Answer:given below
Explanation:
Cart is pulled 14 cm from mean position
and its position is given by
[tex]x=14cos\left ( \pi t\right )[/tex]
therefore its velocity is acceleration is given by
[tex]v=-14\pi sin\left ( \pi t\right )[/tex]
[tex]a=-14\pi ^2cos\left ( \pi t\right )[/tex]
[tex]\left ( a\right ) cart\ max.\ speed\ is[/tex]
[tex]v_{max}=14\pi at\ t=0.5sec[/tex]
and its position is x=0
acceleration at t=0.5sec
a=0
[tex]\left ( b\right )[/tex]
[tex]a_{max}=14\pi ^2 cm/s^2[/tex]
at t=0,1,2 sec
at t=0
x=14 cm
v at t=0
v=0 cm/s
for t=1 sec
x=-14 cm i.e. 14 cm behind mean position
v=0 m/s
The cart's maximum speed is 14π m/s and occurs at the equilibrium point in its oscillation at integer multiples of the half period. At these moments, the magnitude of the acceleration is 14π² m/s². The magnitude of the acceleration is greatest when the cart is at the extreme points of its oscillation, where its speed is zero.
Explanation:The cart, undergoing simple harmonic motion, has a maximum speed when it passes through equilibrium - the midpoint of its oscillating path. From the equation for the straightforward harmonic motion, we know that the speed v of the cart is given by the derivative of s(t) = 14cos(πt). The derivative of this function is v(t) = -14πsin(πt), and the maximum speed occurs when sin(πt) = ±1, which gives a maximum speed of ±14π m/s.
The maximum speed is attained at integer multiples of the half period (1/2, 3/2, 5/2 seconds, and so on). At this moment, the cart is at the equilibrium position, s=0. Acceleration a(t) is given by the second derivative of the position function s(t), which is a(t) = -14π²cos(πt). The magnitude of the acceleration at the time of maximum speed is 14π² m/s².
In the case of the maximum magnitude acceleration, this is attained at the turning points of the oscillation when cos(πt) = ±1. At these moments, the speed of the cart is zero.
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What is the fastest time trial for the first quarter checkpoint? _____ seconds
What is the slowest time trial for the first quarter checkpoint? _____ seconds
What is the range of times measured for this checkpoint? _____ seconds
Answer:
What is the fastest time trial for the first quarter checkpoint? 2.02 seconds
What is the slowest time trial for the first quarter checkpoint? 2.15 seconds
What is the range of times measured for this checkpoint? 0.13 seconds
Answer:
2.02
2.15
0.13
Explanation:
i did it on edge
A large magnetic flux change through a coil must induce a greater emf in the coil than a small flux change.
Faraday's Law states that the magnitude of the emf induced in a coil is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux through it. Hence, a large magnetic flux change would induce a greater emf compared to a small flux change. This process of induction is foundational to many operational principles of electrical and electronic devices.
Explanation:The concept asked in the question revolves around Faraday’s Law in Physics. According to Faraday’s Law, an electromotive force (emf) is induced in a coil when there is a change in magnetic flux through the coil. The magnitude of the induced emf is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux. Therefore, a large change in magnetic flux through a coil would induce a greater emf as compared to a small flux change.
So, if you were to suddenly increase the magnetic field strength (B) passing through a coil, this would represent a large change in magnetic flux (Ø), which as per Faraday's law, would induce a greater emf. Conversely, a slower or smaller change in magnetic field strength would lead to a smaller emf.
The process whereby a change in magnetic flux induces an emf is called electromagnetic induction. Remember, not only the magnitude of the magnetic field but also the orientation of the magnetic field (angle θ referenced in BA cos θ) with respect to the coil can affect the emf. Magnetic flux, Ø is given by BA cos θ, where B is the magnetic field strength, A is the area through which field passes and θ is the angle between B and A.
In application, a tangible example of this is the working of electric generators where a coil is rotated in a static magnetic field. The rotation changes the magnetic flux through the coil, hence inducing an emf according to Faraday’s Law. Induced emf is the fundamental principle behind the workings of many electrical and electronic devices we use in daily life.
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Which of the following is not a sedimentary structure?A) Magma emplacementB) Mud cracksC) Ripple marksD) Cross beds
Answer:
A) Magma emplacement
Explanation:
Sedimentary structures forms during deposition of sediments. It can also form after sediments have been deposited. Sedimentary structures can only be found in sedimentary rocks. Some examples include mud cracks, ripple marks, cross stratification, potholes, etc
Magma emplacement is an igneous process which describes the different mechanisms by which magma can be emplaced. It is only typical of igneous rocks.
A projectile is launched at an angle of 30° and lands 20 s later at the same height as it was launched. (a) What is the initial speed of the projectile? (b) What is the maximum altitude? (c) What is the range?
Answer:
a) [tex]v_0=640[/tex] ft/s
b) [tex]y=H+1600[/tex] ft where[tex]H[/tex] represents the height as the projectile was launched.
c)[tex]x=11085.13[/tex] ft
Explanation:
First, recognize the values that are given in the problem:
[tex]\alpha =30 ^o[/tex]
[tex]t_f=20[/tex]
[tex]y_f=H[/tex]
a) With those three use this formula: [tex]y=H+v_0sin(\alpha)t-\frac{1}{2}gt^2[/tex]
to find the initial velocity [tex]v_0[/tex].
