Answer:
a. actinic keratosis
Which brain region works with the cerebrum to coordinate body movements?
a. thalamus
b. medulla oblongata
c. cerebellum
d. pineal gland
Answer:
C. Cerebellum
Explanation:
The cerebellum forms part of the CNS. The main function is to coordinate body movements, process signals from the spinal cord and brain stem, and adjust and control movement.
All of the veins of the systemic circulation drain into the ______________ before returning to the heart.
a. Pulmonary trunk
b. Superior and inferior vena cavae
c. Inferior vena cava
d. Pulmonary veins
e. Superior vena cava
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
All the blood from the body gets pure inside the heart. The impure blood from the body is collected by the superior vena cavae and inferior vena cavae.
The waste blood from the body is collected and enters collectively into the heart. This blood is impure(deoxygenated) and need to be pure (oxygenated) before being circulated into the body.
So, the correct answer is option B
Final answer:
The veins of the systemic circulation drain into the superior and inferior vena cavae before returning to the heart.
Explanation:
The veins of the systemic circulation drain into the superior and inferior vena cavae before returning to the heart.
The superior vena cava drains blood from regions superior to the diaphragm, including the head, neck, upper limbs, and thoracic region. The inferior vena cava drains blood from areas inferior to the diaphragm, such as the lower limbs and abdominopelvic region.
Therefore, the correct answer is b. Superior and inferior vena cavae.
What are lacunae? Where is it found?
Answer:
Bone laminae called osteocytes (bone cells that are part of the bone tissue and found in the bone matrix, which is the most important part of the bone) are floating in spaces known as lacunae; These lacunae communicate with each other through ducts known as canaliculos where nutrients pass to osteocytes, in turn they serve for the elimination of waste.
Describe the two membranes covering the heart.
Answer: Fibrous pericardium and Serous Pericardium
Explanation:
The pericardium can be defined as the fibroserous sac( double layered) which covers the whole heart. The gap between two layers of serous pericardium is filled with serous fluid. This fluid protects the heart from external shocks.
Fibrous pericardium
This layer is the most superficial layer which consists of dense connective tissue. This layer of the heart protects it from over filling of blood, anchors the heart to the surrounding wall.
Serous pericardium
This layer provides lubrication to the heart by resisting the friction which occurs during the various type of heart function.
The macula densa cells are chemoreceptors that respond to changes in the urea content of the filtrate.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Macula densa cells are present in the lining of the distal tubule. The cells are the thicker at the site where glomerulus and distal convoluted tubule touches each other.
Macula densa can sense the change in the concentration of sodium chloride ions in the distal convoluted tubule. The mcula densa cells cannot respond to the change in urea content of filtrate.
Thus, the answer is false.
Final answer:
The statement about macula densa cells is false; these cells detect changes in sodium ion concentration, not urea content in the filtrate.
Explanation:
The macula densa cells are a specialized group of cells located in the distal convoluted tubule of the nephron in the kidney. Contrary to the statement in the student's question, macula densa cells function as chemoreceptors that respond primarily to changes in the sodium ion concentration, not urea content, in the filtrate. These cells play a critical role in regulating blood pressure and the filtration rate of the kidneys by signaling to the juxtaglomerular cells, which may then release renin to adjust blood pressure. So, the correct answer to the student's question is false.
How many chambers are inside the heart?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
Answer:
four Chambers inside the heart
The human heart is divided into four chambers.These chambers are a right and left atrium and two lower ventricles.
A Whipple operation may be performed for the treatment of:
A. Hodgkin's disease.
B. pancreatic cancer.
C. liver disease.
D. lung cancer.
Answer: Option B " pancreatic cancer"
Explanation:
Whipple Procedure is used to remove cancerous tumors off from the head of the pancreas.
It is also used for the treatment of duodenal or pancreatic trauma. It is also employed for the treatment of of chronic pancreatitis.
