Answer:
The correct answer is option A. False.
Explanation:
John Scott Haldane described a property of hemoglobin which is termed as the Haldane effect. Displacement of carbon dioxide from the hemoglobin of blood by oxygen in the lungs. It promotes the removal of CO₂ from the blood. This process is the Haldane effect.
Decrease in the affinity of the oxygen to binding with hemoglobin in response to a decrease in blood pH due to increased CO₂ concentration in the blood. It is the Bohr effect.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. false.
HSV-1 infections always occur above the waste.
a) True
b) False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Herpes 1 belongs to the Alphaherpesvirinae subfamily, this virus targets mucoepithelial cells and diseminate through intimate contact. Although generally HSV-1 infections occurs above the waste (encephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, coriorentinitis, pharyngitis, esophagitis, tracheobronchitis and oral) there are other clinical manfiestations such as gladiatorium, genital herpes and warths that prove this statement false. Herpes 1 is not totally conclusive in the sense that the areas where it occurs do not comply with the definition given "above the waist". The epidemiological importance is able to determine where it is predominant.
Explain what the activities of ion channels might be if the threshold for both RP and AP were the same
Answer and Explanation:
the threshold potential of neuron is greater than resting potential if both RP and AP will become same then there will be no transmission of ions and no electric signal will be generated so no message will be transmitted.if RP and AP will be same then the K(+) channel and Na(+) channel open at the same time and there will be no formation of voltage gradient and so no message will be transmitted.in case of sodium potassium pump if RP and AP are equal then it will always be open and no formation of concentration gradient it may cause sever pathological damage due the long opening of the channelDepending on your field choice, discuss one nursing theory and identify the effect the implications of this theory could have on nursing administration, management, or education.
Answer:
There have been great nursing theorists and nursing theories throughout history, and all of them, have played a major role in developing the profession. However, there is one in particular that had a very big impact, as it led the nursing profession to view patients, not as simple organisms with an ailment that needed to be treated, and where nurses played a very small part, but rather, transformed the vision into a whole, something much bigger, and suddenly, the role of the nurse jumped into the forefront. This theory, is Callista Roy´s Adaptation Model.
The Adaptation Model of Roy, takes a human being, or a group of beings, as a system of adaptation, a whole that is influenced by several factors, and his/her, or their, response to a stimuli, which affects the whole, creates a response from all the factors within the person, or group. In some cases, the responses are adaptative, but in others, the balance is damaged. Roy was one of the first nursing theorists to realize that the human being was composed of interconnected factors: physical-physiological, the self-concept, the role function and the interdependence. She also saw that all systems receive stimulus, and these stimuli will activate one, two, or several of the modes. This generates a response. And because people are always looking to adapt to their environment, they will produce responses to achieve this goal. However, these responses may sometimes be inefficient, inadequate, or simply wrong.
In all aspects of nursing, this theory plays a role because it leads the nurse to realize her own job is not simply to deal with a physical-physiological aspect of care; she is also in charge of organizing the resources and tools that will be needed to reinforce, ensure, or correct, adaptive, or maladaptive, behaviors in patients and their social groups. It also leads students to understand patients in a different way, and see that the work of a nurse is vital to re-establish balance in an adaptive system through nursing care plans and programs that seek to return balance to not just one, but all the interconnected modes.
The repeated pattern of distressed breathing that has gradual increase of deep breathes followed by shallow breathes and apnea is called?
A. Bronchospasm
B. Cheyne-Stokes Respiration
C. Bradypnea
D. Tachypnea
Answer:
Cheyne-Stokes Respiration
Explanation:
Cheyne-Stokes Respiration may be defined as one of the abnormal breathing pattern in human beings. This respiration is more common during wakefulness or sleep of an individual.
Cheyne-Stokes Respiration has the repeated pattern of deeper and faster breathing followed by apnea. This pattern repeated usually from 30 seconds to two minutes.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Answer:
Cheyne-Stokes Respirations
Explanation:
In Cheyne-Stokes respiration, a client’s breathing pattern is characterized by progressively deeper and faster breathing, that is, hyperventilation followed by apnea.
Name and briefly describe the three functions of the small intestine.
Answer:
Functions of the small intestine:
- Digestion process = contributes to end digestion by adding pancreatic and bile juices to the process.
