinary tract, as seen in conditions like urinary tract infections (UTIs) or nephritis.

Which hypothesis is most relevant for the students experiment ?

Answers

as the number of daylight hours increase plant reproduction increase because the light is reflecting on the plant and the plant is opening up
I think it’s the second one I’m not for sure

When faced with dangers close to both sides of your path of travel you should create:?

Answers

When faced with dangers close to both sides of your path of travel you should create more space to the side with the most serious consequences. There are several dangers and obstacles on the roadway and Tips to Avoid them which include; a deer in the headlights,unidentified flying objects on the roads, slow moving vehicles, speed bumps, pedestrian and pet such as dogs, cats may be common obstacles. It is always important to weigh the extent of dangers while faced with dangers on both sides of the paths.

When faced with dangers on both sides of your travel path, creating a margin of safety is important. This involves maintaining a central position between hazards while driving and paying attention to traffic patterns when walking as a pedestrian, to avoid accidents.

When faced with dangers close to both sides of your path of travel, it is essential to create a margin of safety. You should position yourself in such a way that you have a clear view of the threats and can respond to them effectively. This concept can be applied in various scenarios such as driving, walking in a crowded city, or while planning outdoor activities.

For example, in driving, creating a margin of safety can mean adjusting your lane position away from potential hazards. If hazards are present on both sides, maintain a central position to give yourself the maximum distance possible from each. In the case of planning a route on a map, you would aim to avoid roads with heavy traffic or extreme isolation to keep a safe journey.

When walking in a city, applying the principle of looking in the appropriate direction based on the traffic flow is critical. For example, in countries where driving is on the right side, you look left first, then right. But in countries where driving is on the left, such as the UK or Jamaica, you should look right first then left. This habit can be crucial for pedestrian safety.

Enzymes, such as the one shown in the picture, work by fitting onto the substrate molecule like a lock-and-key action. Which statement is true, with regard to the enzyme and the substrate? A) The enzyme weakens chemical bonds in the substrate and catalyzes a change into the product. The enzyme itself remains unchanged. B) The enzyme weakens chemical bonds in the substrate and catalyzes a change into the product. The enzyme is also consumed in the reaction. C) The substrate reacts with the enzyme in the active site to produce a product. The enzyme, though changed, does not become a part of the product. D) The substrate reacts with the enzyme in the active site to produce a product. Both the enzyme and the substrate combine and change into a product.

Answers

The correct option is A.

Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up the rate of biochemical reactions but they are not used up in the process. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy of the reaction. All chemical reactions have activation energy, this is the smallest amount of energy that the reacting species must possess before they can under a chemical reaction. When an enzyme lower this energy the reaction occurs faster but the enzyme remains unchanged.

The visceral motor division of the pns __________. the visceral motor division of the pns __________. regulates the contraction of smooth and cardiac muscle and regulates secretion by the body's many glands includes taste and smell regulates only the parasympathetic division of the ans regulates only the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

Answers

The visceral motor division of the PNS regulates the contraction of smooth and cardiac muscle and regulates secretion by the body's many glands. Visceral motor system deals with the involuntary contraction of smooth and cardiac muscle. This includes the sympathetic division (flight or flight) and parasympathetic division (rest and digest) which include the autonomic nervous system. 

Many trees and plants have green leaves in the summer that turn red, yellow and orange in the fall (autumn). Explain what happens and why it happens.

Answers

the leaves are green due to chlorophyll which is received through photosynthesis a process that relies on the sun. when there begins to be less daylight, the leaves lose chlorophyll and hence their color

Answer:

During the fall the day gets shorter hence less sunlight this results to leaves stopping their food making process. The chlorophyll breaks down, the green color disappears and the yellow to orange color becomes visible

Explanation:

One character in peas that mendel studied was yellow versus green seeds. a cross between a homozygous yellow line (yy) and a homozygous green line (yy) will result in f1 plants that are heterozygous (yy) for this trait and produce yellow seeds. when an f1 plant undergoes meiosis, what gamete types will it produce, and in what proportions

Answers

The proportions will be 1/2Y and  1/2y.
An F1 hybrid is the first filial generation of offspring of distinctly different parental types. F1 hybrids are used in genetics, and in selective breeding, where it may appear as F1 crossbreed. Meiosis is the type of cell division where a parent cell divides to yield four haploid daughter cells in the gametes. When the F1 plants undergoes meiosis since they are heterozygous (Yy) they will yield gametes with either Y or y allele. 

Which of these is a difference between a dna and an rna molecule?

Answers

no lose no hablo ingles alv 
sfvqwrvw3

The difference between a DNA and an RNA molecule is: A. DNA is double-stranded, whereas RNA is single-stranded. The other options mentioned are not accurate distinctions between DNA and RNA.