As there is a shared blood supply of the organs in the proximal gastrointestinal system, if the head part of the pancreas is removed then the removal of gallbladder, duodenum, part of stomach and proximal jejunum is also done.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B
Final answer:
A Whipple operation is a surgical procedure primarily performed to treat pancreatic cancer by removing part of the pancreas and other organs and tissues.
Explanation:
A Whipple operation, also known as a pancreaticoduodenectomy, is a surgical procedure most commonly performed for the treatment of pancreatic cancer. This complex surgery involves the removal of the head of the pancreas, as well as parts of the stomach, duodenum, gallbladder, and the bile duct. Pancreatic cancer is often diagnosed at a late stage, making it difficult to treat, but a Whipple operation may be offered in certain cases as a potential cure if the cancer has not spread significantly.
The conduction of an impulse depends on:
a. a high concentration of Na+ inside and a low concentration of K+ outside
b. a high concentration of K+ outside and a low concentration of Na+ inside
c. a change in the membrane's permeability to Na+
d. the membrane being impermeable to anions
Answer:
Option (a).
Explanation:
Nerve impulse can be defined as electric signals, which is passed along the nerve dendrites to generate action potential (movement of ions inside and out of the cell).
At resting phase, plasma membrane of nerve cell maintains resting potential with the help of sodium-potassium pump. Upon stimulation, sodium ion channels on membrane get opened, which allows sodium ions to enter the cell and increased concentration of sodium ions inside the cell.
This movement of sodium ions causes depolarization of membrane and generates an action potential.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
A nurse is assessing for allergies for a client who is scheduled to receive the influenza vaccine. Which of the following allergies should the nurse identify as a contraindication for this vaccine?
a. Peanuts
b. Eggs
c. Shellfish
d. Milk
Answer:
The answer is B eggs
Explanation:
Influenza vaccines in their preparation contain egg proteins such as ovalbumin; When allergy to eggs is detected in a person, can contraindicate the use of this vaccine.
Deep brain stimulation is used as a treatment for the advanced stages of Parkinson’s disease. If you are a neurosurgeon treating the Parkinson’s patient, where would you implant the DBS electrode? Question options:
A) Motor cortex
B) Basal ganglia
C) Thalamus
D) Premotor cortex
Answer:
B. Basal Ganglia
Explanation:
Basal Ganglia is in charge of the regulation of normal motor behavior regulation. Parkinson occurs because of a degeneration of:
-Dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra of pars compact
-Dopamine in striated nuclei and cytoplasmic protein inclusions known as Lewy bodies
Explain the relationship between RBC count, Ht, and viscosity.
Answer:
The RBC (red blood cells) count can be defined as the total number of red blood cells present in individual blood sample.
Hematocrit ( Ht) is defined as the blood test that measures the volume percentage of red blood cells in blood.
Blood viscosity is defined as the viscosity or flowing property of blood.
RBC (red blood cells) count , hematocrit ( Ht), and blood viscosity are related to each other that can be explained as higher percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) results in thicker blood ( blood viscosity), hematocrit reflects the number of red blood cells , If the size or number of the RBCs decreases, so will the hematocrit and vice versa.
How would you describe your individual teaching style?
Answer:
directing style predominant, discussing style also
Explanation:
-Directing style promotes learning through listening and following directions.
As a foreign language teacher, I often invite students to learn by listening since paying attention to audios will make them acquire new information.
The process of learning is also based on following directions, either on the books as method or directions i give in order to reinforce the concepts watched. A series of lectures or audios will encourage also students who are mainly learning a language and happen to learn better by listening.
- Discussing style promotes learning through interaction.
Since other students will be more visual, or kynestesic i will combine with a delegating style. Often this means that i will make students participate in activities that require cooperation among them, Also involves processing information they already know and embrace new knowledge to adapt it.
Posing questions that make them think deeply is my preferred means of making them interact together.
