Answer: promoting the rapid resynthesis of ATP, by the action of creatine kinase.
Explanation:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the main form of chemical energy, its hydrolysis remaining highly exergonic. The maintenance of cellular homeostasis mechanisms, that adjust the generation processes of ATP, responds to the energy demand.
Creatine phosphate (CrP) was discovered in 1927 in the muscle tissue. Free creatine (Cr) is generated from the breakage of (CrP) during muscle contraction. Since the PCr / CK (Creatine kinase) system has a high rate of ATP generation, it is particularly important in situations of high metabolic demand, such as high-intensity physical exercise, when the ATP utilization rate exceeds its generation capacity by other metabolic pathways.
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by providing a quick source of energy during high-intensity, short-duration activities.
Explanation:Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by providing a quick source of energy during high-intensity, short-duration activities.
When the muscle requires energy, creatine phosphate transfers its phosphate group to ADP, converting it back into ATP, which can be used by the muscle for contraction.
This process allows the muscle to continue contracting even when the supply of ATP is depleted.
Learn more about Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell here:https://brainly.com/question/32107530
#SPJ11
Miguel's wife brought him to the emergency room because Miguel could not remember his name, the names of his family members, where he worked, or any other basic personal information. Extensive tests at the hospital indicated that Miguel's memory problems were not due to an injury, an illness, drugs, or any other physical or medical condition. A clinical psychologist suggested that Miguel might be suffering from:
Answer:
Dissociative Disorder
Explanation:
Dissociative Disorder, also known as conversion disorder, is a mental disorder in which the person suffers from a psychological imbalance, with alterations in consciousness, memory, identity, emotion, perception of the environment, movement control and behavior. A common symptom of this disorder is the non-recognition of family members, as well as a loss of memory of things that were done on a daily basis.
Miguel is showing this kind of symptom so there is a chance that he is suffering from dissociative disorder.
32. There are 4.18 calories in 1 gram of starch. True False
Answer:
The correct answer will be option true.
Explanation:
Starch is a polysaccharide made up of the glucose monomer bonded via α 1,4 linkage. The starch is an important source of carbohydrate present in the human diet present in the food material like potato which is a great reservoir of starch.
One gram of starch upon oxidation provides about 4 gram of calories, protein provides 4 gram and fats provide 9 gm of calories.
Thus, the option true is the correct answer.
The statement is False, as starch contains about 4 calories per gram. Using the given caloric content for carbohydrates, one teaspoon of sucrose weighs approximately 3.9 grams.
Explanation:The statement that there are 4.18 calories in 1 gram of starch is False. When referring to the caloric content of macronutrients, carbohydrates such as starch generally contain about 4 calories per gram. This is a standard value used for basic nutritional calculations. Calories, in the context of food energy, are often talked about using a capitalized 'Calorie' which is equivalent to a kilocalorie and reflects the amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of one kilogram of water by one degree Celsius.
With respect to the question at hand, we can calculate the mass of a teaspoon of sucrose by using the given information that 16 Calories are found in one teaspoon, and the average caloric content of carbohydrates is 4.1 Calories per gram.
To find the mass in grams, we divide the total calories by the calories per gram:
Mass = Total Calories / Calories per Gram
Mass = 16 Calories / 4.1 Calories/g = 3.9 grams.
Therefore, one teaspoon of sucrose weighs approximately 3.9 grams.
Do you think all organisms rely on the Sun in part for energy? Explain your reasoning.
Yes:
At the bottom of every food chain are producers. They make up the backbone of life on earth. Without organisms that take energy from the sun and convert it to usable energy, where would all the other organisms, like us, get our energy? While many times it is indirect, all organisms, in part, rely on the sun for energy and in turn, for life.
The Sun is the main source of energy for organisms and the ecosystems of that they are a part. Producers such as algae and plants use energy in the from sunlight to form food energy by uniting carbon dioxide and water to form organic matter.
What is food web?A food web defined as all the food chains in a single ecosystem. Each living thing in an ecosystem forms part of multiple food chains. Each food chain is one viable path through which energy and nutrients may take as they move through the ecosystem.