[tex]\\y_f= H+v_0sin(\alpha)t_f-\frac{1}{2}gt_f^2 \\H= H+v_0sin(30)(20)-\frac{1}{2}(32)(20)^2 \\ -v_0sin(30)(20)=-\frac{1}{2}(32)(20)^2\\ v_0=\frac{\frac{1}{2}(32)(20)^2}{sin(30)(20)} \\ v_0=\frac{6400}{10} =640[/tex]
b) In order to find the maximum altitude, the time is needed to apply the formula. The maximum altitude is when the velocity in the y-axis is equal to zero, so use the formula for the velocity in the y-axis is to find the time, the formula is:
[tex]v_y=v_{0y}-gt\\v_y=v_0sin(\alpha)-gt\\0=(640)sin(30)-32t\\32t=(640)sin(30)\\t=\frac{(640)sin(30)}{32}=\frac{320}{32}=10[/tex]
With [tex]s=10[/tex]s use this formula for the altitude: [tex]y=H+v_0sin(\alpha)t-\frac{1}{2}gt^2[/tex]
[tex]y=H+v_0sin(\alpha)t-\frac{1}{2}gt^2\\y=H+(640)sin(30)(10)-\frac{1}{2}(32)(10)^2\\y=H+3200-1600\\y=H+1600[/tex]
Finally, the range is the maximum displacement in the x-axis, the formula of the displacement is:
[tex]x=v_{0x}t=v_0cos(\alpha )t[/tex]
And the maximum occurs when[tex]t=20[/tex]s
[tex]x=v_0cos(\alpha)t\\x=640cos(30)(20)\\x=11085.13[/tex]
A pair of narrow slits that are 1.8 mm apart is illuminated by a monochromatic coherent light source. A fringe pattern is observed on a screen 4.8 m from the slits. If there are 5.0 bright fringes/cm on the screen, what is the wavelength of the monochromatic light?
Answer:
750 mm
Explanation:
Given:
d = 1.8 mm
R = 4.8 m
m = 5
y = 1
Using the equation
y = (mLR)/d ,
where,
m gives a distance 'y' to that particular slit image.
R = distance from the double slits to the screen
d = double slit separation distance.
L = wavelength of the light.
substituting the values in the given equation
we get
L = [tex]\frac{1\times 1.8\times 10^{-3}}{5\times 4.8}[/tex]
or
L = 750 mm
Answer:
The wavelength of the monochromatic light is [tex]7.5\times10^{-7}\ m[/tex]
Explanation:
Given that,
Distance between the slits d = 1.8 mm
Distance of fringe from the slits D =4.8 m
Number of fringe m =1
Distance between the fringes = 1 cm
We need to calculate the wavelength of monochromatic light
Using formula of young's double slits
[tex]\lambda=\dfrac{Yd}{mD}[/tex]
Where, d = Distance between the slits
D = Distance of fringe from the slits
m = Number of fringe
y = Distance between the fringes
Put the value in to the formula
[tex]\lambda=\dfrac{1\times10^{-2}\times1.8\times10^{-3}}{5\times4.8}[/tex]
[tex]\lambda =7.5\times10^{-7}\ m[/tex]
Hence, The wavelength of the monochromatic light is [tex]7.5\times10^{-7}\ m[/tex]
An 8.0 g bullet is fired from a gun at 120 m/s into a 2.0 kg block of wood sitting on a fence post. If the bullet hits the wood and remains in it, what is the speed of the block after the collision?
Answer:
[tex]v = 0.478 m/s[/tex]
Explanation:
As we know that bullet strike the block and fix in it
so here if bullet and box is taken as a system then there is no external force on it
so here the initial momentum of bullet and block must be equal to final momentum of bullet and block
so here we have
[tex]m_1v_{1i} + m_2v_{2i} = m_1v + m_2v[/tex]
now we have
[tex]m_1 = 8 g[/tex]
[tex]v_1 = 120 m/s[/tex]
[tex]m_2 = 2kg[/tex]
[tex]v_{2i} = 0[/tex]
now from above equation we have
[tex](0.008)(120) + 2(0) = (0.008)v + 2v[/tex]
[tex]v = 0.478 m/s[/tex]
The speed of the wooden block after the collision with the bullet can be calculated by applying the principle of conservation of momentum. The initial velocity of the block is zero as it was stationary before the collision. By applying the formula for momentum conservation, we get the final speed of the block.
Explanation:The subject of the question deals with a principle in Physics known as conservation of momentum. In an isolated system (in this case, the bullet and the wood block), the total momentum before the collision is equal to the total momentum after the collision. The bullet has a mass of 0.008 kg (converted from 8.0 g to kg) and a velocity of 120 m/s before the collision while the block of wood has a mass of 2.0 kg and is stationary (velocity of 0 m/s).