- Absorption process = Aids in the absorption of water, vitamins, proteins, salts, fats necessary for the body.
- Food transit (peritalism) = the chyme formed in the stomach continues its process in the intestine where more digestive enzymes are joined until it is taken to the large intestine with many products already discarded from the digestion.
Gap junctions and desmosomes are associated with what structure?
A) Intercalated disc
B) tight junctions
C) NMJ
D) synapses
Answer:
the correct answer is option A- Intercalated disc
Explanation:
Intercalated discs are the characteristic microscopic feature of the cardiac muscle which allows the cardiac cells to work as a single unit or syncytium.
The disc allows the cardiomyocytes (an individual cell) to act as one unit due to the "desmosomes and gap junctions" which allows the diffusion of ions to pass to nearby cardiomyocytes and allow depolarization of the entire heart which causes contraction.
Thus, option A- Intercalated disc is the correct answer.
Protection against illegal searches and seizures is specified by
a. the fourth amendment
b. the Civil Rights Act
c. the Declaration of Independence.
d. none of the above.
Answer:
A. The Fourth Amendment
Explanation:
The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects people's rights to be secure in their "persons, houses, papers, and effects", meaning that the government can not do searches and seizures to people's properties or belongings unless those searches and seizures are deemed reasonable under the law or legal and follow certain conditions. This Amendment was designed to protect people's privacy and to limit the government power so they can not act at the expense of citizen's rights.
The purpose of vagotomy when doing a gastric resection is to:
A. produce gastric atony.
B. decrease gastric acid hypersecretion.
C. increase gastrin formation to neutralize hydrochloric acid.
D. decrease midline periodic pain.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Vagotomy is a medical procedure which is used to decrease the gastric secretion in the stomach by denervating the parental cell that produces acid.
This condition is useful in case pf peptic ulcers. It is also used to eliminate or reduce the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux in the patients who has already suffered from this.
In this operation the vagus nerve is cut down to reduce the rate of gastric secretion.
Thus, the correct answer is option B
Why is reflex testing an important diagnostic tool in physical examinations?
Answer:
Reflex test determines the injury of spinal cord and neuromuscular disease.
Explanation:
Reflex test is a type of neurological examination that determines the functioning of both the motor and sensory pathway. This is a simple test that explains the integrity of nervous system.
Reflex test helps in measuring the strength and presence of number of reflexes. This test is helpful to determine the location of spinal cord injury and neuromuscular diseases.
Angina pectoris is an example of a(n) __________ pain.
Answer: Chest Pain
Explanation:
Angina pectoris is a type of ischemic pain associated with inadequate blood flow and oxygen to the heart muscle, leading to chest pain. It is a symptom of coronary heart disease and can be classified as either stable or unstable angina. Treatment focuses on symptom relief and slowing down the progression of cardiovascular disease.
Explanation:Angina pectoris is an example of ischemic pain. Angina is a symptom of coronary heart disease, where chest pain or discomfort occurs because the heart muscle cells do not receive adequate blood flow and oxygen (ischemia). This condition is commonly caused by the partial blockage of the coronary arteries due to the buildup of plaque.
There are two types of angina: stable angina and unstable angina. Stable angina is manageable and often triggered by physical exertion, while unstable angina can occur at rest, last longer, and could be an indicator of an imminent heart attack. Treatment for angina aims to provide symptom relief and slow the progression of atherosclerosis.
The symptom of chest pain associated with angina often feels like pressure or squeezing and may spread to other areas such as the arms, neck, jaw, or back. This is an indication that the heart muscle requires more oxygen than it is receiving. Such symptoms warrant timely medical evaluation and management.
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Which psychiatric disorder consists of behaviors such as repetitive hand washing, checking if doors are locked, etc.?
a. anxiety disorder
b. attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. panic disorder
The correct answer is C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation
Obsessive-compulsive disorder or OCD is a psychiatric or mental disorder in which people mainly shows compulsion or repetitive behaviors and obsession which become repetitive and automatic as the individual is unable to control these behaviors which leads to issues in the individual's daily life. Because of this, in OCDs behaviors such as counting certain elements compulsively, storing objects in a certain way, repetitive hand washing, doing certain actions a specific number of times and checking if the doors are locked over and over are common. Additionally, this type of disorder is linked to anxiety disorder as irrational anxiety and fears can lead to compulsions and disorders. Considering this, it can be concluded it is Obsessive-compulsive disorder the disorder that consists of behaviors such as repetitive hand washing, checking if doors are locked, etc.