The key difference between DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid) lies in their structural characteristics. DNA is typically double-stranded, forming the famous double helix, while RNA is single-stranded. Both DNA and RNA molecule contains nitrogenous bases and phosphate groups, but their five-carbon sugars differ; DNA uses deoxyribose, whereas RNA employs ribose.

DNA is a polymer composed of nucleotides, while RNA is also a polymer composed of nucleotides. Lastly, in terms of base composition, DNA contains thymine (T), whereas RNA replaces thymine with uracil (U). These distinctions are vital as they underlie the functional diversity and roles of DNA and RNA in genetic information storage and protein synthesis. So option A is correct.

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Which of these is a difference between a DNA and an RNA molecule?

A. --DNA is double-stranded, whereas RNA is single-stranded.--

B. DNA contains nitrogenous bases, whereas RNA contains phosphate groups.

C. DNA contains five-carbon sugars, whereas RNA contains six-carbon sugars.

D. DNA is a polymer composed of nucleotides, whereas RNA is a polymer composed of nucleic acids.

E. DNA contains uracil, whereas RNA contains thymine.

Scientists have been concerned for several years about the bee population dying off. There are several theories about why their population is being reduced. One of these theories is that the pesticides being sprayed onto plants are killing them. Which is the best solution to this problem?

A) Continue to use harsh pesticides to grow food. Bees are not vital to the ecosystem.

B) Ask scientists to create a genetically modified bee that is unharmed by harsh pesticides.

C) Encourage farms that produce food to only use organic pesticides that do not have as harmful effect on the bees.

D) Completely stop the use of all pesticides regardless of the effect this has on our food supply, and monitor the bee population to see if they start to come back.

Answers

the anserto this would be c, becuase it the most realistic and will work the best without tons of money being spent.  also, farmers will be mor elikely to comply if they are encouraged not forced

Answer:

c

Explanation:

Encourage farms that produce food to only use organic pesticides that do not have as harmful effect on the bees. We need to safely manage pest control so as not to cause bigger problems.

The effect of human disturbance on animal populations is?
A. Density-dependent
B. Density-independent
C.unobservable
D. Stabilizing

Answers

Final answer:

Human disturbances can have density-dependent effects on animal populations because they can alter conditions like food availability and habitat space, which can more severely impact populations when they are at higher densities. Option A

Explanation:

The effect of human disturbance on animal populations can be categorized as either density-dependent or density-independent. These terms describe how factors affect populations depending on their density. Human disturbances, such as habitat destruction or pollution, can act in both density-dependent and independent ways.

Density-independent factors impact populations regardless of density. Examples include natural disasters or climate events, and they can affect animal populations uniformly. An example might be a pesticide that kills a certain percentage of a caterpillar population irrespective of how many caterpillars there are.

Density-dependent factors have varying impacts depending on the population density. High population densities might lead to depletion of resources like food, resulting in starvation or increased disease transmission, thereby reducing population size. In contrast, human disturbances such as overfishing or habitat fragmentation can have density-dependent effects because they more severely impact populations at higher densities where competition for diminished resources is greater. Therefore, the answer to the question is A. Density-dependent.

What is the definition of prophase

Answers

"Cell Biology. the first stage of mitosis or meiosis in eukaryotic cell division, during which the nuclear envelope breaks down and strands of chromatin form into chromosomes." -From www.dictionary.com

Hope this helps! .+:。(ノ・ω・)ノ゙

Final answer:

Prophase is the initial stage of mitosis where chromatin condenses into chromosomes, the nuclear envelope disintegrates, centrosomes move apart, and the mitotic spindle begins to form, allowing chromosomes to eventually align and separate.

Explanation:

Prophase is the first phase of mitosis, characterized by a series of events that prepare the cell for chromosome segregation. Early in prophase, the chromatin fibers become more tightly coiled and condense into discrete chromosomes. Each chromosome has already replicated and consists of two identical sister chromatids joined at the centromere. As prophase advances, the nucleolus fades and the nuclear envelope breaks down, allowing the spindle to interact with the chromosomes.

During prophase, centrosomes, having duplicated earlier in the cell cycle, move to opposite poles of the cell. The mitotic spindle fibers extend from these centrosomes, playing a crucial role in the subsequent alignment and separation of the chromosomes. The spindle apparatus begins to form, consisting of the centrosomes, the spindle microtubules, and the asters.

Hello, people of planet earth, I need help with a question for my friend Steve in science class, here on planet Neptune it is pretty hard can you help me, please ?

Describe conjugation between two paramecium.

put it in simplest form because Steve is a bit of an idiot.