To apply the conservation of momentum principle, we use the formula: m1v1 + m2v2 = (m1 + m2)v where m1 and v1 are the mass and velocity of the bullet and m2 and v2 are the mass and velocity of the wooden block (initially v2 is 0 because the block is stationary). After substituting the given data, we can solve for variable v; the resultant speed of the block after the collision.
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The pressure at the bottom of a glass filled with water (r 5 1 000 kg/m3 ) is P. The water is poured out and the glass is filled with ethyl alcohol (r 5 806 kg/m3 ). The pressure at the bottom of the glass is now (a) smaller than P (b) equal to P (c) larger than P (d) indeterminate.
Answer:
Option (a) is the correct answer
Explanation:
Option (a) smaller than P is the correct answer for the given question. This is because the pressure (P) at any depth 'd' from the top surface of the water with density (ρ) is given as:
P = ρ × g × d
where,
g is the acceleration due to the gravity
thus from the above equation it can be concluded that the pressure at any depth 'd' is directly proportional to the density of the water.
thus,
in the given case the density of the water is lower than that in the first case.
Hence, the option (a) is the correct answer
Pressure at the bottom of a container filled with liquid depends on the density of the liquid, among other factors. When water is replaced with ethyl alcohol, which has a lower density, the resulting pressure at the bottom decreases. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) smaller than P.
Explanation:The pressure at the bottom of a container filled with liquid is determined by the formula P = hρg, where P is the pressure, h is the height of the liquid, ρ is the density of the liquid, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. When the water (density 1000 kg/m³) is replaced with ethyl alcohol (density 806 kg/m³), the height of the liquid and gravity remain constant while the density decreases.
Since ρ in the term hρg has decreased, the overall product, i.e, the pressure at the bottom (P), also decreases. Therefore, when the glass is filled with ethyl alcohol, the pressure at the bottom of the glass is smaller than before. So, the correct answer is (a) smaller than P.
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A 25 kg circular disk has a diameter of 2.5 feet and a thickness of 2.5 cm. Find the density of the disk in kg/m3. Next, find the weight of the object. Then calculate the buoyant force on the disk if it is submerged under water. Finally, will the object sink or float?
Answer:
Assume that [tex]\rm g= 9.81\; N\cdot kg^{-1}[/tex]; [tex]\rho(\text{Water}) = \rm 1000\;kg\cdot m^{-3}[/tex].
Density of the disk: approximately [tex]\rm 2.19\times 10^{3}\; kg\cdot m^{-3}[/tex].
Weight of the disk: approximately [tex]\rm 245\;N[/tex].
Buoyant force on the disk if it is submerged under water: approximately [tex]\rm 112\; N[/tex].
The disk will sink when placed in water.
Explanation:
Convert the dimensions of this disk to SI units:
Diameter: [tex]d = \rm 25\; inches = (25\times 0.3048)\; m = 0.762\;m[/tex].Thickness [tex]h = \rm 2.5\; cm = (2.5\times 0.01)\; m = 0.025\;m[/tex].The radius of a circle is 1/2 its diameter:
[tex]\displaystyle r = \rm \frac{1}{2}\times 0.762\;m = 0.381\; m[/tex].
Volume of this disk:
[tex]V(\text{disk}) = \pi\cdot r^{2}\cdot h = \pi\times 0.381^{2}\times 0.025 \approx 0.0114009\; m^{3}[/tex].
Density of this disk:
[tex]\displaystyle \rho(\text{disk}) = \frac{m}{V} = \rm \frac{25\; kg}{0.0114009\; m^{3}} = 2.19\times 10^{3}\;kg\cdot m^{-3}[/tex].
[tex]\rho(\text{disk}) >\rho(\text{water})[/tex] indicates that the disk will sink when placed in water.
Weight of the object:
[tex]W(\text{disk}) = m\cdot g = \rm 25\times 9.81 = 245.25\; N[/tex].
The buoyant force on an object in water is equal to the weight of water that this object displaces. When this disk is submerged under water, it will displace approximately [tex]\rm 0.0114009\; m^{3}[/tex] of water. The buoyant force on the disk will be:
[tex]\begin{aligned}F(\text{buoyant force}) &= W(\text{Water Displaced}) \\& = \rho\cdot V(\text{Water Displaced})\cdot g\\ & = \rm 1\times 10^{3}\; kg\cdot m^{-3}\times 0.0114009\; m^{3}\times 9.81\; N\cdot kg^{-1}\\ &\approx \rm 112\; N\end{aligned}[/tex].
The size of this disk's weight is greater than the size of the buoyant force on it when submerged under water. As a result, the disk will sink when placed in water.
Which of the following conditions is not necessary to observe an interference pattern between two sets of waves?
A) The waves must have the same wavelength.
B) The waves must have a constant phase difference.
C) The waves must have the same amplitude.
D) The waves must have the same frequency.
To achieve an interference pattern, we must have two coherent wave sources. For coherence, the waves must have the same frequency and either have no phase difference or a constant phase difference.
For two waves traveling in the same medium, having the same frequency implies having the same wavelength by v = fλ where v = velocity, f = frequency, and λ = wavelength.
An interference pattern requires all of the above conditions except for having the same amplitude.