Which one of the following anti-hypertensive drugs may cause postural hypotension?
a. Propanolol
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Losartan
Answer:
The correct option is : b. Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation:
Postural hypotension, also known as the orthostatic hypotension, is a medical condition in which the blood pressure of a person drops while in a standing or sitting position. This condition is characterized by a drop in the systolic and diastolic blood pressure of at least 20 and 10 mm Hg respectively. This drop in blood pressure can be sudden or gradual.
The hydrochlorothiazide is an anti-hypertensive drug which can cause postural hypotension.
An area in the body exposed to the external environment would be composed of which of the following tissue types?
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Connective tissue
c) Muscle tissue
d) Nervous tissue
Answer:
The answer is A: Epithelial tissue.
Explanation:
The epithelial tissue is the tissue that is mostly exposed to the external environment. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin, it is a type of epithelial tissue, covering large spaces of the body. It consists mostly of dense accumulations of cells attached to each other that allow them to communicate with each other.
An area of the body exposed to the external environment would be composed of epithelial tissue, which protects the body, secretes substances, and absorbs nutrients.
An area of the body that is exposed to the external environment would likely be composed of epithelial tissue. This type of tissue includes sheets of cells that cover exterior surfaces of the body, line internal cavities and passageways, and form certain glands. The primary functions of epithelial tissue are to protect the body from external elements, to secrete substances, and to absorb nutrients. The tissues that are not primarily exposed to the external environment are connective tissue, which provides support and integrates parts of the body; muscle tissue, which allows for movement; and nervous tissue, which propagates electrochemical signals for communication. To directly answer the question, the tissue type that would compose an area exposed to the external environment is (a) Epithelial tissue.
The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to
a. the end-systolic volume.
b. the end-diastolic volume.
c. the afterload.
d. the heart rate.
e. contractility.
Answer:
The end-diastolic volume.
Explanation:
The Frank-Starling law is also named as the Starling's law. This law explains the relationship between the end-diastolic volume and stroke volume.
This law propose that the stroke volume increases with the increase in the end-diastolic volume of the heart, all other factors remain same. Hence, the stroke volume is proportional to the end-diastolic volume.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The Frank-Starling law states that the stroke volume of the heart is proportional to the end-diastolic volume. It means that the more the heart is filled during diastole (end-diastolic volume), the more it ejects during systolic contraction (stroke volume). This law is pivotal in maintaining the balance of blood volume in the heart.
Explanation:The Frank-Starling law of the heart is a physiological phenomenon which states that the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart (the end diastolic volume) when all other factors remain constant.
In other words, the stroke volume is proportional to the end-diastolic volume (Option B). The larger the volume of blood entering the heart during diastole (end-diastolic volume), the larger the volume of blood ejected during systolic contraction (stroke volume), which is an essential mechanism for maintaining the balance of input and output blood volume in the heart.
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Why most of the microorganisms cannot survive in the stomach?
During sexual arousal in males and females, erotic thoughts and/or sensory stimulation both lead to _____________ that produces engorgement of the erectile tissues.
a. sympathetic activity
b. hypothalamic activity
c. increased cerebellar activity
d. parasympathetic activity
e. testosterone secretion
Answer:
D. Parasympathetic activity
Explanation:
The parasympathic system is part of the Autonomous Nervous System. They have two types colinergic receptors: muscarinic receptors M1, M2, M3 and M4 and nicotinic receptors. Through M3 receptors, the parasympathetic effect in the male sex organ is erection.
What are the two valves (sphincters) that enclose the small intestine at each end?
Answer:
Pylorus and ileocecal valve
Explanation:
The pylorus is the sphinecter that connects the stomach with the first portion of the small intestine, the pulorus has an antrum and a canal. This valve control the gastruc flow from the stomach to the duedenum.
The ileocecal connect both intestines, this valve that connects the ileum to the cecum has an importan absorption and lymphatic functions.
