Answer:
The correct answer will be both ferns and angiosperms number will decrease in area.
Explanation:
The creek is a geographical term used for the minor tributary of a river. When this creek passes through any forest it can act as a source of water to the plants growing in nearby areas which requires plant for their growth and development.
In the given condition when this creek was diverted to the agriculture land caused drying up of creek which influenced plant life present it that area as:
1. Ferns: they will show a decline in their number as they require water not just for their growth but also to complete their life cycle. Their reproduction is incomplete without water as their male gametes need water for fertilization.
2. Angiosperms: the flowering plants will also decrease in the nearby area as they absorb water to maintain their structure, growth and development like water helps in the opening of petals of a flower (reproductive structure).
Thus, both ferns and angiosperms number will decrease in area is the correct answer.
Primary consumers _____. are the first to receive energy from a plant receive energy directly from the sun make their own food using photosynthesis break down dead matter into chemical nutrients
Answer:
Primary consumers are the first to receive energy from a plant. Because primary consumers eat plants.
Hope this helped!
Explanation:
scientists classify organisms in groups based on:
|.evolutionary phylogeny.
II. DNA analysis.
III. embryology.
IV. morphology.
Answer:
All of them, I just did study island
Explanation:
A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who has symptoms of derealization is
The correct answer to the question is (d) experiencing reduced responsiveness. Symptoms of derealization in PTSD are indicative of a dissociative response, which is associated with a sense of the external world being unreal and a detachment from reality.
When a person with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing symptoms of derealization, they are typically undergoing a phenomenon where the external world feels strange or unreal. This sense of derealization is one of the many potential responses to trauma, as described by the American Psychiatric Association. It is not directly indicative of increased arousal, reexperiencing of the trauma, or avoidance, but rather can be associated with a reduced responsiveness to the external environment, which aligns with a feeling of disconnection or detachment from the world.
PTSD is characterized by four main types of symptoms: re-experiencing, avoidance, hyperarousal and hypervigilance, and negative alterations in mood or cognition. Derealization is a form of dissociation, often arising in response to a traumatic experience. It represents a psychological coping mechanism that is sometimes employed by individuals to manage the overwhelming stress and anxiety associated with PTSD. This detachment from reality serves as a protective barrier against the pain of fully engaging with traumatic memories or the external cues that evoke them.
The correct answer to the question about a person with PTSD who has symptoms of derealization is (d) experiencing reduced responsiveness. This reduction in responsiveness is closely related to the dissociation category within the cluster of PTSD symptoms. It reflects a complex mental state that goes beyond mere avoidance or direct reexperiencing of trauma.
What glands in the axilla become active at puberty?
Huntington’s disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. What was the probability of children #1 and #2 inheriting the disorder, and did child #3 have a chance to get Huntington’s disease?
What three key features allow prokaryotic populations to consist of trillions of individuals?
Jane had leukemia as a child and had to undergo numerous bouts of chemotherapy. she had associated the waiting room with nausea. now 35 years old, she had to take her mother to the same hospital for breast cancer treatment. she became nauseous while in the waiting room with her mother. her nausea best illustrates:
The nausea is considered to be an unconditioned response. An unconditioned response occurs when it is associated with an unconditioned stimulus causing a response to naturally occur in which would be classified as an unconditioned response after it has been previously associated with the unconditioned stimulus.
The different types of cells in a body contain identical sets of DNA molecules. However, the structures and functions of the cell types vary widely.
Explain how the differences among various types of body cells arise from gene expression.
Gene expression determines the differences between different types of body cells.
What is gene expression?The process by which the information encoded in a gene is converted into a function is known as gene expression.
The differences between different types of body cells are determined by gene expression.
Gene expression refers to the process by which the information encoded in a gene is used to direct the synthesis of a functional gene product, such as a protein.
The differences between different types of body cells stem from differences in gene expression regulation.
The same set of genes exists in all cell types in the body, but the specific genes that are turned on or off, the extent of their expression, and the processing of their RNA and protein products are what give rise to the unique structures and functions of each cell type.
Thus, this way, the differences among various types of body cells arise from gene expression.
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Which of these four gene parts should allow the construction of the most accurate phylogenetic tree, assuming that this is the only part of the gene that has acted as a reliable molecular clock?]?