Choice C
A 4.5 kg pelican is gliding due east while a small force of air resistance is acting on the bird in the
opposite direction. If the net force acting on the bird is 1.2 N to the west, what is the bird's acceleration?
Answer:
1.2/4.5=4/15=2.666 m/s^2
Explanation:
f=ma
The bird's acceleration is approximately 0.2667 m/s² in the direction opposite to its motion (westward).
To calculate the bird's acceleration, we can use Newton's second law of motion, which states that the net force acting on an object is equal to the product of its mass and acceleration.
Mathematically, Newton's second law can be expressed as:
Net Force = mass x acceleration
Given:
Mass of the pelican (m) = 4.5 kg
Net force (F) = 1.2 N (acting to the west)
We want to find the acceleration (a).
Now, let's rearrange the formula to solve for acceleration:
acceleration = Net Force / mass
Substitute the given values:
acceleration = 1.2 N / 4.5 kg
Now, calculate the acceleration:
acceleration = 0.2667 m/s² (rounded to four decimal places)
So, the bird's acceleration is approximately 0.2667 m/s² in the direction opposite to its motion (westward).
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A 160.-kilogram space vehicle is traveling along a straight line at a constant speed of 800. Meters per second. The magnitude of the net force on the space vehicle is
Answer:
Zero
Explanation:
As force acting on the body is equal to the product of mass and acceleration.
Acceleration is equal to rate of change in velocity.
Here velocity is constant so acceleration is zero.
It means the net force acting on the vehicle is zero.
Answer: The magnitude of the force on the space vehicle is 0 N
Explanation:
Force is defined as the push or pull on an object with some mass that causes change in its velocity.
It is also defined as the mass multiplied by the acceleration of the object.
Mathematically,
[tex]F=m\times a[/tex]
where,
F = force exerted on the space vehicle
m = mass of the space vehicle = 160 kg
a = acceleration of the space vehicle = [tex]0m/s^2[/tex] (Speed is constant)
Putting values in above equation, we get:
[tex]F=160kg\times 0m/s^2\\\\F=0N[/tex]
Hence, the magnitude of the force on the space vehicle is 0 N
A 0.1375-g sample of magnesium is burned in a constant-volume bomb calorimeter that has a heat capacity of 1769 J 0 c-1. The calorimeter contains exactly 300 g of water, and the temperature increases by l.1 26°C. Calculate the heat given off by the burning magnesium, in kJ g-1 and in kJ moJ-1
Answer: 1) 24.76 kJ/g
2) 597.4 kJ/mol
Explanation:
Let the heat released during reaction be q.
[tex]q=m\times c\times \Delta T[/tex]
q = Heat gained by water
m = Mass of water= 300 g
c = Heat capacity of water = 4.184 J/g°C
Change in temperature = ΔT = 1.126 °C
[tex]q=300\times 4.184\times 1.126=1413.3J[/tex]
Heat gained by bomb calorimeter = [tex]q_{cal}[/tex]
Heat capacity of bomb calorimeter , C = 1769J/g°C
Change in temperature = ΔT'= 1.126 °C
[tex]q_{cal}=m_{cal}\times c_{cal}\times \Delta T=C_{bomb}\times \Delta T=1769\times 1.126=1991.9J[/tex]
Total heat released during reaction is equal to total heat gained by water and bomb calorimeter.
[tex]q_{combustion}=-(q_{water}+q_{cal}[/tex]
[tex]q_{combustion}=-(1413.3+1991.9)J[/tex]
[tex]q=3405J=-3.405kJ[/tex]
Thus 0.1375 g of magnesium releases 3.405 kJ of heat
1 g of magnesium releases =[tex]\frac{3.405}{0.1375}\times 1=24.76kJ[/tex] of heat
Thus heat given off by the burning magnesium, in kJ/g is 24.76.
Moles of magnesium =[tex]\frac{0.1375g}{24g/mol}=5.7\times 10^{-3}mol[/tex]
[tex]5.7\times 10^{-3}[/tex] moles of magnesium releases 3.405 kJ of heat
1 mole of magnesium releases =[tex]\frac{3.405}{5.7\times 10^{-3}}\times 1=597.4 kJ[/tex] of heat
Thus heat given off by the burning magnesium, in kJ/mol is 597.4.
The heat given off by the burning magnesium is 0.27297 kJ. The heat given off per gram of magnesium is 1.984 kJ/g. The heat given off per mole of magnesium is 48.15 kJ/mol.
Explanation:To calculate the heat given off by the burning magnesium, we need to use the equation q = mCΔT, where q is the heat, m is the mass, C is the heat capacity, and ΔT is the temperature change. In this case, the mass is 0.1375 g, the heat capacity is 1769 J/°C, and the temperature change is 1.126 °C.
Plugging in these values, we get q = (0.1375 g)(1769 J/°C)(1.126 °C) = 272.97 J.
To convert this to kJ, use the conversion factor 1 kJ = 1000 J. Therefore, the heat given off by the burning magnesium is 0.27297 kJ.
To find the heat given off per gram of magnesium, divide the heat by the mass of the magnesium: 0.27297 kJ / 0.1375 g = 1.984 kJ/g.