Condyloma Lata are associated with?
a) Gonorrhea
b) Chlamydia
c) Syphilis
d) HPV
Answer:
C, syphilis
Explanation:
Condyloma Lata is a medical condition characterized by the appearance of wart-like lesions on the genitals. They appear in the first phase of the disease and can disappear later. They are highly infectious.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a bacterium. It is usually spread after people have unprotected sex.
The first symptoms of syphilis include having open, wound like sores around the mouth and the genitals areas. They are usually pain free but very unpleasant and they tend to heal on their own. During a later stage of this disease they symptoms may become latent and even disappear for months or years. The no visible symptoms stage is very dangerous one, as the bacterium can damage the internal organs in the body, including the brain.
A nurse is teaching about a new prescription for infliximab to a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. “You will receive a Mantoux test before the initial medication dose.”
b. “You might experience diarrhea during the first 2 weeks of treatment.”
c. “You will receive the medication every week for 6 weeks.”
d. “You should receive the intranasal influenza vaccine.”
Answer: Opcion A. "You will receive a Mantoux test before the initial medication dose"
Explanation: The INFLIXIMAB is one of the medications used for treating Rheumatoid arthritis, among other inflammatory diseases as psoriasic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, Crohn's disease. It is used when the regular treatment has not worked. It helps to reduce pain and joint inflammation.
The mechanism of action of the INFLIXIMAB is to reduce a substance called TNFα (Tumor Necrosis Factor α) responsible for the inflammatory response that helps the body against an antigen. Because this medication reduces this body defense, it is important for the health providers to know in advance if there is a condition or disease in the immune system, cancer, or something that per se, could predispose to infections.
The Mantoux test is a tuberculin skin test that is used to know if a person has an infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria responsible of causing Tuberculosis. In the test, a tuberculin protein called PPD is used to be injected into the skin, specifically in the forearm. If the person is infected with the bacteria, it is expected that between 48 and 72 hours, the health professional would see an induration in the site of injection.
If someone has a positive tuberculin test, then it would not be possible to administer INFLIXIMAB.
Opcion B. Incorrect. There is no description of diarrhea as an adverse event for using this medication. The adverse effects could be headache, stomach ache, cough or skin allergy. Also, for the suppression of part of the immune system, it is recommended to be aware of symptoms of infection as fever, sweats, muscle pain.
Opcion C. Incorrect. The usual dose of INFLIXIMAB in the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis for adults is, an inicial dose, then a second dose 2 weeks later; then, a third dose 4 weeks later, and finally one dose every 8 weeks.
Opcion D. Incorrect. The intranasal influenza vaccine is a "live attenuated" vaccine. If it is administered in a person using INFLIXIMAB, he/she could develop a severe infection by Influenza.
Discuss the influence of cardiac output, resistance and blood volume on blood pressure.
Answer:
All these elements: cardiac output, resistance and blood volume, are all factors that make part, and affect, blood pressure.
Blood pressure then is defined as the force excerted by blood, as it is pumped in a certain volume, from the heart, and passes through the arteries, to achieve an exchange of oxygen and nutrients, towards the tissues, and carrying out of elements of disposal from the tissues.
Cardiac output is the amount of blood that is pumped during one heartbeat, every minute, from the left ventricle towards the body. This output depends on several other elements, all of which form the blood pressure. Blood volume which is the amount of blood returned towards the heart by the veins, will fill the atria and ventricles, during a heart cycle, and then, during the heartbeat, whatever volume has filled up the left ventricle will be ejected with force towards the aorta. This force, caused both by the actual contraction of the heart muscle, and the amount of blood actually pumped from the ventricle, will generate a force against the arterial walls. It is this force, this play of physics, that will ensure the exchange of waste and nutrients to and from the tissues. But arterial walls also have a resistance, which means, they are built with tensile materials that will resist the force of the blood against them, preventing thus the walls from bursting.