The small intestine is enclosed by two sphincters called the pyloric sphincter and the ileocecal valve. The pyloric sphincter controls the passage of food from the stomach to the small intestine and the ileocecal valve regulates the exit of digested material from the small intestine into the large intestine.
Explanation:The two valves, or sphincters, that enclose the small intestine at each end are the pyloric sphincter and the ileocecal valve. The pyloric sphincter is located at the stomach end of the small intestine and controls the passage of food material, commonly known as chyme, from the stomach into the duodenum of the small intestine. This sphincter is usually closed, but when food needs to be passed into the small intestine, it opens to allow the passage of the chyme.
On the opposite end of the small intestine, the ileocecal valve controls the exit of digested material from the small intestine into the large intestine. Similar to the pyloric sphincter, the ileocecal valve is generally constricted but relaxes to allow the passage of food residue to enter the cecum, the first part of the large intestine, when ileal motility increases. Once the chyme has passed through, backward pressure assists in closing the sphincter, preventing any backflow into the ileum.
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Which of the following choices has the parts of the bronchial tree in the correct order from largest (in diameter) to smallest (in diameter)?
a) Primary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Terminal bronchioles, Secondary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Alveoli
b) Primary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Terminal bronchioles, Respiratory bronchioles, Alveoli
c) Primary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Terminal bronchioles, Alveoli
d) Primary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Terminal bronchioles, Alveoli
Answer:
The answer is B: Primary bronchus, secondary bronchus, tertiary bronchus, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveoli.
The correct order of the parts of the bronchial tree is: Primary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Terminal bronchioles, Alveoli.
Explanation:
The correct order of the parts of the bronchial tree from largest to smallest in diameter is:
Primary bronchus: This divides into secondary bronchi and is the first bifurcation of the trachea.Secondary bronchus: These are branches of the primary bronchi that lead to different lobes of the lungs.Tertiary bronchus: These are further divisions of the secondary bronchi and lead to different segments of the lung.Respiratory bronchioles: These are the first branches that contain alveoli, where gas exchange occurs.Terminal bronchioles: These are the narrowest branches of the bronchial tree.Alveoli: These are tiny air sacs at the end of the respiratory bronchioles where oxygen is exchanged for carbon dioxide.So, the correct choice is c) Primary bronchus, Secondary bronchus, Tertiary bronchus, Respiratory bronchioles, Terminal bronchioles, Alveoli.
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Describe diffusion and osmosis, as well as comparing hypotonic, hypertonic and isotonic solutions.
Answer:
Diffusion is the net movement of any substance from a higher concentration region to the lower concentration region. It is conducting by a concentration gradient.
Osmosis is a process in which solvent (molecules) pass through a semipermeable membrane (SPM) from a lower concentration solution region to a higher concentration region so it equalizes the concentrations on each side of the SPM.
A hypotonic solution is a solution that has a higher concentration of solutes inside the cell than outside of the cell. Thus the movement of water is from outside to the inside of the cell.
A hypertonic solution is a solution in which solutes concentration is greater outside the cell and low concentration inside. The movement of water is from inside the cell to outside the cell.
An isotonic solution where two solutions having the same concentration inside and outside of the cell so there is free movement of molecules across a semipermeable membrane.
Complete the following sentence that describe the alimentary canal and its walls:
The ____________ is composed mostly of connective tissue, nerves, and vessels, which help to nourish surrounding tissues.
The submucosa is composed mostly of connective tissue, nerves, and vessels, which help to nourish surrounding tissues.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking pioglitazone. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
a. Tinnitus
b. Insomnia
c. Fluid retention
d. Orthostatic hypotension
Answer:
C. Fluid Retention
Explanation:
Pioglitazone belongs to the family of Thiazolidinediones, they act as ligands of the PPARgamma receptor, a pair of nuclear hormone receptors that participate in the regulation of genes related to the metabolism of glucose and lipids. They are used for patients with DM2, specially those with renal disease, since they do not metabolize in the kidney. Among their therapeutical effects they increase secretion of adiponectine, lower liver fat and redistributes it to the subcutaneal layer of the skin. Their side effects include:
-Hepatotoxicity with increased liver enzymes
- Increase risk of long-term fractures
-Weight gain, due to fluid retention with edema. The edema is formed by intracellular effects by the stimulation of Na + pumps which stimulates the hydrosaline retention.