This process starts the energy flow through almost all food webs. Food is organic molecules which serve as fuel and forming material for all organisms. The breakdown of food molecules able the cells to store energy and to performs the many functions of the cell and therefore the entire organism.
For more information regarding food web, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/2179
#SPJ2
Rh blood factor is determined by:
the presence or absence of a particular leukocyte
the presence or absence of a particular erythrocyte protein
the presence or absence of a particular plasma
the positive or negative characteristics of platelets
Answer: Rh boold factor is determined by the presnce or absence of a particular erythrocyte protein
Explanation:
The Rh factor is an integral protein of the membrane of red blood cells (erythrocytes) and, by its determination, the blood type RH + or RH- is detected, -regardless of the types of groups known as 0, A, B and AB- .
People who are RH + are those who have this protein in their red blood cells, and people with RH - refer to those who do not have the protein.
The Rh factor (Rhesus) was discovered by Karl Landsteiner and Wiener in 1940.
----------------------
I hope it is useful for you!. Regards. María
Answer:
Rh blood factor is determined by the presence or absence of a particular erythrocyte protein
Which statement is true of the genetic material in viruses? It is larger than cellular DNA. It can be DNA or protein. It changes very slowly. It can be DNA or RNA.
Answer:
C. It can be DNA or RNA
Explanation:
Viruses can be described as non cellular, microscopic, infective agent that are composed of genetic material ( DNA or RNA), which is surrounded by a protenaceous coat known as viral capsid.
It means that there can be RNA ( ribonucleic acid) and DNA ( deoxyribonucleic acid) based viruses.
Cells of the excretory tubule _________BLANKwater by osmosis, from which we can conclude that the solute concentration in these cells must be _________BLANK than in the filtrate. Question 5 choices Choice
Answer:
The correct answer will be option
1. reabsorb
2. higher
Explanation:
In the urinary pathway, the renal tubules comprise of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT), Loop of Henle and proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) mainly but collecting tubule is also considered as apart of the renal tubule. The main function of the renal tubules is re-absorption of water, electrolytes, and other important ions like sodium, potassium.
The thin descending loop of Henle reabsorbs water by osmosis or passive diffusion of water that is water will move from the high concentration to low concentration. This shows that the cells will have a high solute concentration of solute than filtrate due to which water moves from outside to inside of the cell.
Thus, reabsorb and higher are the correct options.
The type of bond that joins monosaccharides and is easily digested by enzymes in the human intestine is a __________. delta bond peptide bond beta bond alpha bond
Answer: alpha bond
Explanation:
The carbohydrates popularly called sugars are energy nutrients formed by carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. It is the main energy source of the man and also has a structural or plastic role (formation of parts of cells such as the cell wall, or tissues, such as the exoskeleton chitin of the insects and crustaceans - crab). The small intestine's main mission is to complete the digestion of the chyme. In its passage through the duodenum, it suffers the action of pancreatic and intestinal juices and bile. In fact, it is in the duodenum that most digestive secretions are produced. The foods complexes are thus transformed into simple elements, easily assimilable by the body.
Enzymes are protein catalysts responsible for most of the chemical reactions of the organism, is found in all tissues. Amylase acts in the intestine hydrolyzing glucose polymers (starch, amylopectin, and glycogen). The bonds that hold the monosaccharides together and which are easily digested by pancreatic amylase in the intestine are known as alpha bonds. Some examples of sugars that have alpha bonds are sucrose, maltose, and starch.
The type of bond that joins monosaccharides and is easily digested by enzymes in human intestine is an alpha bond.
Further Explanation:
Carbohydrates are biomolecules which comprises of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. They mostly include starch, cellulose and sugars. This when consumed by an organism is broken down into its simplest form (monosaccharides) and used to produce energy. This action requires digestive enzyme amylase.
Monosaccharides are most simple sugars which are product of breakdown of complex carbohydrates. Breakdown of these carbohydrates are brought by digestive enzymes present in saliva and in small intestine. The enzyme responsible for this digestion is salivary amylase and pancreatic amylase.