This is the influence of cardiac output, resistance and blood volume on blood pressure. All of them will directly influence the blood pressure that a person has.
What are the three segments of the small intestine?
Answer:
The small intestine is made up of three parts:
- duodenum = communicates the small intestine with the stomach.
- Jejunum = is the second portion of the small intestine, located between the duodenum and the ilieon; It is characterized by having large amount of folds and intestinal villi which favors the absorption of a large amount of nutrients.
- Ileon = is the final part of the small intestine, its function is the absorption of water and electrolytes, in addition to B12 vitamins.
Ms. B is a 40-year-old woman who is the CEO of a struggling company. Lately she has been experiencing headaches that are so severe that she gets dizzy and nauseated, and she is unable to carry out her usual daily routines. She reports that they usually begin as a throbbing pain in the left temple and then seem to spread throughout her head. A diagnosis of migraine headache is made after several tests.
Based on the patient history and signs and symptoms, discuss this type of headache and its physiological causes. Discuss the available treatments to prevent and/or relieve the patient’s migraine.
Hi !
cause: stress
treatment: anti migraine or background treatment
tips: practice a sport, relaxation, meditation
Migraine headaches are characterized by severe pain on one side of the head and are often accompanied by dizziness and nausea. The causes of migraines are not fully understood, but they involve changes in blood flow and chemical imbalances in the brain. Treatment options for migraines include preventive measures, lifestyle changes, and medication to prevent or relieve symptoms.
Explanation:A migraine headache is a type of headache characterized by severe pain, often on one side of the head, and accompanied by other symptoms such as dizziness and nausea. The physiological cause of migraines is still not fully understood, but it is believed to involve changes in blood flow and chemical imbalances in the brain.
Treatment for migraines aims to both prevent and relieve the symptoms. Preventive measures may include lifestyle changes, such as managing stress and avoiding triggers, as well as medications such as beta blockers or anti-seizure drugs. For relief during an actual migraine attack, over-the-counter pain relievers like acetaminophen or ibuprofen may be used, or prescription medications like triptans may be prescribed.
In conclusion, migraine headaches can be debilitating and impact a person's daily life. Understanding the triggers and physiological causes can help in managing and treating this condition effectively.
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What are the 8 different blood types?
Answer:
A negative ( A-)A positive (A+)B negative (B-)B positive (B+)AB negative (AB-)AB positive (AB+)O negative (O-)O positive (O+)Explanation:
The blood group system denotes the presence of antigens on the surface of the red blood cells and antibodies in plasma. Also, some red blood cells have a Rh factor, known as the Rh antigen.
The RhD positive indicates the presence of Rh antigen on red blood cells and RhD negative do not have a Rh antigen on red blood cells.
The eight different blood types are-
A negative ( A-)A positive (A+)B negative (B-)B positive (B+)AB negative (AB-)AB positive (AB+)O negative (O-)O positive (O+)There are eight blood types based on the presence or absence of specific antigens and the Rh factor: A+, A-, B+, B-, AB+, AB-, O+, and O-. The ABO system determines the presence of A or B antigens, while the Rh factor indicates the presence (+) or absence (-) of the Rh antigen.
Explanation:There are eight main blood types within the ABO and Rh blood group systems: A+, A-, B+, B-, AB+, AB-, O+, and O-. These blood types are determined by the presence or absence of certain antigens on the surface of red blood cells. Type A blood has the A antigen, Type B blood has the B antigen, Type AB blood has both A and B antigens, and Type O blood has neither A nor B antigens. Additionally, the Rh factor, which can be either positive (+) or negative (-), indicates the presence or absence of the Rh antigen, also known as the D antigen.
The combination of the ABO blood types with the Rh factor gives us the eight main blood types. For example, if someone has the A antigen and the Rh antigen, their blood type is A+. Conversely, if they lack the B and Rh antigens, their blood type would be B-. The ABO system and the Rh factor are the most important for blood transfusions, as compatibility between donor and recipient blood types is crucial to prevent adverse reactions.