To find the heat given off per mole of magnesium, we need to convert the mass of the magnesium to moles using the molar mass of magnesium. The molar mass of magnesium is 24.31 g/mol.
Therefore, moles of magnesium = (0.1375 g) / (24.31 g/mol) = 0.00566 mol.
Divide the heat by the moles of magnesium to get the heat given off per mole: 0.27297 kJ / 0.00566 mol = 48.15 kJ/mol.
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What is difference between kinetic and potential energy?
Answer:
kinetic energy is the energy an object contains due to motion while potential energy is stored energy that an object contains due to its position or shape.
hope this helps! (:
Answer:
Kinetic energy- is energy of an object which contains becuase of motion. Potential energy- is stored energy that an object contains because of its position or shape.
In acceleration, if you were taking distance messurements of a free falling object at 1 second intervals, you see the object moving _________ at each measurement interval
Answer:
Farther
Explanation:
In acceleration, if you were taking distance measurements of a free falling object at 1 second intervals, you see the object moving farther at each measurement interval.
The tip of the second hand of a clock moves in a circle of 20 cm circumference. In one minute the hand makes a complete revolution. Its average velocity over that time is ___________ cm/s.
Answer:
[tex]v_{avg} = 0[/tex]
Explanation:
As we know that average velocity is defined as the ratio of total displacement of the object and its time interval.
so here we can say
[tex]v_{avg} = \frac{displacement}{time}[/tex]
now we know that in one complete revolution the total displacement of the tip of the seconds hand is zero
because it will have same position after one complete revolution from where it starts
so here we can say that the average velocity will be zero
[tex]v_{avg} = 0[/tex]
Final answer:
The average velocity of the second hand is 0 cm/s because it returns to its starting point after one minute, despite having an average speed of about 0.33 cm/s.
Explanation:
The tip of the second hand of a clock moving in a circle with a 20 cm circumference completes one revolution in one minute. Velocity is a vector quantity, which means it has both magnitude and direction. However, because the second hand returns to its starting point after one minute, its displacement is zero, and therefore its average velocity over one minute is 0 cm/s. If we were to consider average speed instead, which is a scalar quantity and only takes into account magnitude, the average speed can be found by dividing the total distance traveled by the time taken. Thus, the average speed would be 20 cm / 60 s, which is approximately 0.33 cm/s.
Avogadro’s number was calculated by determining the number of atoms in
Avogadro's number [tex]N_ {A}[/tex] is determined by the number of particles (or atoms) in a mole:
[tex]N_{A}=6.0221(10)^{23}/mol[/tex]
It should be noted that the mole is one of the seven fundamental units of the International System of Units and defines the amount of substance.
Therefore:
Avogadro’s number was calculated by determining the number of atoms in a mole.
Assuming that we can measure the apparent brightness of a star, what does the inverse square law of light allow us to do?
Answer: This law allows us to know how the illuminance of the star varies with the square of the distance.
Explanation:
The Law of the Inverse of the Square for light, allows us to determine, in the case of a star, and considering it as a point source, how its illuminance
[tex]E[/tex] (power per unit area) varies with the square of the distance [tex]r[/tex] that separates us from it when measuring its apparent brightness.
This law is expressed as follows:
[tex]E=\frac{I}{r^{2}}[/tex]
Where [tex]I[/tex] is the pointance (The flux power per unit solid angle, which is somehow analog with the intensity).
As we can see, as the distance from the light source increases, the illuminance decreases.
The inverse square law of light enables us to calculate the distance to a star by using its apparent brightness and known intrinsic brightness, especially through the use of standard candles in astronomy.
Explanation:Assuming we can measure the apparent brightness of a star, the inverse square law of light allows us to calculate the distance to the star when we know its intrinsic brightness. This law states that the observed flux of an object decreases as the inverse of the square of its distance from the observer. When utilizing this principle in astronomy, the standardized luminosity of certain astronomical objects, commonly known as standard candles, is needed to determine their distance. For example, if we identify a main sequence star with a known spectral type, we can assume it has a similar luminosity to other stars with the same spectral type and thus calculate its distance by observing its flux and applying the inverse square law.
When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased, the pressure also ________
Explanation:
The expression for an Ideal Gas is:
[tex]P.V=n.R.T[/tex]
Where:
[tex]P[/tex] is the pressure of the gas
[tex]V[/tex] is the volume of the gas
[tex]n[/tex] the number of moles of gas
[tex]R[/tex] is the gas constant
[tex]T[/tex] is the absolute temperature of the gas
As we can see, there is a direct proportional relation between the temperature and the pressure, which means that if the temperature increases the pressure of the gas increases as well.
However, it is important to note this is fulfilled if and only if the volume of the container where the ideal gas is, remains constant.
The length of a simple pendulum is 0.65 m and the mass of the particle (the “bob”) at the end of the cable is 0.34 kg. The pendulum is pulled away from its equilibrium position by an angle of 9.4° and released from rest. Assume that friction can be neglected and that the resulting oscillatory motion is simple harmonic motion. (a) What is the angular frequency of the motion? (b) Using the position of the bob at its lowest point as the reference level, determine the total mechanical energy of the pendulum as it swings back and forth. (c) What is the bob’s speed as it passes through the lowest point of the swing?