These enzymes cleave the bond and giving rise to two monosaccharides. These bonds are alpha bonds that help in connecting two monosaccharides. The digestive enzyme amylase present in saliva and in pancreatic juices helps to bring down the digestion. The partially digested food reaches the intestine where the enzyme acts on it, this is called as chyme.
Glucose is the most abundant form of energy giving compound which undergoes respiration to form ATP which is a basic energy giving molecule in the entire living organism.
Learn More:
1. Learn more about carbohydrate monomer https://brainly.com/question/6947177
2. Learn more about lipid bilayer https://brainly.com/question/751529
3. Learn more about peptide bonds https://brainly.com/question/4657391
Answer Details:
Grade: High School
Subject: Biology
Chapter: Biochemistry
Keywords:
Biochemistry, monosaccharides, alpha bond, Bond, alpha linkage, enzymes, amylase, salivary amylase, pancreatic amylase, biomolecules, hydrogen, carbon, oxygen, energy, basic energy fuel, ATP, glucose, starch, sugar, cellulose.
Can i put hydrogen peroxide in my dogs ear
Answer: Yes you can
Explanation:A solution of one part hydrogen peroxide and one part water can be used to wipe out the canals of the ear with a cotton ball for a dog with a mild infection post-veterinarian approval. ... Hydrogen peroxide can kill forms of bacteria that can cause ear infections, which will leave your dog earache free.
While hydrogen peroxide can be used to clean a dog's ear due to its antibacterial properties, it needs to be diluted and used with care. It's always recommended to consult with a veterinarian before attempting this.
Explanation:Yes, you can put hydrogen peroxide in your dog's ear, but it should be used carefully and only when necessary. Hydrogen peroxide has antibacterial properties and can be used to clean wounds, including those inside a dog's ear. However, it should be diluted before use. A dilution of 1 part peroxide to 1 part water is generally considered safe. You should apply it using a cotton ball or soft cloth, making sure not to poke it deep inside the ear. Always consult with your veterinarian before attempting this procedure, as inappropriate usage could potentially harm your pet.
Learn more about Hydrogen Peroxide in Dogs' Ears here:https://brainly.com/question/31629945
#SPJ12
Which properties of water plays an important role in the movement of water from the roots to the leaves in plants?Universal solventhigh specific heathigh heat of vaporizationcapillary action
Answer:
Capillary action
Explanation:
Capillary action is the ability of a liquid to flow in narrow spaces in opposition to forces like gravity.
Which of the following statements is always TRUE about sister taxa on a phylogenetic tree? Sister taxa are always defined by shared ancestral characteristics that have been modified in all other taxa in the phylogeny.Sister taxa always share a most recent common ancestor that is not shared with any other taxon on the phylogeny.Sister taxa are always the result of speciation events that result in two new genera.Sister taxa are always the result of the most recent divergence event represented on a phylogeny.
Answer:
Sister taxa always share a most recent common ancestor that is not shared with any other taxon on the phylogeny.
Explanation:
Phylogenetic trees are diagrams representing these relationships of ancestry and descent, consisting of lines that branch according to the past existence of an event that transformed one species into two new species. The junction of this fork is called a knot, where it represents this moment of diversification and the common ancestor of the species that are located at the tip of each fork.
In this type of diagram it is possible to see that sister taxa always share a more recent common ancestor that is not shared with any other phylogeny taxon. This is because sister taxa are the closest monophyletic group to another monophyletic group. Both sister taxa share a unique common ancestor.
Sister taxa on a phylogenetic tree always share a most recent common ancestor that isn't shared with any other taxon on the phylogeny; they stem from the same branch point and continue to evolve separately.
Explanation:The statement that is always TRUE about sister taxa on a phylogenetic tree is: Sister taxa always share a most recent common ancestor that is not shared with any other taxon on the phylogeny. When two lineages stem from the same branch point on a phylogenetic tree, they are recognized as sister taxa. For example, the two species of orangutans would be considered sister taxa. This common ancestor no longer exists, and each sister taxon has continued to evolve separately. Therefore, sister taxa do not imply that one taxon evolved from the other, but rather that both diverged from a shared, common ancestor in the past.