Antibiotic treatment of E. coli is discouraged unless necessary due to concern over?
a) Severity of drugs used
b) Increased likelihood of resistant strains developing
c) Destruction of natural flora
d) Disruption of intestinal lining
e) All of the above
Answer:
The best answer choice from the list, to respond to the question: Antibiotic treatment of E. coli is discouraged unless necessary due to concern over:___, would be, E: all of the above.
Explanation:
E. Coli, is the general name used for a group of bacteria that are usually harmless and make a really important part of the human GI tract. In fact, without their presence, that of E.Coli, and other bacteria that make part of the normal flora of the intenstines, digestion of certain foods, and the production of certain vitamins and minerals, would not be possible. Also, they are meant to help contain other bacteria, that are known as pathogenic and cause disease. However, when E. Coli is taken out of its environment in the feces, and especially certain groups, can become serious pathogens that cause diarrhea, and other things. However, it has become almost a trend to treat E. Coli infections with antibiotics and the problem that has ensued, has been manyfold. The first issue has been with resistance. Now we are facing superbugs, especially of the E. Coli variety, that do not respond to common treatments, because antibiotics were used all the time. Second, some strains of E. Coli, will not respond to the same antibiotics, and some, could be treated with simply measures such as diet, rest and hydration. There is also knowledge that since antibiotics are not specific, they will also kill other bacteria that are part of the normal flora of the GI tract, and finally, there is evidence that constant exposure to antibiotics will start having effects on the normal lining of the GI tract. This is why the answer is E.
The pharmacological effects of quinidine include the following EXCEPT:
A. blocking Na+ channel
B. blocking B adrenergic receptor
C. blocking Ca+ channel
D. blocking Cl channel
Answer:
The correct answer will be option D- blocking Cl channel.
Explanation:'
Quinidine is a stereoisomer of quinine derived from the bark of Cinchona plants which is used in the medication of the heart as class I antiarrhythmic agent. This alkaloid decreases the automaticity and increases the duration of the cellular action potential of the heart.
This alkaloid acts by blocking the neurotransmission through blocking of sodium and potassium channels responsible for the depolarization in non-nodal tissues like atrial cells, ventricular cells. This decrease in the neurotransmission of an action potential depends on the Ca⁺² ions and the quinidine can also act by blocking the Ca⁺² channels as well as B adrenergic receptor.
Thus, option D-blocking Cl channel is the correct answer.
The pharmacological effects is D. blocking Cl channel, as quinidine is not known to block chloride channels. Therefore , D. blocking Cl channel is correct .
Let's break down the provided options:
A. Blocking Na+ Channel: Quinidine is a class Ia antiarrhythmic drug that works by blocking sodium channels in cardiac cells. This action slows the rate of depolarization and prolongs the action potential duration.
B. Blocking β-Adrenergic Receptor (B adrenergic receptor): Quinidine has antiadrenergic properties, meaning it can block the effects of sympathetic stimulation mediated by beta-adrenergic receptors. This contributes to its antiarrhythmic effects.
C. Blocking Ca+ Channel: Quinidine also has the ability to block calcium channels. By inhibiting calcium influx during cardiac action potentials, quinidine helps to stabilize the electrical activity of the heart and prevent certain arrhythmias.
D. Blocking Cl Channel: Quinidine is not known for blocking chloride channels. Chloride channels play a role in regulating cell volume and membrane potential, but quinidine's main actions are focused on sodium, potassium, and calcium channels.
Quinidine's overall impact on cardiac electrophysiology involves a combination of effects on ion channels, leading to alterations in action potential duration and refractoriness. These actions help control abnormal electrical activity in the heart associated with arrhythmias.