Answers

The paramecium has two nuclei, a big and small one. The big one operates as the director of the cell's activities, rather like a little brain. The smaller one is used for reproduction. The paramecium splits in half (fission) just as the ameba does. First the smaller nucleus splits in half and each half goes to either end of the paramecium. Then the bigger nucleus splits and the whole paramecium splits. Occasionally two paramecium exchange material and form a new paramecium. This is called conjugation. 

Conjugation in Paramecia occurs in the following way: 

a). The formation of ciliary contacts. 
b). Local loss of cilia and formation of narrow contacts between anterioventral somatic cell membranes 
c). Formation of small cytoplasmic bridges (which allow for the exchange of molecular components only). 
d). Their enlargement enables the cells to exchange micronuclei. 

Bacteria exchange plasmid material and the Paramecia exchange micronuclei.

Good luck to Steve! How is it in Neptune? XD

Under normal conditions air moves from ______ pressure system to a ______ pressure system

Answers

Under normal conditions air moves from higher pressure system to a lower pressure system
Air moves to lower pressure. This concept can be observed in the lungs and heart. When you trying to inhale, the muscle in ribs or diaphragm will pull the rib cage and decrease its pressure up to -1mm Hg. This will cause the air from atmosphere enter the lungs. 
In expiration, the muscle will relax and the air pressure inside lungs will become +1 mm Hg, makes the air pushed out.

What happens when the supply of energy-rich molecules in a muscle is used up?

Answers

If there is no energy left for the muscle, then the muscle is tired and needs to rest. This is because there will be no more energy (in the form of ATP) to supply the excitation-contraction coupling mechanism (the mechanism for muscle contraction, which needs energy).

In the event of this situation, the person will not be able to move the muscle with depleted energy source at all.
The supply of energy-rich molecules in muscles are used up, then the muscles become tired, and they need to rest.

 Lactic acid is being produced from anaerobic respiration. If compared to cellular respiration, fermentation does not produce much energy.

Patients who have negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure may experience increased postoperative pain. this best illustrates the importance of

Answers

Hey! The answer is top-down processing. Hope this helps!

On January 1, year 1, Stopaz Co. issued 8%, five-year bonds with a face value of $200,000. The bonds pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31 of each year. The bonds were issued when the market interest rate was 4% and the bond proceeds were $235,931. Stopaz uses the effective interest method for amortizing bond premiums/discounts and maintains separate general ledger accounts for each. To prepare each entry: Double-click the shaded cells in the Account Name column and select from the list provided the appropriate account name. An account may be used once or not at all for each entry. Enter the corresponding debit or credit amount in the appropriate column. Round all amounts to the nearest dollar. All rows may not be required to complete each entry. Prepare the journal entry to record the issuance of the bonds on January 1, year 1: Account NameDebitCredit Prepare the journal entry to record the payment of interest on June 30, year 1: Account NameDebitCredit Calculate the am

Answers

hbbl/n
[op:Ovjbmbb"NOn. 

To prepare the journal entry to record the issuance of the bonds on January 1, year 1:

Cash $235,931

Bonds Payable $200,000

Premium on Bonds Payable $35,931

To prepare the journal entry to record the payment of interest on June 30, year 1:

Interest Expense $4,760

Cash $4,000

Premium on Bonds Payable $760

When Stopaz Co. issued the 8%, five-year bonds with a face value of $200,000 on January 1, year 1, the market interest rate was 4%, resulting in bond proceeds of $235,931. To record the issuance, the company would debit Cash for the amount received, which is $235,931. The Bonds Payable account is credited for the face value of the bonds, which is $200,000, and the Premium on Bonds Payable account is credited for the difference, representing the premium realized from the market interest rate being lower than the coupon rate. In this case, the premium is $35,931.

On June 30, year 1, when interest is paid semiannually, the journal entry would include debiting Interest Expense for the amount of interest accrued over the period. Since interest is paid semiannually, the annual interest is $16,000 (8% of $200,000), and for half a year, it would be $8,000. However, due to the premium on bonds, the company reduces the interest payment by the amortized premium. The difference between the stated interest and the reduced interest due to the premium is recorded in the Premium on Bonds Payable account, ensuring an accurate representation of the total cost of borrowing.

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Which compound contains a radical? NaOH NaCl CO 2 CO

Answers

CO 2 has a radical, hopefully helps

The compound that contains a radical is called NaOH.


Explanation:


Radical, also called Free Radical, in chemistry, a fragment that contains at trivial one unpaired electron. Most molecules include even numbers of electrons, and the covalent chemical bonds including the atoms commonly within a molecule normally consist of pairs of electrons jointly shared by the atoms combined by the bond

What is the difference between a chromatid and a chromosome?

a. chromatids consist of dna, whereas chromosomes consist of proteins.

b. chromosomes are always replicated, whereas chromatids are not.

c. a chromatid always consists of two linear dna molecules, whereas a chromosome always consists of just one linear dna molecule.

d. a chromatid is one half of a replicated chromosome, whereas a chromosome consists of dna wrapped around proteins in a highly organized manner?

Answers

A chromatid is one half of a replicated chromosome, whereas a chromosome consists of DNA wrapped around proteins in a highly organized manner.

Within the cell, dna is found in the nucleus. which of the other structures within the cell listed below normally contains dna as well

Answers

The mitochondria and chloroplasts (for plant cells)

According to hadley, the most important factor causing circulation patterns in the atmosphere was:

Answers

Temperature contrasts between the equator and pole

The end product of a biosynthetic pathway often acts to block the initial step in that pathway. this phenomenon is called:

Answers

the answer is 

D.) FEEDBACK INHIBITION.

Flat and layered clouds with horizontal development are classed as

Answers

Flat layered clouds with horizontal development are called STRATUS or STRATI-FORM clouds. These clouds have a layered or spread out aspect. They form when air is forced upwards by forced convection. Forced convection can occur as a result of surface convergence or movement of a frontal boundary. Examples of stratus clouds are cirro-stratus and alto-stratus clouds. 

Pulmonary edema is a condition caused by excess fluid in the lungs. this fluid collects in the alveoli. what parameter of the fick equation increases during pulmonary edema?

Answers

During pulmonary edema, the interstitial space increases resulting to a smaller diffusion.  The increased interstitial space makes oxygen not to have enough time to reach the red blood cell resulting to partially oxygenated blood. Using the Fick equation there will be an increase in the level of oxygen coming from the lungs.
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Which of the following waves travels the fastest? Light wave Matter wave Sound wave Water wave Which choice is the conjugate of the expression below when x -5?4 - x+5 A.4 + x - 5 B.4 - x - 5 C.4 - x + 5 D.4 + x + 5 At the primate habitat at the zoo, your friend comments that the orangutans seem to be monogamous, or mated for life. how do you know your friend is wrong? you take one look at these apes and assert that you friend is wrong when how to write notes on a youtube video? Lee wants to cut this piece of canvas into two rectangles that are 3x2 and 3x5. He wants the sum of the two small rectangles to be the same as the area of the large rectangle. Can he do this? explain 15 POINT QUESTION! Multiply and simplify. (4x2)(3x^22x+1) in which place would you most likely see an oso Which of the following is not an intensive physical property? Electrical conductivity Mass Density Freezing point Some solutions cannot dissolve any more solute. what word is used to describe a solution of this type?A. WeakB. SaturatedC. ConcentratedD. Unsaturated What will be the perimeter and the area of the rectangle below if it is enlarged using a scale factor of 5.5? A rectangle is shown. The length of the rectangle is labeled as 8 cm, and the width is labeled as 6 cm. Perimeter = 50 cm, area = 155.25 cm2 Perimeter = 50 cm, area = 1,452 cm2 Perimeter = 154 cm, area = 155.25 cm2 Perimeter = 154 cm, area = 1,452 cm2 What is the length of the altitude drawn to the hypotenuse? The figure is not drawn to scale. a) [tex] \sqrt{70} [/tex]b) 70c) [tex] \sqrt{19} [/tex]d) 19 In what 2 ways did technological innovations lead the age of exploration? - They helped sailors avoid difficult waters. - They allowed sailors to go on longer voyages - They helped navigators map the coastlines. - They gave sailors confidence that they would return more easily. - They helped sailors locate large amounts of gold in Africa. Rectangle ABCD is graphed in the coordinate plane. The following are the vertices of the rectangle: A(3, -2), B(6, -2), C(6, 5), and D(3, 5). What is the area of rectangle ABCD? Find the differential of the function. v = 2y cos(xy) The function f(t)=-5t^2+15t+50 models the approximate height in feet of an object t seconds after it is launched. how many seconds does it take for the object to hit the ground? 9. Biodiversity is valuable partly because it (1 point)gives us interesting things to look at.tells us about many other species.contributes to medicine and agriculture.provides humans with resistance to disease.10. Which of the following is NOT a threat to biodiversity? (1 point)pollutiondeforestationcrop rotationclimate change WILL GIVE MEDALWhen Gulliver first arrives in Brobdingnag and is hiding from the Brobdingnagians, each of the following thoughts goes through his mind except __________.sadness for his soon-to-be-fatherless childrenanticipation for upcoming adventuresreflection on his time with the Lilliputiansrealization of his stubbornness for taking a second voyage, Why does the cyclops live alone in a cave names of two ceramic artists inspired by sea life? Which of the following stands out in Native American culture compared to the cultures of early river valley civilizations? A. craftsmanshipB. weaponryC. polytheismD. oral tradition