Contrary to some of the misconceptions, sister taxa are not necessarily defined by shared ancestral characteristics that have been modified in all other taxa, nor do they always result in speciation events that form new genera. Also, sister taxa may not be the result of the most recent divergence event represented on a phylogeny; there could be many other recent divergence events depicted on the phylogenetic tree.
Rat-tail tangs are preferable to full tangs in knives that will be used frequently.
a. True
b. False
The statement "Rat-tail tangs are preferable to fold tangs in knives that will be used frequently" is absolutely false.
What is a rat-tail tangs knife?A rat-tail tangs knife may be defined as a more drastic knife tang that utilizes less stock material and resembles a rat due to the structure which is significantly narrower than the blade.
The structure of this knife is constructed in such a way that the blade is the thick body of the rat, while the tang looks like the thin tail of a rat.
Rat-tail tangs are not preferably folded in knives and it always put in open form with visible blade and tang.
Therefore, it is well described above.
To learn more about Notation knives, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/11224749
#SPJ2
To find the graphical solution when adding vectors, you can draw a(n) ____ from the starting point to the ending point.
Answer:
arrow (which creates the resultant vector)
Explanation:
When you use the graphing technique when adding vectors, you can use the head to tail method to draw the vectors. And from the starting point or the tail of the first vector you drew, you will draw an arrow touching heads with the head of the last vector drawn.
With that, you can use a ruler to measure the resultant vector's magnitude, and use a protractor to measure it's direction.
Below is an example:
Let:
V1 = Vector 1
V2 = Vector 2
R - resultant vector.
Lymphoid organs limit the spread of disease by filtering and trapping microscopic pathogens, preventing them from traveling elsewhere in the body. Which of the following statements correctly links a functional or structural feature with the appropriate lymphoid organ? (A) The outer cortex of the thymus consists of lymphoid follicles separated by inward extensions of the capsule called trabeculae.(B) Red pulp, found in the spleen, contains macrophages that destroy old erythrocytes.(C) White pulp in the lymph nodes contains macrophages and leukocytes that filter pathogens from lymph.(D) The lymph nodes secrete hormones that produce functional T cells, which protect the body from pathogens.
Answer:
(B) Red pulp, found in the spleen, contains macrophages that destroy old erythrocytes.
Answer:
(B) Red pulp, found in the spleen, contains macrophages that destroy old erythrocytes.
Explanation:
Lymphoid organs limit the spread of disease by filtering and trapping microscopic pathogens, preventing them from traveling elsewhere in the body. Red pulp, found in the spleen, contains macrophages that destroy old erythrocytes correctly links a functional or structural feature with the appropriate lymphoid organ.
All of the following contribute to the movement of venous blood EXCEPT A. ventricular systole B. pressure changes in the thorax C. venous valves D. activity of skeletal muscles E. neural control over venoconstriction
Answer: B. pressure changes in the thorax
Explanation:
The veins are the blood vessels which returns the deoxygenated blood from all the tissues and cells of the body back to the heart. The ventricular systole, venous valves, activity of the skeletal muscles and neural control over venoconstriction all influence the movement of the blood in the venous.
The pressure changes in the thorax occurs due to inspiration and expiration. During the process of inspiration, the diaphragm below the lungs contracts and moves downward while the muscles of the ribs pulls downward. When the size of the thoracic cavity increase the air pressure inside the cavity decreases and vice-versa. The pressure inside the thoracic cavity is not related with the movement of the venous blood as it regulates the exchange of the gases not the blood.
Ventricular systole does not contribute to venous blood flow; it impacts arterial flow. Venous return is aided by thoracic pressure changes, venous valves, skeletal muscle activity, and neural control over venoconstriction.
Explanation:The question asks which factors do not contribute to the movement of venous blood. The correct answer is A. ventricular systole, as this specifically refers to the contraction of the ventricles in the heart, which directly impacts the arterial blood flow rather than venous return. Venous blood movement is influenced by pressure changes in the thorax during respiration, the presence of venous valves preventing backflow, the activity of skeletal muscles which helps to 'pump' the blood back toward the heart, and neural control over venoconstriction which regulates the diameter of the veins to ensure proper blood flow.