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Osmium is a heavy metal that binds to lipid and turns black. Which of the following would you expect to be labeled most darkly?
a. Dorsal columns
b. The dorsal horn of the spinal cord
c. The somatosensory cortex
d. The ventral horn of the spinal cord
e. b and d are correct
Answer:
Dorsal column.
Explanation:
Osmium metal has the ability to binds with the lipid. Osmium is a heavy metal and it turns the area black whenever it binds with lipid.
Dorsal column sense the ability of proprioception, touch and vibration. The dorsal column of lipid is expected to be most dark due to the presence of large lipid composition in the dorsal column.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
The most important chemical regulator determining respiratory rate is _________.
Answer:
The correct answer is carbon dioxide.
Explanation:
Respiration (physical) process involves inhalation and exhalation of oxygen and carbon dioxide respectively in between the air and into the lungs to the blood. If the brain receptors sense the excess amount of carbon dioxide in the blood, they send signals the body to promote ventilation. So, the most important chemical regulator of respiration is carbon dioxide that determines the respiratory rate.
An increase in carbon dioxide concentration in blood results in a decreasing pH level of the blood, causing the person to increase his rate of ventilation.
Thus, the correct answer is carbon dioxide.
Severe irreversible damage is risked if the pressure is not relieved in 6hours.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
The answer is B: false
Explanation:
Hypertension as the name implies, are high blood pressure values. It is usually a pathology that is causing injury to many organs, such as brain, heart, kidney, progressively, until there comes a time, when the acute event occurs, whether a stroke, due to breakage of a vessel, a myocardial infarction or that the patient enters renal failure, this lesion never occurs acutely in 6 hours.
Organ System Identification and Function:
Name the correct organ system for the organs listed below.
_____________ blood vessels
_____________ uterus
_____________ spinal cord
_____________ liver
_____________ hair
Answer:
- Circulatory system: Blood vessels, arteries, veins, arteries, among others.
- Reproductive system: , Uterus,ovary, vagina, among others.
- Central nervous system (CNS): Spinal cord, brain.
- Digestive system: Liver, stomach, pancreas, intestine, among others.
- Integumentary system: Hair, nails.
When it comes to vitamins, are more always better? Explain.
Vitamins play an important role in keeping the body healthy. However, taking large doses of certain vitamins can be harmful. It's bet we get the vitamins our bodies need from eating healthy unprocessed foods.
Acromegaly
a. occurs as result levels of sustained levels somatotropin
b. occurs before fusion of epiphyseal growth plates
c. is characterized by abnormally tall stature
d. is the same pathological condition as gigantism/giantism
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Acromegaly is a hormonal disorder which is caused due to increased production of growth hormone, somatotropin. It can lead to deformation of bones, vision problems and enlargement of hands and feet.
In children this condition is known as gigantism characterized by abnormal growth associated with vision problem, heart failure and weakness.
Hence, the correct answer is option A
The renal papilla is a structure of the:
a. renal pelvis
b. renal column
c. renal cortex
d. renal pyramid
Answer:
The correct answer is option D. renal pyramid.
Explanation:
Kidney has different parts that help together for urine formation and filtration. The renal papilla is the site where renal pyramids flush urine into the minor calyx in the kidney. It is the part of the cone-shaped tissue of the kidney called a renal pyramid.
The broad base of every and each pyramid faces the papilla, points internally towards the pelvis in the kidney. The apex terminates at the papilla of the renal pyramid.
Thus, the correct answer is option D. renal pyramid.
Promotes sodium reuptake and potassium excretion by kidneys.
a. oxytocin
b. calcitonin
c. LH
d. insulin
e. aldosterone
f. ACTH
The hormone that promotes sodium reuptake and potassium excretion by the kidneys is aldosterone .
The correct answer is option E.
Here's a detailed explanation of aldosterone's role in regulating electrolyte balance and blood pressure:
Aldosterone (e): Aldosterone is a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal glands, specifically in the adrenal cortex. Its primary function is to regulate electrolyte and fluid balance in the body, primarily by acting on the kidneys. Aldosterone promotes the reabsorption of sodium ions ([tex]Na^+[/tex]) from the renal tubules into the bloodstream. This reabsorption of sodium helps to increase blood sodium levels and, subsequently, blood volume.