Answer:3.884
2.136
2.563
Explanation:
Given
[tex]Length\ of\ simple\ pendulum\left ( L\right )=0.65m[/tex]
[tex]mass\ of\ the\ bob\left ( m\right )=0.34 kg[/tex]
angle of deflection =[tex]9.4^{\circ}[/tex]
[tex]\left ( a\right )[/tex]
[tex]Angular frequency\left ( \omega \right )[/tex]
[tex]\omega =\sqrt{\frac{g}{L}}=3.884 rad/s[/tex]
[tex]\left ( b\right )[/tex]
[tex]Total\ mechanical\ energy\ of\ the\ bob =mgh\left ( at highest point\right )[/tex]
[tex]M.E.=mgL\left ( 1-cos\theta \right )=0.34\times 9.8\times \0.65\left ( 1-cos\left ( 9.4\right )\right )[/tex]
M.E.=2.136 J
[tex]\left ( c\right )[/tex]
Bob's velocity at lowest point
Equating top most point energy =Bottom point energy
[tex]mgh=\frac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]
[tex]v^2=2.563 m/s[/tex]
The angular frequency of the pendulum's motion is approximately 3.87 rad/sec. The total mechanical energy of the pendulum is approximately 0.034 J. The speed of the pendulum bob at the lowest point of its swing is approximately 0.83 m/s.
Explanation:The subject in question pertains to the physics of simple harmonic motion as exhibited by a simple pendulum. Given the length of the pendulum (L = 0.65 m), the mass of the pendulum bob (m = 0.34 kg), and the initial displacement angle (9.4°), we are to find: (a) the angular frequency, (b) the total mechanical energy, and (c) the speed at the lowest point of the swing.
(a) The angular frequency (ω) of the pendulum's motion can be calculated using the formula ω = sqrt(g/L), where g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s²). Substituting the given values, we get ω ≈ 3.87 rad/sec.
(b) The total mechanical energy (E) of the pendulum is given by E = mgh, where h = L(1 - cosθ). Substituting the given values, we get E ≈ 0.034 J.
(c) The speed (v) of the pendulum bob at the lowest point of the swing can be calculated using the concept of energy conservation. As the pendulum is initially released from rest and assuming no dissipation, the total mechanical energy at any point is the same. Thus, the bob's speed at the lowest point is given by v = sqrt(2*g*h), yielding v ≈ 0.83 m/s.
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Suppose the gravitational acceleration on a certain planet is only 4.0 m/s2. A space explorer standing on this planet throws a ball straight upward with an initial velocity of 24 m/s. Assume that upward direction is positive. What is the velocity of the ball 3 seconds after it is thrown?
Using the formula for velocity (v = u + at) with the given values, we find that the velocity of the ball 3 seconds after it's thrown upwards on a planet with a gravitational acceleration of 4.0 m/s2 is 12 m/s in the upward direction.
Explanation:The question asks about the velocity of a ball 3 seconds after it's thrown upwards on a planet with a gravitational acceleration of 4.0 m/s2. We can use the formula for velocity which is the initial velocity plus acceleration times time (v = u + at). In this case, the initial velocity (u) is 24 m/s, the acceleration (a) is -4.0 m/s2 (negative because it's working against the upwards motion of the ball), and the time (t) is 3 seconds.
Substituting these values into the formula gives us v = 24 m/s + (-4.0 m/s2 * 3 s) = 24 m/s - 12 m/s = 12 m/s. So the velocity of the ball 3 seconds after it's thrown is 12 m/s in the upwards direction.
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What did henry ford invent besides the car
Answer:
The way to produce things in an assembly line
Explanation:
He created assembly line production, which was quite popular in the Industrial Revolution
Identify the false statement: Select one:
A) Synthesis refers to creating sounds electronically from electronically generated waveforms.
B) The synthesizer generates sounds electronically.
C) On the synthesizer, timbre and volume depend on the waveform.
D) Synthesizers have always had a well-established presence in standard ensembles.
Answer:
D) Synthesizers have always had a well-established presence in standard ensembles
Explanation:
QuestionIdentify the false statement: Select one:
A) Synthesis refers to creating sounds electronically from electronically generated waveforms.
B) The synthesizer generates sounds electronically.
C) On the synthesizer, timbre and volume depend on the waveform.
D) Synthesizers have always had a well-established presence in standard ensembles.
A synthesizer is an electronic musical instrument that generates audio signals. Synthesizers generate audio through the following means: subtractive synthesis, additive synthesis, and frequency modulation synthesis. .
,they generate sounds electronically by the virtue of the oscillator
c. on the synthesizer , timbre and volume depend on the waveform , which is true
D is absolutely not correct
The false statement is that synthesizers have always had a well-established presence in standard ensembles. This is not true because synthesizers became more common in ensembles during the mid-20th century, revolutionizing music with their electronic sound generation and waveform manipulation capabilities. So the correct option is D.
Explanation:The false statement among the options provided is:
D) Synthesizers have always had a well-established presence in standard ensembles.