How many carbon atoms are in the products of cellular respiration? Hydrogen atoms? Oxygen atoms?
Plz help!
In cellular respiration, there are six carbon atoms, twelve hydrogen atoms, and eighteen oxygen atoms in the products, which are consistent with the conservation of mass and the stoichiometry of the balanced equation for cellular respiration.
Explanation:The subject of this question is Biology, specifically focusing on cellular respiration and the stoichiometry of its reactants and products. In the process of cellular respiration, one molecule of glucose is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O). A molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) has six carbon atoms, twelve hydrogen atoms, and six oxygen atoms.
During cellular respiration, the six carbon atoms originally present in glucose are fully converted into six molecules of carbon dioxide (CO2), each containing one carbon atom. Therefore, there are also six carbon atoms in the products of cellular respiration.
Regarding hydrogen atoms, each molecule of water (H2O) contains two hydrogen atoms. Since cellular respiration produces six molecules of water, there are twelve hydrogen atoms in the products of cellular respiration.
For the oxygen atoms, each CO2 molecule contains two oxygen atoms and each H2O molecule contains one oxygen atom. Since there are six CO2 molecules and six H2O molecules produced, the total number of oxygen atoms in the products is:
(6 CO2 molecules x 2 O atoms/molecule) + (6 H2O molecules x 1 O atom/molecule) = 18 oxygen atoms in the products.
Finally, the balanced equation for cellular respiration confirms that both sides of the equation have the same amount of carbons (C), hydrogens (H), and oxygens (O), consistent with the law of conservation of mass.
The ________ receives messages from muscles, tendons, joints, and structures in our ear to control balance, coordination, movement, and motor skills.
Answer:
The cerebellum receives messages from muscles, tendons, joints and structures in our ear to control balance, coordination, movement and motor skills.
Explanation:
The cerebellum is a structure of the central nervous system. It is the largest part of the brain after the brain. It is located in the back and bottom of the skull.
The main function of the cerebellum is to integrate motor and sensory pathways. Simply put, it receives information and orders from the cerebral cortex and connects them to the musculoskeletal system. It also handles some processes of memory, language, attention, learning among other functions. However the cerebellum is not responsible for any of the functions of the olfactory system.
The cerebellum is also responsible for the physiological tremor. It is for this reason that in the face of an injury in this part of the brain there is no paralysis but disorders can be generated in motor performance, balance or body postures. Now they are familiar tasks for decades, just as we know that it is key in motor learning. Also, this structures carries out very sophisticated tasks. One of them is the neural programs for the control of the learned movements. Thanks to him we carry out automatic actions, such as driving a car.
The perirhinal cortex is particularly important in ________ and receives more input from ________ than from ___________
Which statement best explains how natural selection determines differential survival when a population is under resource stress?
A.
Individuals with favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than those with less favorable traits.
B.
Groups of individuals whose traits are very similar are more likely to survive and reproduce than groups whose individuals are genetically diverse.
C.
Groups whose individuals are generalists are more likely to survive and reproduce than groups of individuals who are specialists.
D.
Individuals who possess more common genotypes are more likely to survive and reproduce than those who possess rarer genotypes.
Answer: The correct answer is- A. Individuals with favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than those with less favorable traits.
Natural selection is an evolutionary process according to which individuals that can better adapt to the changing environmental conditions, survive and produce more of their kind through reproduction.
In other words, individuals with beneficial/ favorable traits ( for survival and reproduction) are selected and others are eliminated. In this way, natural selection determines differential survival when a population is under resource stress.
Thus, option A) is the right answer.
Explain how a white fence appears to be white. In your answer, include the colors of light that your eye detects and tell how your brain interprets those colors.
A white fence appears to be white due to the presence of photoreceptors in the retina.
What is the retina?The retina is a layer of nervous tissue which is stimulated by sunlight, thereby leading to the vision of colors.
This layer (retina) has two types of photoreceptors, cone cells and rod cells.Cone cells can detect different spectra of photons and thus they are responsible for color vision.
In conclusion, a white fence appears to be white due to the presence of photoreceptors in the retina.