Conversely, aldosterone stimulates the excretion of potassium ions (K+) by the kidneys into the urine. This dual action of promoting sodium retention and potassium excretion serves to maintain electrolyte balance and regulate blood pressure.
Aldosterone secretion is tightly regulated by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). When blood pressure or blood sodium levels drop, the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys release renin. Renin initiates a series of enzymatic reactions that ultimately lead to the production and release of aldosterone. Aldosterone then acts on the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the kidneys to carry out its effects on sodium and potassium.
In summary, aldosterone, produced by the adrenal glands, plays a crucial role in maintaining electrolyte balance and blood pressure by promoting sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion by the kidneys.
Therefore, from the given options the correct one is E.
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Aldosterone is the hormone that promotes sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion by the kidneys, which helps in the regulation of blood pressure.
Explanation:The hormone that promotes sodium reuptake by the kidneys and potassium excretion is aldosterone. Aldosterone is a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal gland. It plays a critical role in the regulation of blood pressure by adjusting the concentrations of sodium and potassium in the body. In response to low sodium levels or high potassium levels in the blood, the adrenal gland releases aldosterone. This prompts the kidney cells to reabsorb more sodium into the bloodstream while excreting more potassium into urine.
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What are the exchange mechanisms of sodium & potassium into and out of the cell during cellular excitation? What is the role of water when sodium moves into and out of a cell? What is the role of calcium in this process as well?
Answer:
The water and electrolyte balances in the human body are vital for survival. Through a series of activities, either facilitated by energy, the use of certain carrier proteins and gateways in cells, or simply by the size and charge of an ion, this is the way that living cells are able to perform their activities every single second.
In a normal tissue, a cell has an outer an inner environment, that, aside from water, which is the medium that sustains all tissues, also counts with certain molecules and ions that ensure activity and survival. Thus, the human body counts with: sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, magnesium and phosphate. These all play a central role. However, none as important as sodium, potassium, calcium and water.
In order for a cell to perform certain activities, like for example, a mucle to move, there is the need for something called the action potential, and this is regulated by the influx and exit of sodium and potassium, as well as calcium. When a signal for depolarization arrives at a cell, like a muscle, then, the channels that are on a cell´s membrane will open up, allowing sodium to enter and potassium to leave (usually the are stable, Sodium outside on the extracellular environment, and potassium in the cytoplasm). The influx of positive sodium, changes the membranes electrical charge. Calcium, especially in muscle cells, will follow sodium, but mostly, it will be released from its storage inside the sarcoplasmic reticulum. While Sodium and potassium will ensure that the cell is electrically charged to fire, calcium will ensure that in a muscle cell, and in other types of cells, activities like muscle fiber contraction, and excitation, happens.
Water plays an important role as it is the medium on which both electrolytes and cells are suspended. It will always be equalized, but it tends to move to where there is a higher concentration of particles like sodium. Water does not play a role in action potential, but it will leak in and out of the cells during this process as the gateways open and close for its passage. It will later on help to take out unnecessary waste, and excess ion particles from the cell and into the bloodstream.
Give one feature/characteristic that is associated with stimulating the cephalic phase.
Answer:
Cephalic phase features are -
Explanation:
Cephalic Phase -
Cephalic phase occurs during the secretion of the gastric juices into the stomach. One interesting feature of the cephalic phase of gastrin secretion is that even before the food entering the stomach. The onset of the phase can be triggered by the sight, smell or thought of the food. The stimulation is directly proportional to the appetite. The cephalic phase stimulation is governed by certain neurogenic signals which originates from the cerebral cortex. The stimulation of the cephalic phase causes the gastric glands to release HCl in the stomach.