Factors contributing to the return of blood to the heart include the smooth muscle action within the venous walls, venous valves, the skeletal muscle pump, and venoconstriction. These mechanisms work together to maintain a continuous flow of venous blood back to the heart despite the lower pressure compared to arteries and the pull of gravity, especially in the extremities.
time and velocity are both factors True or false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Time and velocity are NOT both vectors.
Velocity equals distance travelled divided by the time it takes to get there.
Which of the following statements correctly describes cis-trans isomers?
A) They have variations in arrangement around a double bond.
B) They have an asymmetric carbon that makes them mirror images.
C) They have the same chemical properties.
D) They have different molecular formulas.
E) Their atoms and bonds are arranged in different sequences.
Answer:
A, they have variations in arrangement around a double bond.
Explanation:
If you look up a picture of cis trans isomers, you can see that both the cis and the trans isomer has a double bond. However, the other elements have a different arrangement. They are not mirror images, that would be enantiomers.
Hope this helps!
Cis-trans isomers are a type of stereoisomers which have the same molecular formula but different spatial arrangements due to a restricted rotation around a double bond. The correct description among the given choices is A) - they have variations in arrangement around a double bond. Other choices B), C), D), and E) refer to enantiomers, general chemical properties of isomers, structural isomers, and common feature of isomers respectively, not specifically cis-trans isomers.
Explanation:Cis-trans isomers are a type of stereoisomers where the atoms have different arrangements due to the restricted rotation around a double bond. The most accurate statement that describes cis-trans isomers among the choices provided is A) They have variations in arrangement around a double bond. While they share the same molecular formula, the spatial arrangement of these atoms is what distinguishes one from the other.
Here is a simple example: Let us consider a compound with formula C2H2Cl2. It may exist as either the cis-isomer or the trans-isomer. In the cis-isomer, the two chlorine (Cl) atoms are on the same side of the carbon (C) double bond, while in the trans-isomer, the Cl atoms are on opposite sides of the double bond.
Regarding the other choices, B) is incorrect as that describes enantiomers, D) is incorrect as isomers have the same molecular formulas but different spatial arrangements, C) is partly untrue as they do have some similar chemical properties due to having the same functional groups, but may behave differently due to different polarities, and E) is also incorrect as this describes structural isomers, not cis-trans isomers.
Learn more about Cis-trans Isomers here:https://brainly.com/question/31610429
#SPJ6
What information must be considered to determine whether a specific molecule will pass through a biological membrane?
Answer:
Size, polarity, and direction of concentration gradient
Explanation:
A biological membrane is a semipermeable lipid bilayer.
Size
Only small, nonpolar molecules can move through the lipid bilayer. Oxygen, and carbon dioxide are examples. Even though they are polar, water and ethanol are also small enough to pass through the membrane
Polarity
Smaller lipids (nonpolar) can also pass through the membrane. Polar molecules (like glucose and amino acids) and ions (like Na⁺ and K⁺) cannot pass through without assistance.
Concentration gradient
Small molecules diffuse spontaneously from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Such movement is called passive transport.
Special channels allow polar glucose and amino acids to diffuse through the membrane while avoiding the lipid bilayer. This is facilitated diffusion.
Ions and molecules that must be moved against a concentration gradient must go through special channels using energy from ATP. This is active transport.
Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
A. They are phagocytic.
B. They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.
C. They are nucleated.
D. They have cytoplasmic granules.
Answer: They are nucleated
Explanation:
That is the right answer, not all leukocytes have the other characteristics....
The characteristic of all leukocytes is - C. They are nucleated.
Leukocytes are the major part of the body's immune system that fights in body with infection and other diseases. Types of leukocytes cells are granulocytes, monocytes, and lymphocytes cells.
These cells leave the bloodstream to perform their defensive functions in the body's tissuesAll white blood cells are nucleated, unlike anucleated red blood cells and platelets.These cells do not have hemoglobin that carries oxygen in RBC.Thus, The characteristic of all leukocytes is - C. They are nucleated.