This statement is false because synthesizers were not part of standard ensembles until the mid-20th century when electronic instruments became more prevalent in various music genres. Prior to that, ensembles typically consisted of acoustic instruments. Synthesizers, which generate sounds electronically and allow for the manipulation of timbre and volume depending on the waveform, brought a new dimension to music that was not always present or well-established in traditional ensembles.
Sound from an electronic speaker is produced when the cone of the speaker vibrates, creating small changes in the pressure of the air, not the temperature or volume. Timbre is not the pitch or wavelength of the sound but refers to the quality of a sound that distinguishes one source or musical instrument from another.
Identify the false statement: The synthesizer generates sounds electronically. Synthesis refers to creating sounds electronically from electronically generated waveforms. Synthesizers have always had a well-established presence in standard ensembles. On the synthesizer, timbre and volume depend on the waveform.
Answer:
Explanation:
I think the questionable statement is that Synthesizers have always been a well established presence in standard ensembles. The very earliest ones that were in common use came out in the 60s and 70s. A great many pieces of music had no use for them before that time. The Classical period lacked the electronics (completely) to make use of such modern equipment.
The False statement is ; Synthesizers have always had a well-established presence in standard ensembles ( C )
Synthesizers are used for the composition of musical sounds by generating sounds from waveforms sent into it from musical instruments like keyboards. these waveforms produced are altered to produce the exact timbre, and volume as required by the composer. synthesizers are used for live performances
Synthesizers are made up of different parts with each part performing a specific function in the synthesizer and they are ;
OscillatorsFilter and amplifier Modulators Global controlsHence we can conclude that The False statement is Synthesizers have always had a well-established presence in standard ensembles
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A sanding disk with rotational inertia 6.5 x 10-3 kg·m2 is attached to an electric drill whose motor delivers a torque of magnitude 21 N·m about the central axis of the disk. About that axis and with torque applied for 54 ms, what is the magnitude of the (a) angular momentum and (b) angular velocity of the disk?
Answer:
The angular momentum and angular velocity are 1.134 kg.m²/s and 174.5 rad/s.
Explanation:
Given that,
Moment of inertia [tex]I= 6.5\times10^{-3}\ kg.m^2[/tex]
Torque = 21 N.m
Time dt = 54 ms
(a). We need to calculate the angular momentum
Using formula of torque
[tex]\tau=\dfrac{dL}{dt}[/tex]
[tex]dL =\tau\times t[/tex]
Where, dL = angular momentum
t = time
[tex]\tau[/tex] = torque
Put the value into the formula
[tex]dL=21\times0.054[/tex]
[tex]dL=1.134\ kg.m^2/s[/tex]
(b). We need to calculate the angular velocity of the disk
Using formula of angular velocity
[tex]dL=I\omega[/tex]
[tex]\omega=\dfrac{dL}{I}[/tex]
[tex]\omega=\dfrac{1.134}{6.5\times10^{-3}}[/tex]
[tex]\omega=174.5\ rad/s[/tex]
Hence, The angular momentum and angular velocity are 1.134 kg.m²/s and 174.5 rad/s.
An 8.0-ohm resistor and a 6.0-ohm resistor are connected in series with a battery. The potential difference across the 6.0-ohm resistor is measured as 12-V. (a) Find the total resistance of the circuit. (b) Find the current in the 6.0-ohm resistor. (c) Find the potential difference across the battery.
Please show work! :)
(a) The total resistance of the circuit will be 14.0-ohm.
(b) The current in the 6.0-ohm resistor will be 1.5 A.
(c) The potential difference across the battery will be 12-V.
What is a series circuit?In the series circuit, the amount of current flowing through any component in a series circuit is the same and the sum of the individual resistances equals the overall resistance of any series circuit.
The voltage in a series circuit, the supply voltage, is equal to the total of the individual voltage drops.
(a)
The total resistance of the circuit is found as;
R=R₁+R₂
R=8 -ohm +6-ohm
R=14.0-ohm
(b)
The current in the 6.0-ohm resistor is;
The potential difference across the 6.0-ohm resistor= 12-V.
From Ohm's law;
V=IR
I=V/R
I=12-V/8-ohm
I=1.5-A
c)The potential difference across the battery is;
[tex]\rm I=I_1 \\\\ \frac{V}{R} =\frac{V_1}{R_1} \\\\\frac{V}{14} =\frac{12}{6} \\\\ V=28 \ volt[/tex]
Hence, a) The total resistance of the circuit will be 14.0-ohm.
(b) The current in the 6.0-ohm resistor will be 1.5 A.
(c) The potential difference across the battery will be 12-V.
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The total resistance of the circuit is 14.0 ohms. The current in the 6.0-ohm resistor is 2 A. The potential difference across the battery is 28 V.
Let's analyze the series circuit step by step:
Total Resistance: For resistors in series, the total resistance (Rtotal) is the sum of the individual resistances:Suppose you wanted to start a fire using sunlight and a mirror. Which of the following statements is most accurate? A) It would be best to use a plane mirror. B) It would be best to use a concave mirror, with the object to be ignited positioned halfway between the mirror and its center of curvature. C) It would be best to use a concave mirror, with the object to be ignited positioned at the center of curvature of the mirror. D) It would be best to use a convex mirror. E) One cannot start a fire using a mirror, since mirrors form only virtual images.