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Mendel formulated his principles of inheritance based on _____. mendel formulated his principles of inheritance based on _____. a detailed understanding of meiosis, fertilization, and the other chromosomal processes that are involved. observations on the outcomes of breeding experiments. the underlying processes were unknown at the time. little-known works by earlier scientists. existing knowledge of chromosomal processes that he combined with insights from his own breeding experiments.
Mendel formulated his principles of inheritance based on a combination of existing knowledge of chromosomal processes and insights from his own breeding experiments.
1. Mendel had a detailed understanding of meiosis, fertilization, and other chromosomal processes that are involved in inheritance. These processes were known at the time and formed the basis of his work.
2. Mendel conducted breeding experiments with pea plants, carefully observing the outcomes. He noted the characteristics of the parent plants and the traits exhibited by the offspring.
3. Based on his observations, Mendel formulated his principles of inheritance. He proposed that traits are inherited in discrete units called genes, and that these genes are passed from parents to offspring in predictable patterns.
4. Mendel's principles were revolutionary because he was able to explain the patterns of inheritance observed in his experiments using the concept of genes and their transmission.
In summary, Mendel formulated his principles of inheritance based on a combination of a detailed understanding of chromosomal processes and insights gained from his breeding experiments with pea plants. His work laid the foundation for modern genetics.
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PLEASE HELP!!!
Which of the following effects of acid deposition most affects human health?
A) Acid rain damages human skin.
B) Acids remove lime from the soil
C) Acids remove nutrients from the soil and cause malnutrition in crops.
D) Acidic soils Liberate toxic metals.
The correct answer is option C- Acids remove nutrients from the soil and cause malnutrition in crops.
Acid rain is defined as the rain which is polluted with atmospheric pollutants released mainly from coal burning and other fossils fuel. Acid rain is affecting our lives mainly via polluting water and crops.
It affects both the quantity and quality of crops. It liberates the nutrients from soil and releases them from water which makes them unavailable for the crops to take hence cause malnutrition in crops.
The damage on crops depends upon the strength and intensity of acids present in acid rain.
Describe the flow of glomerular filtrate from its formation in bowman's capsule till it exits the body as urine
How does an organism pass its characteristics onto its offspring?
If it takes 2 hours for a population of bacteria to grow from 100 cells to 1600 cells, what is the generation time of this bacterial species? if it takes 2 hours for a population of bacteria to grow from 100 cells to 1600 cells, what is the generation time of this bacterial species? 30 minutes 20 minutes 40 minutes 15 minutes
Lily visits her family doctor. He tells her that the upset stomach she experiences after drinking milk is caused by too little lactase, an enzyme that breaks down a sugar in milk into monosaccharides. Which monosaccharides form from this reaction?
Lactose is a disaccharide molecule, which means it is formed by two different simple sugar molecules bonded together; those molecules are glucose and galactose. The body can extract energy from lactose, so it uses an enzyme called lactase to break lactose into two monosaccharides: glucose and galactose.
We can conclude that after lactase breaks down a sugar in milk, the monosaccharides formed in that reaction are glucose and galactose.
Where in the human body would you expect to find large numbers of dividing cells?
Large Figures of dividing cells can be set up in the bone gist, skin, intestinal filling, and hair follicles due to their need for constant renewal and form. These apkins contain fleetly dividing cells and are therefore more susceptible to treatments that target cell division.
Cancer can start nearly anywhere in the mortal body, which consists of trillions of cells. typically, mortal cells grow and divide to form new cells as the body needs them. When cells come old or damaged, they die, and new cells take their place.
As a result, areas where you would anticipate to find large figures of dividing cells include apkins that bear frequent renewal and form. For illustration Bone gist where new blood cells are constantly produced. Skin- skin cells are continually being replaced.
Intestinal filling- cells in the digestive tract are renewed regularly due to the wear and tear and gash of digestion.
Hair follicles cells in hair follicles divide fleetly, leading to hair growth. This rapid-fire division is also why these apkins are more susceptible to radiation and chemotherapy treatments, which target snappily dividing cells.
The allele that codes for "having freckles" is dominant (f) over the allele that codes for "no freckles" (f). a heterozygous, freckled male has a child with a homozygous recessive, non-freckled female. what is the probability that their child has freckles? 1/4 1 the probability cannot be determined. 1/2
Answer: 1/2
Explanation:
Since it has a code "having freckles" is dominant (f) over the allele that codes for "no freckles".
The father is heterozygous
The mother is homozygous recessive
To understand the concept better:
Homogenous trait is made up of two same alleles whereas heterozygous traits are made up of two different alleles.
Example:
Homogenous allele: PP or pp
Heterozygous allele: Tt
To determine whether it is dominant or recessive:
The allele is said to be dominant if it has Pp and recessive when the allele is pp
So the probability is 50% of having freckles and 50% of not having freckles
If A, B, and C represent the dominant alleles of a polygenic trait, then which of the following genotypes would result in the most extreme phenotype?
AABBCC
AaBbCc
AABbcc
Aabbcc
Please help!!
The answer to this is AABBCC because if you are dealing with a dominant trait then the letters are going to be captialize but if you are dealing with a recessive trait and a dominant trait it will be AaBbCc.
What is Genotype?The type of variant present at a specific locus (i.e., region) in the genome is scored by what is known as a genotype. Symbols can be used to symbolize it.
The actual DNA sequence, such as CC, CT, or TT, can also serve as a representation of a genotype. In a single experiment, the genotypes at millions of sites in a genome can be determined using DNA sequencing and other techniques.
There might be misspellings, just like in the sentence example. Perhaps the word "was" is spelled "waz" in the example sentence's book. A genotyping error in DNA is commonly referred to as a mutation and may have negative effects on one's health and well-being.
Therefore, The answer to this is AABBCC because if you are dealing with a dominant trait then the letters are going to be captialize but if you are dealing with a recessive trait and a dominant trait it will be AaBbCc.
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Explain how production of mrna relates to gene expression. think back to what you have learned about protein synthesis in your bms courses.
Answer:
Explanation: Genes are sequences of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) that contain the information to produce or synthesize the various proteins necessary for cell survival. The process by which proteins are produced is called gene expression and includes:
1. A first step in which a copy of the gene is generated (synthesized) by an enzyme called Transcriptase. This enzyme produces (synthesizes) a molecule of Ribonucleic acid (RNA) with the same information of the gene. This molecule that transmits the gene message is called messenger RNA (mRNA).
2. In the second step the mRNA is read by other enzymes that use this information to make the corresponding protein.
Then mRNA is an intermediate player in gene expression process that finally results in the synthesis of a protein.
Which of the following would describe Lamarck’s ideas about evolution?
Horses and zebras are similar. They have a common ancestor.
A mouse loses its tail in a fight. Its offspring will not have tails.
Wolves eat most of the rabbits in a field. A few smart rabbits find hiding places. They survive and reproduce.( which is correct? )
Answer;
A mouse loses its tail in a fight. Its offspring will not have tails.
Explanation;
Lamarck believed that traits developed during an individuals lifetime would be passed on to the individuals offspring. This is on contrast to Darwin's theory of Natural Selection: Individuals with a competitive edge within a population are more likely to survive and reproduce, thereby passing their genes explaining that particular phenotype to the next generation.
Answer is A mouse loses its tail in a fight. Its offspring will not have tails.
Lamarck’s advocates ‘use and disuse’ principle and inheritance of acquired characters. Use and disuse principle says that Individuals strengthen or build up the characteristics which are used more often, and the characteristics that are useless or seldom used are degenerated or lost and the traits that are acquired by an individual during its lifetime are inherited by its progeny.
A client is prescribed olanzapine for the treatment of schizophrenia. the client is voiding three times each night and is always thirsty. based on the adverse effects of olanzapine, what should the nurse suspect is triggering the client's reported polyuria and polydipsia?
The nurse should suspect that the client's symptoms of polyuria and polydipsia might indicate diabetes insipidus, which can be associated with the use of olanzapine due to its potential effect on ADH balance.
The nurse should suspect that the client's polyuria and polydipsia may be symptoms of diabetes insipidus, a condition that can be associated with the use of olanzapine. Olanzapine can sometimes cause polydipsia and polyuria due to a possible disruption in the balance of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). As ADH helps the kidneys manage the amount of water in the body, its underproduction or improper function can lead to these symptoms. With diabetes insipidus, water taken in is continually lost as urine, leading to increased thirst and urination. It is crucial for the nurse to report these symptoms to the healthcare provider for further assessment and appropriate management.
what reproductive structure in a female mammal that produces sex cells/10652656/660a651d?utm_source=registration
The ovaries. The female gonads produce an ovum in every menstrual cycle. The ova travels down the fallopian tube where if fertilized by a sperm, becomes a zygote and implants in the uterus. The luteinizing hormone produced by the pituitary gland stimulates the release of ova from the ovaries.