Learn more about types of Leukocytes:
https://brainly.com/question/13774711
A urine sample with more than 100,000 organisms is considered indicative of infection. A urine sample containing 5,000 bacteria, with a generation time of 30 minutes, sits for 3 hours before finally being assayed. How many bacteria will then be present within the sample?
Answer:
320 000
Explanation:
The generation time G is the time it takes a bacterial population to double.
If N₀ is the number of bacteria at the beginning of the experiment and N is the number at any time t,
N = Nₒ × 2ⁿ
where n is the number of generations
n = t/G
Data:
N₀ = 5000
G = 30 min
t = 3 h
Calculations:
t = 3 h = 180 min
n = 180 min/30 min = 6
N = 5000 × 2⁶ = 5000 × 64 = 320 000
There will be 320 000 bacteria in the sample.
The cell cycle results in the production of ______. four diploid cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information two diploid cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information two diploid cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information a diploid zygote four haploid cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
Final answer:
The cell cycle through meiosis results in the production of four haploid daughter cells, each with half the genetic material of the parent cell and different genetic information, due to processes like crossing over and random assortment.
Explanation:
The Cell Cycle and Meiosis
The cell cycle, specifically through the process of meiosis, results in the production of four haploid daughter cells, each with half the amount of genetic material compared to the parent cell, and with different genetic information. During meiosis, a single diploid cell undergoes one round of DNA replication followed by two successive rounds of nuclear division to form four haploid cells. These haploid cells are genetically unique due to the random assortment of chromosomes (maternal and paternal) and crossing over that mixes DNA segments between chromatids.
Initially, the parent cell has 46 chromosomes (23 pairs), and after meiosis, each of the resulting haploid cells contains 23 chromosomes. These cells are destined to become gametes. Upon fertilization, the combination of a haploid sperm and a haploid egg results in the creation of a diploid zygote.
Therefore, the correct answer regarding the outcome of the cell cycle is "four haploid cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information." This differs from mitosis, which produces two diploid daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes? A) support and brace neuronsB) anchor neurons to blood vesselsC) guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability D) control the chemical environment around neuronsE) provide the defense for the CNS
Answer:
provide the defense for the CNS
Explanation:
Astrocytes are star shaped glial cells present in the central nervous system. These cells are known to perform important function in the organisms.
The different function performed by astrocytes are: the maintenance of extracellular ion,acts as a blood brain barrier and helps in synapse formation. Astrocytes do not provide defense for the CNS.
Thus, the correct answer is option (E).
A plasmid contains the gene for tetracycline resistance and a lacz gene that has a restriction site in it. Foreign dna has the same restriction site at its ends. A mixture of foreign dna and plasmid dna cut with the same restriction enzyme is used to transform host bacteria that are then grown on medium with tetracycline and x-gal. Colonies that are producing β-galactosidase and are tetracycline resistant are carrying
Answer:
The colonies are carrying the resistance genes from plasmids
Explanation:
Bacteria can acquire beneficial characteristics that they didn’t have. One way for these is through plasmids, which ones are little fragments of DNA that usually contains resistance genes (for antibiotics, disinfectants, heavy metals, etc.) or other capacities, like the ability to use some substances (for example sugars).
In this specific situation, we already know that the plasmid carrying genes for tetracycline resistance and the lacZ gene.
A little explanation:
Tetracycline is an antibiotic that inhibits bacterial growth and kills the bacteria. The bacteria can “fight” to this antibiotic if it has a resistant gene, the result is that the antibiotic can’t affect the bacteria and survive. An analogy is like a Police Officer (bacteria) that have a bulletproof vest (tetracycline-resistant gene) so the bullets (tetracycline) didn’t affect the police.
In the case of X-gal, is a compound consisting primarily in one sugar called galactose. Not all bacteria can eat galactose, they need an enzyme called β- galactosidase (comes from lacZ gene) that helps the bacteria “eat” the sugar (cuts the sugar in little pieces so the bacteria can eat).