Explanation:
To start a fire it is more optimal to use a concave mirror than a plane mirror. This is because the concave mirror allows concentrating sunlight at a point (the focal point) on an object that acts as fuel and ignite the fire there.
For this it is necessary the object to be positioned between the center of curvature of the mirror and the mirror (its focus). Thus the rays of the Sun, when converging on the focus, will heat the object and make it burn.
Hence, the correct option is B.
A concave mirror, with the object to be ignited positioned halfway between the mirror and its center of curvature, is optimal for starting a fire using sunlight. This is due to the mirror's ability to concentrate parallel sunlight at a specific point.
Explanation:The most accurate statement for starting a fire using sunlight and a mirror would be B) It would be best to use a concave mirror, with the object to be ignited positioned halfway between the mirror and its center of curvature. This is due to the properties of concave mirrors in focusing parallel beams of light, such as sunlight, to a single point. These mirrors can concentrate light at a specific point, effectively increasing the light's intensity and, hence, its heat. This is similar to how a magnifying glass can focus sunlight enough to ignite paper.
The statement C) is incorrect because positioning an object at the center of curvature would spread the light across the object, rather than concentrating it at a point. Convex mirrors (D), on the other hand, would focus light away from the object, making them unsuitable. The statement E) is untrue, as mirrors certainly can form real images and concentrate light to the point of starting a fire. The primary consideration here is the shape of the mirror and the positioning of the object to be ignited relative to the mirror's focal point.
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At what distance r from a point charge is the electric potential due to that point charge 0 v?
Answer:
Infinite Distance
Explanation:
The electric potential due to a point charge can be expressed by the following equation:
[tex]V=\frac{kQ}{r}[/tex]
Here,
V is the electric potential due to the point charge
k is the proportionality constant
Q is the magnitude of the point charge
r is the distance from the charge
As the value of r increases, the value of V decreases since there is an inverse relation between the two. The value of V can be absolutely 0 when the distance from the charge is infinite i.e. r is infinite. Mathematically, dividing a number by infinity results in zero. Also theoretically speaking, at infinite distance the electric field lines won't approach and hence the electric potential would be zero.
The electric potential due to a point charge is 0 V at a distance r from the charge when the charge is infinite.
Explanation:The electric potential due to a point charge is 0 V at a distance r from the charge when the charge is infinite. In other words, if the point charge is far away from the observation point, the electric potential becomes zero. This is because the electric potential decreases with distance.
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Which one of the following types of electromagnetic wave travels through space the fastest?
a.) infrared
b.) radio waves
c.) ultraviolet
d.) microwaves
e.) They all travel through space at the same speed.
Answer:
e.) They all travel through space at the same speed.
All electromagnetic waves travel through space at the same speed. therefore the correct answer is option E
What is an electromagnetic wave?The oscillation of an electric field and a magnetic field produces electromagnetic waves, which are waves. In other words, electromagnetic waves (EM waves) are made up of vibrating magnetic and electric fields that are orthogonal to one another. Transverse waves are another name for electromagnetic waves since they move in a transverse direction.
These waves are used to transfer light & heat as a form of electromagnetic radiation, these electromagnetic waves are of various kinds such as radio waves, visible light, ultraviolet waves, x-rays, infrared waves, microwaves, gamma rays, etc.
All different kinds of electromagnetic waves have different wavelengths and frequencies but they all travel through space at the same speed of light.
Thus, All electromagnetic waves travel through space at the same speed. therefore the correct answer is option E
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xIn the reaction A B + C + heat, ______. there is a net input of energy the potential energy of the products is greater than that of the reactant the potential energy of the products is the same as that of the reactant the potential energy of the products is less than that of the reactant entropy has decreased
Answer: Option (d) is the correct answer.
Explanation:
A chemical reaction in which heat energy is liberated is known as an exothermic reaction.
For example, [tex]A \rightarrow B + C + Heat[/tex]
In an exothermic reaction, energy of reactants is more than the energy of products.
This means that potential energy of products is less than the potential energy of reactants.
Thus, we can conclude that in the reaction [tex]A \rightarrow B + C + heat[/tex], the potential energy of the products is less than that of the reactant.
The correct answer is: the potential energy of the products is less than that of the reactant.
Here's why:
The reaction notation A B + C + heat indicates an exothermic reaction. This means the reaction releases heat to the surroundings.
In exothermic reactions, the total potential energy of the products is less than the total potential energy of the reactants. The released heat signifies a decrease in the overall potential energy of the system.
Let's analyze the other options:
Net input of energy: This is the opposite of what's happening in an exothermic reaction. The reaction releases energy, not absorbs it.
Potential energy of products is the same: In some reactions, the potential energy might remain the same. However, the "heat" term in the notation signifies a release of energy, making this unlikely.
Entropy has decreased: Entropy, a measure of randomness, usually increases in most natural processes, including chemical reactions.
A barr body is typically found in the nucleus of
Answer:
Neutrophils
Explanation: