In pregnancy, emotional lability is common and reflects the intense hormonal changes occurring in the body. These mood swings, which can alternate from tears and anger to joy and cheerfulness, are often unpredictable.
Explanation:The nurse should interpret the client's statement as an indication of emotional lability, which is a common phenomenon in pregnancy. This is characterized by rapid, often unpredictable mood swings. These sudden shifts in mood, from happiness to tears, can be attributed to the intense hormonal changes that occur during pregnancy. Thus, such emotional experiences, where tears and anger alternate with feelings of joy or cheerfulness for little or no reason, are quite normal and to be expected.
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The nurse should interpret the client's rapid changes in emotions as an indication of emotional lability, a typical manifestation during pregnancy due to profound hormonal shifts.
Explanation:Based on the client's statement that she experiences rapid changes in emotions, the nurse should interpret this as an indication of emotional lability. Emotional lability is common during pregnancy due to the intense hormonal changes that occur. These hormonal changes can trigger unpredictable mood swings, causing a woman to alternate rapidly amongst different emotions such as tears, anger, happiness, or cheerfulness, often for little to no apparent reason. Therefore, the client's changing emotional states are a typical adaptive process to pregnancy.
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"A 13-year-old adolescent is seen in the office and appears very anxious. For the past 2 weeks, the adolsecent has had some muscle twitching; upon examination, the client is found to have a positive Chvostek's sign. Which would be an appropriate explanation of Chvostek's sign?"
•Pain can be caused by touching the muscles.Correct response:
•Chvostek's sign is a facial muscle spasm demonstrated by tapping the facial nerve.
Answer:
the second option
Explanation:
Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of neuromuscular irritability often associated with low blood calcium levels. It can induce a facial muscle spasm when the facial nerve is tapped, and can suggest latent muscle twitching.
Explanation:Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign that is indicative of neuromuscular irritability, and is specifically associated with conditions causing hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels in the blood. This sign is provoked by tapping on the facial nerve, usually where it crosses the zygomatic arch, just in front of the ear. If it's positive, it will elicit a contraction or spasm of the facial muscles. The presence of Chvostek's sign often suggests a latent tetany (muscle twitching), which could explain the muscle twitching that the 13-year-old adolescent has been experiencing for the last 2 weeks.
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Tom had been feeling very tired and went to his family practitioner with this concern. The family practitioner asked Tom about his feelings. Tom reported having trouble concentrating and not feeling as hungry as usual. Further questioning revealed Tom was disappointed about a failed relationship and employment. The family practitioner referred Tom to a psychiatrist for care for possible depression. A family practitioner is _____.
One explanation for why the healthcare system in the United States resists most attempts at change is __________. This explains how institutions that develop a particular way of working find it very difficult to reverse course.
Answer:
One explanation for why the healthcare system in the United States resists most attempts at change is path dependance. This explains how institutions that develop a particular way of working find it very difficult to reverse course.
Explanation:
Path dependence states that every decision made in the past or any event experienced affects the present and the decisions that an institution has to take. That is the reason why institutions with a particular way of working find it difficult to reverse the course they have developed because they are restricted by the choices that were made in the past.
Reductions in stress, increases in focus and concentration, enhanced academic performance, and increases in vitality have all been positively related to the presence of nature. A. True.B. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Nature has always had a very positive effect in human being, it is something deeply wired in our brain that makes us have that feeling of peace and relaxation when in contact with nature, activities such as walking in the woods or by the beach, sitting on the grass, or simply hug a tree have been proven to have beneficial effects in our mental health and a reduce in anxiety and stress.
How is the family of a person with down syndrome affected
Answer:
the family grows stronger and closer together as a result of the experience of dealing with someone with a disability and they become more focused on the things that really matter in life
Maaz is experiencing anxiety about his upcoming football tryout. In an effort to retain his sense of worthiness, in case he is cut from the team roster, he tells everyone on the way to the tryout that he is feeling ill. This is an example of:
Answer:
Self-handicapping.
Explanation:
Self-handicapping may be defined as a type of cognitive strategy by which the individual prevents the self esteem. This strategy was first explained by Edward E. Jones.
The individual in this strategy avoid the efforts and keep hopes for the potential failure and hurting from the self esteem. The individual thinks that self handicaps are the obstacles claimed by himself and anticipation of failing performance. Here, Mazz can be used as an example of self-handicapping.
Thus, the answer is self-handicapping.
Answer: B. self-handicapping
Explanation:
Self-handicapping can be defined as a strategy in which a person tries to avoid effort while assuming that all the efforts will be worthless. Such a strategy can lead to potential failure in self-esteem. Self-handicapping can engage a person in behaviors that restricts once success. A person makes excuses for not trying to achieve success.
The given situation is an example of self-handicapping. This is because here Maaz is making excuse for being ill if he will not be selected for the team sport.
Dolly was euthanized at a relatively young age for a sheep due to health problems. The popular press incorrectly attributed the health problems to premature aging. Why might the press have expected Dolly to show premature aging?
Answer and Explanation:
It's because of the idea that the biological age of clones and their chronological age is not synchronized and then, cloned animals die young.
When cloned, Dolly was conceived using a cell of a six-year-old sheep. And Dolly died at age six and a half, an early death for a race that lives at least nine years on average. People assumed that an adult's clone began its life with a disadvantage: instead of being a real "newborn", it seemed that the clone's internal age was earlier than his time existence indicated.
Although, it was shown that if we get the cell of an animal of any age and insert its nucleus into an unfertilized mature egg, we will obtain an individual who will be born with a completely renewed life expectancy. They confirm that the signs of biological and chronological aging of cloned sheep are the same as those of uncloned sheep. So the real reason of the dead of Dolly with its age its not because of premature aging.
The press might have speculated premature aging in Dolly due to the use of DNA from an older donor sheep. Dolly was a Finn-Dorset because the nucleus from a Finn-Dorset sheep was used in her cloning process, determining her genetic makeup.
Explanation:Why Might the Press Have Expected Dolly to Show Premature Aging?
The popular press might have expected Dolly, the first cloned sheep, to show premature aging because she was created from the DNA of an older individual. The age of the donor sheep had raised questions about whether the genetic material would harbor the effects of aging, potentially shortening Dolly's lifespan. This speculation was due to the potential for the 'age' of the DNA to be effectively the same as that of the donor, rather than resetting to zero at the birth of the clone.
Why Was Dolly a Finn-Dorset and Not a Scottish Blackface Sheep?
Dolly was a Finn-Dorset sheep because her creation involved replacing the nucleus of a donor egg cell with the nucleus from an adult Finn-Dorset sheep. Since genetic identity is determined by the nucleus of an egg, Dolly's genetic makeup was that of the Finn-Dorset, not the Scottish Blackface that provided the egg. The terms cytoplasmic inheritance and epigenetic inheritance relate to different aspects of inheritance and are not applicable in this case since nuclear DNA dictates the organism's genetic identity.
All of the following are in the top ten principles of safety except________.
A. fully investigate product safety incidents
B. encourage customers to try out the product before purchasing it.
C. report product safety defects promptly.
D. track your product's safety performance.
Answer:
The correct answer is option B
B. encourage customers to try out the product before purchasing it.
Explanation:
I believe the safety and satisfaction of the customers is the priority in business so it will put the customer's life at risk to ask them to try out the product before purchasing it. What if there is a defect in the product which could be harmful to the customers?. To I believe that option is not part if the safety principle.
Final answer:
The option that is not one of the top ten principles of safety is 'encourage customers to try out the product before purchasing it', as it relates more to customer satisfaction than safety. So the correct option is B.
Explanation:
The option that is not in the top ten principles of safety is B. encourage customers to try out the product before purchasing it. The principles of product safety generally focus on ensuring that the product is safe to use and that it complies with all relevant safety standards. This includes establishing safety as a formal design parameter, reviewing designs for safety, verifying compliance with government and industry standards, monitoring material substitutions, and implementing tracking methods for product traceability. Additionally, other important safety principles involve investigating incidents, reporting defects promptly, and monitoring the product's safety performance. However, encouraging customers to try out products before purchasing is generally more related to customer satisfaction and marketing rather than being a principle of safety.
The correct way to prepare frozen vegetables is to___
a. Microwave than before cooking
B. Bake them for 10 minutes before moving them to a pan or steamer see.
c. Move them straight from the freezer into a pan or a steamer
D. Allow them to install slowly
Answer: c. Move them straight from the freezer into a pan or a steamer
Explanation:
Frozen vegetables are those vegetables which are kept at a lower temperature in the refrigeration conditions below the freezing point for storage and transportation until they are eaten. The freezing process restores the quality of these vegetables.
The frozen vegetables must be washed in the cold water until these get thawed. Add these vegetables into the pan or a streamer. Cook as usual. As these frozen vegetables get blanched or boiled before they are frozen, thus there is no requirement for pre-cooking of these vegetables before they are added to the recipe.