Then, as the bacterial colonies can grow in the medium with tetracycline and X-gal, we know that those bacteria are carrying the resistance genes for tetracycline (does not affect the bacteria) and the lacZ gene (bacteria produce β- galactosidase that cuts galactose). These genes are coming from the plasmids because we already know that the plasmid carries these genes and not from the exogenous DNA.
Which of the following would not occur if the accessory organs of the digestive system were not present?
A.Carbohydrate absorption in the intestine
B. Water absorption in the intestine
C. Bile production
D. Pepsin production
Bile production would not occur if the accessory organ like liver of the digestive system is not present.
Option C
Explanation:
Accessory organs of digestive system are those organs whose product take part in digestion but are not directly connected to the digestive tract. These accessory organs are liver, pancreas, salivary glands, gallbladder, and tongue.
Bile juice is produced by liver and stored in gallbladder. It is then released in to the "Duodenum" where it mixes with the food which was digested in the stomach. It neutralizes the gastric acid in the food which came from stomach to prepare it for small intestine. It also emulsify bulk fat into smaller fatty acids and facilitates the intestinal absorption of fat soluble biomolecules.
In Europe, approximately 4% of people are red-haired, mostly due to a recessive mutation in the melanocortin 1 receptor (MC1R). If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the likelihood that a non-redheaded European is a carrier for the MC1Rr allele? (For the purpose of this problem, assume all redheads and carriers are mutant for the same MC1R allele).
A: 22%
B: 33%
C: 11%
D: 44%
Answer:
33%.
Explanation:
The 4% population is red-hair due to the recessive mutation in melanocortin 1 receptor (MC1R).
Since, the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equillibrium- laet the frequency of recessive allele with red - hair is 'q' and the frequency of dominant allele in the population is 'p'.
[tex]q^{2} =4\%[/tex]
[tex]q^{2} = 0.04[/tex]
q=0.2
According to hardy-weinberg equillibrium
(p+q)=1
p=1-q
p=1-0.2
p=0.8.
The total population with non red hair is calculated by
=[tex]p^{2} +2pq[/tex]
= 0.64 + 0.32
= 0.96
The percentage of the population with non red headed carrier for MC1Rr is calculated by:
=0.32/0.96*100
=33%
Thus, the correct answer is (B).
How does a competitive inhibitor slow enzyme catalysis?
Answer:
By preventing the binding of substrate to active site
Explanation:
Competitive inhibitors exhibit a type of reversible inhibition. These are the substances that bind to the binding site of the substrate on the enzyme, that is the active site.
One the competitive inhibitor is bound to the active site on the enzyme, the substrate cannot bind to it and there is no enzyme-substrate complex formation. Hence, the competitive inhibitor inhibits/slow down the enzyme catalysis by occupying the active site of the enzyme and thereby not allowing the substrate to bind to the enzyme.
A competitive inhibitor slows enzyme catalysis by binding to the active site, preventing the substrate from binding.
Explanation:A competitive inhibitor slows enzyme catalysis by binding to the active site of the enzyme, preventing the substrate from binding. The inhibitor competes with the substrate for the active site, reducing the amount of enzyme-substrate complexes formed and slowing down the overall reaction rate. This can be illustrated using the example of succinate dehydrogenase, where the competitive inhibitor, malonate, competes with the substrate, succinate, and slows down the conversion of succinate to fumarate.
Learn more about competitive inhibitor here:https://brainly.com/question/34728055
#SPJ3
Articular cartilage of a long bone is found Select one: a. on the outer surface of the epiphyses. b. inside the medullary cavity. c. on the outer surface of the diaphysis. d. in the spaces of the spongy bone.
Answer:
a. on the outer surface of the epiphyses.
Explanation:
Articular cartilage of a long bone is found on the outer surface of the epiphyses.
The articular cartilage is found on the outer surface of the epiphyses of a long bone. It is notable that these areas don't have periosteum, as they function to form joints with other bones. These cartilage layers help reduce friction and act as shock absorbers during joint movement.
Explanation:In understanding the location of the articular cartilage of a long bone, it's important to know the structure of such a bone. A typical long bone is made up of two main parts - the diaphysis, or the shaft, and the epiphyses, being the wider sections at each end of the bone. The latter are filled with spongy bone and red marrow.
The articular cartilage functions in reducing friction in joints and acts as a shock absorber. According to the provided information, the articular cartilage in long bones is found on the outer surface of the epiphyses, particularly in regions where these epiphyses form joints with other bones. It's notable that these areas are an exception to the places covered by another type of tissue called periosteum, which surrounds the outer surface of the bone. So, the correct answer should be (a).
Learn more about Articular Cartilage in Long Bones here:https://brainly.com/question/26417063
#SPJ5
Chemoreceptors in the circulatory system detect changes in circulating pCO2. If CO2 concentrations get too high, the rate of ventilation increases. Why does this make sense?
Answer: The more active cells produce more carbon dioxide.
Explanation:
When the cells are constantly working the amount of oxygen consumed and more amount of carbon dioxide is released by the cells.
Chemo receptors in the circulatory system increases the ventilation so that more carbon dioxide can go out of the cell and more oxygen can get inside the cell.
This is because the more active cells more carbon dioxide and there is a sudden increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide which need to be corrected by the help of ventilation.
Early scientists used morphological characteristics to create a phylogeny of animals, but recently, DNA sequence data have helped in the revision of phylogenies of taxa within the larger groups (i.e., bilaterians, sponges, cnidarians). Why are morphological characteristics like “fate of the blastopore” or “body symmetry” relatively good at predicting larger-scale branching patterns on phylogenies?
Answer: the development of these features is controlled genetically, therefore similarities in DNA sequence would be expected in more closely related data.
Explanation:
Phylogenies or Phylogenesis is the evolution of a genetically related group of organisms as being different from the development of the individual organism.
What does the endocrine system consist of
Answer:
Hypothalamus, pituitary, parathyroids, thyroid, adrenals, pineal body and reproductive organs.
These are the glands that secrete and produce hormones.
The endocrine system consists of glands that produce hormones, which are chemical messengers that regulate body functions by traveling through the bloodstream to target cells. Key components include the pituitary gland, hypothalamus, thyroid, pancreas, and adrenal glands.
The endocrine system is a complex network of glands and organs that produce, store, and secrete hormones. It is crucial for maintaining homeostasis and orchestrating the physiological processes in the body. The system includes the pituitary gland, often termed the 'master gland,' as it regulates other glands in the endocrine system. Other vital parts include the thyroid gland, pancreas, adrenal glands, parathyroids, and the hypothalamus, which is a neural structure that links the nervous system to the endocrine system and controls many of the pituitary's functions.
Hormones released by these glands are like chemical messengers that travel through the bloodstream to various tissues and organs. They enable long-distance communication within the body by binding to specific receptors on the target cells. This can influence a wide range of processes, including metabolism, growth, sexual development, and mood regulation. Some organs like the pancreas have dual roles that include endocrine functions, such as the secretion of insulin and glucagon to manage blood glucose levels. Other tissues, like adipose (fat) and bone, also have hormone-producing roles, illustrating the endocrine system's extensive impact on the body's functions.
Once researchers identified DNA as the molecule responsible for transmitting heritable traits, they asked how information was transferred from the DNA in the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. Which of the following statements correctly describes the mechanism of information transfer in eukaryotes that accomplishes this task?
A) Transfer RNA takes information from DNA directly to a ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place.
B) Histone proteins in the chromosomes transfer information from the nucleus to the ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place.
C) Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place.
D) DNA from a single gene is replicated and transferred to the cytoplasm, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis
Answer:
C) Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place.
Explanation:
DNA transfers the heredity information from parents to the offspring, via central dogma. DNA transcripts its information into messenger RNA, inside the nucleus via RNA polymerase and addition of base pairs.
This transcript of RNA carries the information encoded on it. It translates its information into proteins in the cytoplasm, According to the mRNA sequences the amino acid codons are created that form the specific peptides. This is how information is transferred from DNA in the nucleus and then to the cytoplasm.