A hernia in the umbilical area occurs when a structure protrudes through the abdominal wall. this is an example of a/an:
An umbilical hernia is a type of abdominal hernia where a part of the body, such as the intestine or fatty tissue, pushes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall, causing a bulge in the umbilical area. It can be caused by birth defects, straining due to heavy lifting, obesity, multiple pregnancies, or fluid in the abdominal cavity. Treatment often involves surgical repair and strengthening of the abdominal wall.
Explanation:An umbilical hernia, which the question is about, is a type of abdominal hernia. This medical condition is caused when a part of the body, often part of the intestine or fatty tissue, pushes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall. The protrusion may cause a noticeable bulge in the umbilical (navel) area, especially when the person coughs, lifts heavy objects, or strains. The cause of the umbilical hernia can be different ranging from birth defects, to straining due to heavy lifting, obesity, multiple pregnancies, or fluid in the abdominal cavity. This is a health issue that requires medical attention and treatment, often through surgical repair and strengthening of the abdominal wall.
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when running a gel you need to have a positive control and negative control. what do these mean and what are they each used for?
Positive control: Known sample to validate gel and electrophoresis conditions. Negative control: No DNA to check for contamination.
In gel electrophoresis, a positive control and a negative control are essential components used to validate the experimental procedure and interpret the results accurately.
A positive control typically consists of a known sample or DNA fragment with a confirmed size or characteristic that is expected to migrate to a specific position on the gel. This control helps verify that the gel and electrophoresis conditions are suitable for DNA separation and that the experimental setup is functioning correctly. If the positive control produces the expected result, it confirms that the experimental conditions are optimal for detecting DNA fragments of interest.
On the other hand, a negative control contains a sample or buffer lacking the target DNA or any DNA at all. Its purpose is to detect potential contamination or unintended DNA amplification. If the negative control does not yield any bands on the gel, it indicates that there was no contamination introduced during the experimental procedure. This ensures the reliability of the results by ruling out the possibility of false-positive signals caused by contamination.
In summary, the positive control confirms the functionality of the experimental setup and validates the expected migration of DNA fragments, while the negative control verifies the absence of contamination and helps prevent false-positive results. Together, these controls ensure the accuracy and reliability of the gel electrophoresis experiment.
In eukaryotic cells genes each have a specific combination of regulatory dna sequences. how do these combinations help cells carry out specialized jobs?
Answer:
Explanation:
Gene regulation is the process of controlling which genes in a cell's DNA are expressed.
Gene regulation is also how a cell controls which gene, out of the many genes in its genome, are "turned on".
Eukaryotic gene expression involves many steps, and almost all of them can be regulated. Different genes are regulated at different points, and it’s not uncommon for a gene (particularly an important or powerful one) to be regulated at multiple steps.
-Chromatin accessibility. The structure of chromatin (DNA and its organizing proteins) can be regulated. More open or “relaxed” chromatin makes a gene more available for transcription.
-Transcription. Transcription is a key regulatory point for many genes. Sets of transcription factor proteins bind to specific DNA sequences in or near a gene and promote or repress its transcription into an RNA.
-RNA processing. Splicing, capping, and addition of a poly-A tail to an RNA molecule can be regulated, and so can exit from the nucleus. Different mRNAs may be made from the same pre-mRNA by alternative splicing.
-RNA stability. The lifetime of an mRNA molecule in the cytosol affects how many proteins can be made from it. Small regulatory RNAs called miRNAs can bind to target mRNAs and cause them to be chopped up.
-Translation. Translation of an mRNA may be increased or inhibited by regulators. For instance, miRNAs sometimes block translation of their target mRNAs (rather than causing them to be chopped up).
-Protein activity. Proteins can undergo a variety of modifications, such as being chopped up or tagged with chemical groups. These modifications can be regulated and may affect the activity or behavior of the protein.
Although all stages of gene expression can be regulated, the main control point for many genes is transcription. Later stages of regulation often refine the gene expression patterns that are "roughed out" during transcription.