Your mother's vision seemed to be deteriorating. She could not read emails you sent her, saying that words are blurry on her computer monitor, and she wouldn't drive at night because she sees a glare. What visual disorder might your mother have?
A. Myopia
B. Astigmatism
C. Hyperopia
D. Cataracts
Answer:
she has cataracts
Explanation:
A client is concerned about a dark skin lesion on her anterolateral abdomen. The lesion has not changed, nor is there any discharge or bleeding. On examination, there is a medium brown circular lesion on the anterolateral wall of the abdomen. It is soft, has regular borders, is evenly pigmented, and is about 7 mm in diameter. What is this lesion?
Answer:
It is a supernumerary nipple.
Explanation: A supernumerary nipple is one or more extra nipples in addition to the two that everyone has. It is a birth defect that does not have any risk. A supernumerary nipple is smaller than the normal ones and it can be located in the abdomen, near the armpit, down the chest or near the groin.
Kaylee is so afraid of spiders and insects that she avoids most outdoor activities and even refuses to go to the basement of her own house alone. Kaylee appears to suffer from a(n):
Answer:
Entomophobia
Explanation:
I'm not sure if this question is asking for what phobia this is but Kaylee's extreme fear of spiders and insects is called entomophobia. Which is the fear of spiders and insects. Phobia's like these can really impact the person's ability to do certain things. Which in Kaylee's case it is to go outside or in the basement.
A 12-year-old male is brought to his primary care physician. His parents are concerned with his recent decline in school work due to persistent blurred vision. On physical exam, planar xanthomas are noted and laboratory testing reveals extremely low plasma HDL. This presentation would be consistent with a loss of which of the following apoproteins?
A. ApoB 100
B. ApoA
C. ApoB 48
D. ApoE
Answer:
B. ApoA
Explanation:
Apolipoprotein A is a protein carried in HDL ("good") cholesterol. It helps start the process for HDL to remove bad types of cholesterol from your body. In this way, apolipoprotein A can help to lower your risk for cardiovascular disease.
Therefore, loss in ApoA will result in increased "bad" cholesterol since HDL process is not started, this will result in symptoms such as blurred vision
The pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube connects the ________ to the nasopharynx. The pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube connects the ________ to the nasopharynx. external ear middle ear tympanic membrane (eardrum) internal ear
Answer: middle ear cavity, tympanic membrane (eardrum)
Explanation:
The pharyngotympanic tube is the tube that connects the cavity of the middle ear to the nasopharynx. This tube is also called a eustachian tube. This tube aerates the middle ear and clears the mucus from the middle ear passes into the nasopharynx.
The pharyngotympanic tube connects the tympanic membrane with the nasal cavity or nasopharynx. It equalize the air pressure between the middle ear and the throat.
The pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx. This tube helps equalize air pressure on either side of the eardrum. Sound waves are converted into neural signals in the middle ear.
The pharyngotympanic (also known as the auditory or Eustachian tube) connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx. The main function of this tube is to equalize air pressure across the tympanic membrane, or eardrum.
The middle ear contains three small bones called ossicles— the malleus (attached to the tympanic membrane), the incus (which articulates with malleus), and the stapes (which is connected to the inner ear).
Sound waves are transduced into a neural signal in the middle ear when they vibrate the eardrum and this vibration is transferred through the ossicles to the inner ear.
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Which statement about typical nursing home residents is false?
a.The majority have Alzheimer's disease.
b.They usually have basic ADL problems.
c.They are often wealthy.
d.They are old-old women.
Answer:
C. they are often wealthy
Explanation:
nursing homes, also called care homes, rest homes, convalescent home, convalescent care, is a facility provided for the sole purpose of caring for the people who do need to be the in the hospital and cannot be taken care of at home. it is usually equipped with the required personnel such as a nursing home administrator or an executive director. basically a number of care are provided and this includes but not limited to speech therapy, physical therapy and occupational therapy.
Which of the following does NOT serve as a source of acids in the body? fat metabolism aerobic breakdown of glucose ingesting of bicarbonate CO2 in the blood
Final answer:
Ingesting bicarbonate does NOT serve as a source of acids in the body; rather it acts as a base and is part of the buffering system that helps maintain pH balance by neutralizing acids.
Explanation:
The question presented asks which of the following does NOT serve as a source of acids in the body:
Fat metabolismAerobic breakdown of glucoseIngesting of bicarbonateCO₂ in the bloodThe correct answer is ingesting of bicarbonate. Bicarbonate (HCO₃-) acts as a base in the body and is a component of the bicarbonate buffering system that helps maintain pH balance by neutralizing acids. It is not a source of acids.
On the other hand, fat metabolism and aerobic breakdown of glucose produce acids. During the aerobic breakdown of glucose, lactic acid can be produced, which adds to the acidity of the body. Fat metabolism produces ketone bodies in the Krebs cycle when carbohydrates are limited, which are acidic in nature. CO₂ in the blood can combine with water to form carbonic acid, contributing to acidity as well.
After a motor vehicle crash, a client who sustained multiple injuries is oriented to person and place but is confused as to time. The client complains of a headache and drowsiness, but assessment reveals that the pupils are equal and reactive. Which nursing action takes priority?
Answer:
The given question is not complete as it lack the proper option Which are as follow-
a. Moving the client as little as possible
b. Preparing the client for mannitol administration
c. Stimulating the client to maintain responsiveness
d. Monitoring the client for increasing intracranial pressure - is correct answer.
Explanation:
According the symptoms that is shown by the client mentioned in the question which are, - losing sense of time, nausea, drowsiness and headache. These symptoms are suggested that an individual client is having increased intracranial pressure.
The intracranial pressure is the pressure that is present inside the brain. As it is the pressure that is present in cerebrospinal fluid and brain tissue.
Thus, the correct answer is - option d.
Having a collision with a larger animal could result in serious injuries to the vehicle’s occupants and damage to your vehicle, but could be the safest option as the alternative could involve hitting another vehicle with the result significantly worse.a. True.b. False
Answer:
a. True
Explanation:
If you ever happen to get into this situation on the road, it is by all means safer to collide with an animal than to hit another vehicle. Drivers are advised to keep their hands tight on the wheel in order not to lose control.
On the other hand if you try to avoid this and hit a vehicle, the result would be much worse. A motor vehicle can cause greater damage since there could be fire and other possible consequences causing worse injuries (by glass and other heavy and dangerous materials) than hitting an animal.
The ability to perform moderate to vigorous physical activities on a regular basis and to complete daily tasks without undue fatigue demonstratesa) weight-loss success.b) physical activity.c) endurance exercise.d) physical fitness.
Answer:
d) Physical fitness.
Explanation:
The ability to perform moderate activity demonstrates physical activity. The ability to perform moderate to vigorous physical activities demonstrates endurance exercise. The ability to perform moderate to vigorous physical activities regularly and to complete daily tasks without undue fatigue demonstrates physical fitness.
Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because Group of answer choices the infections move along peripheral nerves. antibiotics damage nervous tissue. many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier. it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe. no medications exist for treatment of these infections.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier
Explanation:
Meninges is the membrane which surrounds the spinal cord and the brain and the infection of the meninges is thus called meningitis and Encephalitis is the inflammation of the brain. These two diseases are caused by the micro-organism which could be viruses, bacteria or fungus.
The treatment of the disease is difficult sometimes as the entry of the drug into the brain through the cellular membrane of the capillaries is inhibited like in the case of penicillin which is polar and finds difficult to cross the membrane.
Thus, the selected option is the correct answer.
Encephalitis and meningitis are hard to treat due to the blood-brain barrier hindering antibiotics, and difficulty in identifying the causative bacteria. Movement along peripheral nerves and damage caused by antibiotics are generally not significant factors.
Explanation:Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are indeed difficult to treat, primarily because many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier. This barrier serves as a protective layer to prevent harmful substances from reaching the brain, but it also blocks many of the antibiotics that could be used to treat infections. While some antibiotics can pass this barrier, those that do are typically less effective against the specific bacteria causing the illness.
Identifying the causative microbe can also pose a challenge, as different bacteria require different treatment approaches, and incorrect treatment can lead to complications. Lastly, the infections moving along peripheral nerves is not a significant factor in the difficulty of treatment, and while antibiotics could theoretically harm nervous tissue, they are generally considered safe for use.
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As discussed in lecture, the blink response of individuals diagnosed as psychopaths has been measured on IAPS images rated as pleasant, neutral or unpleasant. The researchers found that, compared to normal subjects, psychopaths….
Answer:
Psychopaths have a blink response to unpleasant IAPS images that resemble their blink response to pleasant images.
Explanation:
Psychopaths, particularly those with antisocial personality disorder, show unique neurophysiological responses to emotional stimuli, rewards, and punishments, including impaired perception towards high-magnitude rewards, lower fear responses to environmental cues, and reduced activity of the autonomic nervous system as measured by skin conductance during fear or anxiety-provoking situations.
Explanation:Based on the provided research information, individuals diagnosed as psychopaths exhibited a differential response pattern compared to normal individuals when exposed to IAPS images rated as pleasant, neutral, or unpleasant. This corresponds to findings where psychopaths, particularly those with antisocial personality disorder, showed impaired perception towards high-magnitude rewards and a lack of typical fear response to environmental cues signaling punishment or pain.
Moreover, they demonstrated lower skin conductance, a measure of autonomic nervous system activity, during situations intended to elicit fear or anxiety. Interestingly, these individuals also seem to lack a moral compass, acting as though they neither comprehend nor care about right versus wrong.
Therefore, it can be concluded that psychopaths respond differently at a neurophysiological level to emotional stimuli, rewards, and punishments, and their disorder is evident not just in their actions, but also in their physiological responses and cognition.
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The second neuron's axons extend to the
from the ganglion.
Answer:
The second neuron's axons extend to the autonomic effector from the ganglion.
Explanation:
The second neuron’s axons are also called as the postganglionic neuron. In the autonomic nervous system the neurons have only one axon. Instead of having the multiple axons, the neuron itself branches so there are many neurons with one axon each. The second neuron has the "cell body in the autonomic ganglion" and its axon has the position that starts from the ganglion and extends straight up to the autonomic effector.The second neuron's axons, which extend from the ganglion, serve to transmit nerve signals or impulses to various goal areas. These areas could be muscles, organs, or other neurons, depending on the function of the neuron.
Explanation:The axons of the second neurons often extend from the ganglion to different areas based on the function of the particular neuron. Neurologically speaking, this could be to muscles or organs in the body for motor neurons or to other neurons within the central nervous system in the case of interneurons. The axons serve the purpose of transmitting nerve signals or impulses from the ganglion to the target locations, thus enabling the neural network's functioning.
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The Davises were excited about their newborn twin boys and couldn’t wait to take them to see Mr. Davis’s father. Grandfather Davis was excited to see his first grandsons as well and thought their visit might help take his mind off the pain of his shingles, which had suddenly appeared only days before. Which virus is responsible for Grandfather Davis’s shingles?
Answer:
Varicella-zoster virus
Explanation:
This type of virus is the one that is responsible for getting chickenpox, which are also called varicella and shingles. There is a big possibility that grandpa Davis had chicken pox when he was a little boy, maybe a teen, but the virus never left the body. On the contrary, it's hidden in the nerve tissue. The virus remains passive through one's life, but sometimes, it wakes up and reaches the nerve fibers and as a result an individual gets shingles.
The nurse has completed medication education with the patient who is receiving risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse evaluates that the education has been effective when the patient makes which statement?
Answer and Explanation:
Risperidone is a potent atypical antipsychotic drug. It is a selective monoaminergic antagonist with unique properties. It has high affinity for 5-HT2 serotoninergic and D2 dopaminergic receptors. Risperidone also binds to alpha-1 receptors adrenergic and, with lower affinity, histamine H1 and alpha2 adrenergic receptors. Risperidone does not have affinity for cholinergic receptors. Although risperidone is a potent D2 antagonist, this is considered responsible for improving the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, its depressant effect on motor and catalepsy inducer is less potent than classical neuroleptics.
It is most often used in the treatment of delusional psychoses, including schizophrenia. However, risperidone, like other atypical antipsychotics, is also used to treat some forms of bipolar disorder, depressive psychosis, obsessive compulsive disorder, and Tourette's syndrome. In the United States, it has also been approved for the treatment of irritability in children and adolescents (although is not recommended for the treatment of autism spectrum disorders and milder forms of autism due to its effects).
Match The Following
1. used by the body to synthesize Vitamin D
2. fats that can increase the amount of "bad" cholesterol in the blood
3. nutrient that Vitamins A, D, E, and K are dependent upon for their absorption by cells
4. one factor that can be changed in order to lower your body fat
5. body type that is tall and thin
6. body type that is normal height and well-built
7. good source of carbohydrates and Vitamin B complex
8. the body type that is short and overweight
9. the conversion of nutrients into energy
cholesterol
endomorph
mesomorph
exercise
saturated
grain
ectomorph
fat
catabolism
Answer:
(1)used by the body to synthesize Vitamin D= Cholesterol
(2)fats that can increase the amount of "bad" cholesterol in the blood= Saturated
(3)nutrient that Vitamins A, D, E, and K are dependent upon for their absorption by cells= fat
(4) one factor that can be changed in order to lower your body fat= exercise
(5) body type that is tall and thin= ectomorph
(6) body type that is normal height and well-built= mesomorph
(7) good source of carbohydrates and Vitamin B complex= grain
(8) the body type that is short and overweight= endomorph
(9)the conversion of nutrients into energy=catabolism.
This response matches various health terms to their definitions, covering topics like nutrition, body types, and biochemical processes.
Explanation:1. The nutrient used by the body to synthesize Vitamin D is cholesterol.
2. The type of fats that can increase the amount of 'bad' cholesterol in the blood are saturated fats.
3. Vitamins A, D, E, and K are dependent upon fat for their absorption by cells.
4. One factor that can be changed in order to lower your body fat is exercise.
5. The body type that is tall and thin is known as the ectomorph body type.
6. The body type that is of normal height and well-built is known as the mesomorph body type.
7. A good source of carbohydrates and Vitamin B complex is grain.
8. The body type that is short and overweight is known as the endomorph body type.
9. The conversion of nutrients into energy is termed as catabolism.
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You have voluntary control over the function of _____.
a. cardiac muscle.
b. simple squamous.
c. epithelium
d. smooth muscle.
e. skeletal muscle.
Answer:
skeletal muscle.
Explanation:
To begin the administration of total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a client has a right subclavian central venous access device inserted. Immediately after insertion of the catheter, what is the priority nursing action?
1. Obtain a chest x-ray to determine placement.
2. Auscultate the lungs to evaluate breath sounds.
3. Draw a blood sample to assess blood glucose level.
4. Assess the right upper extremity for neurologic deficits."
The priority nursing action after inserting a right subclavian central venous access device is to obtain a chest x-ray to determine placement.
Explanation:The priority nursing action immediately after insertion of a right subclavian central venous access device is to obtain a chest x-ray to determine placement. This is important because it ensures that the catheter is properly positioned in the subclavian vein and not causing any complications. Auscultating the lungs, drawing a blood sample to assess blood glucose level, and assessing the right upper extremity for neurologic deficits are important nursing actions but not the immediate priority after the insertion of the catheter.
The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who has diarrhea, and the nurse suspects that the patient has a biomedical perspective of illness. Which statement by the patient helped the nurse to reach this conclusion?1. "I will recover if I drink hot beverages."2. "I will feel better after meeting with a mambo."3. "I am sick because of unhygienic surroundings."4. "I am sick because of supernatural forces surrounding me."
Answer: 3. "I am sick because of unhygienic surroundings."
Explanation:
"Biomedical theory postulates that microorganisms are responsible for specific disease conditions. Therefore, the patient's statement that unhygienic surroundings are responsible for the illness supports the nurse's conclusion. "
Mrs. and Mr. Williams both have widow's peaks (dominant). Their first child also has a widow's peak, but their second child doesn't. Mr. Williams accuses Mrs. Williams of being unfaithful to him. Is he necessarily justified?
Answer:
Mr. William has no legitimate reason. It is unclear the genetics of the widow'speak and how or if it is inherited. It's possible that if you have the widow's peak, somebody in your family also has one and it's not necessary to know if your siblings have the widow's peak doesn't mean that you have different genes from them.
Explanation:
Evidence is inadequate to conclude that a widow’s peak is the result of a single dominant gene. It may very well be that multiple genes are involved that can also result from the other child not to have widow's peak.
Sean, a junior in college, has difficulty making decisions and when he finally makes a decision he worries about whether it was the right decision. He constantly worries about his courses, future, girlfriend, and getting a summer job. Recently Sean has had heart palpitations and muscular tension. Sean's symptoms are MOST consistent with___________.a. generalized anxiety disorderb. posttraumatic stress disorderc. obsessive-compulsive disorded. bipolar disorder
Answer:
Bipolar Disorder
Explanation:
Anxiety includes related illnesses and can suffer from 'mood swings'.
Sean's symptoms are most consistent with generalized anxiety disorder. The correct option is a.
What is anxiety disorder?Anxiety disorder is a mental disorder in which a person worries or gets tensed about small things. This causes his behavior restless, he doesn't feel any happiness.
Sean is always in worry about his future and relation, this causes difficulty with concentration.
Thus, the correct option is a. generalized anxiety disorder.
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