Which of the following characteristics helps to define a hominin?
A-long upper arms
B-large brain size
C-large molar teeth
D-arboreal quadrupedalism
Answer:
The correct answer is option B-large brain size.
Explanation:
Hominins are the living being which is a type or tribe of a group of an organism called primates. These primates are also called hominids.
Hominin represents the living group of the organism which shows three important characteristics:
1. Bipedalism: the ability to walk on two legs.
2. Large cranial size: large brain capacity (1500 cc) of Homo sapiens.
3. Reduced canine size: reduced size of teeth.
The only living hominin is "humans".
Thus, option B-large brain size is the correct answer.
A distinguishing feature of hominins, including humans and related extinct species, is a larger brain size compared to other primates. This characteristic is associated with advanced cognitive abilities. Therefore, the correct answer would be B
Explanation:A characteristic that is crucial in defining a hominin is B-large brain size. Hominins, the group of primates that includes humans and our closest extinct relatives, are distinguished particularly by brain size, which is significantly larger compared to non-hominin primates.
This large brain size is associated with complex cognitive skills, such as more developed language abilities and tool use. While the other alternatives (A, C, and D) can be found in many primate species, large brain size is especially characteristic of hominins.
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Which cranial nerve carries motor commands to the chewing muscles?
a. facial nerve
b. hypoglossal nerve
c. trigeminal nerve
d. glossopharyngeal nerve
The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying motor commands to the muscles involved in chewing. Hence, the answer is option c.
The trigeminal nerve (CN V) nerve controls the muscles involved in mastication, which is necessary for chewing food. Additionally, for testing purposes, stretch reflexes in these muscles can indicate the functionality of the trigeminal nerve. The motor functions of the facial nerve are related to facial expressions rather than mastication and can be tested by observing a patient's ability to perform actions such as raising eyebrows, smiling, and frowning. Hence, the correct answer to the question is option c. trigeminal nerve.
Which of the functions below is least associated with hepatic function?
A. Lipid emulsification
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. glycogen storage
D. iron storage
E. digestive enzyme secretion
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Liver is a large reddish brown organ that is responsible for various types of function. It deals with many functions.
Some of them includes: Lipid emulsification, iron storage, Gluconeogenesis and glycogen storage.
It does not helps in the secretion of digestive enzymes secretion. Liver produces bilivirdin and bilirubin(yellowish fluid)which helps in the emulsification of fat droplets but bilivirdin and bilirubin are not digestive enzymes.
Hence, the correct answer is" option E".
Bone is an ancient tissue (evolved +/- 500 million years ago) and is present only in Chordates.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
Bone is an ancient tissue (evolved +/- 500 million years ago) and is NOT present only in Chordates.
A client’s transdermal fentanyl was discontinued 2hr ago due to adverse effects. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to document?
a. Heart rate
b. Respiratory rate
c. Bowel sounds
d. Activity level
Answer:
The answer is A Heart Rate
Explanation:
Fentanyl is an analgesic medication that is used for chronic pain that acts on different presynaptic and postsynaptic receptors of the organism. it can produce bradycardia, due to its effect on the sinus node conduction.
The foldings of the plasma membrane of intestinal epithelial cells that produce the "brush border" are called ____________.
Answer:
The villi present on the epithelial lining of the intestinal wall has numerous microvilli that form the brush border.
Explanation:
The villi are the finger-like, small projections or foldings, present on the epithelial lining of the intestinal wall and extends into the lumen of small intestine. The special structure of the villi maximizes the surface area of the intestine, in order to maximize the absorption of nutrients.
The villus has numerous microvilli projecting from enterocytes of the epithelium. These numerous microscopic projections form the striated or brush border.
The scientific name of brewer's yeast, which is an excellent experimental organism used to study eukaryotic cells, is __________.
(a) E. coli
(b) D. melanogaster
(c)S. cerevisiae
(d) C. elegans
Answer: Option C " S. cerevisiae"
Explanation: Saccharomyces cerevisiae can be used as a model system for the fundamental cellular process related to eukaryotic organism.
The reason it is being used for the study of eukaryotic cells is as follows:
1- It has high multiplication rate.
2- As per the study, more than 60% of the functional gene is known.
3- 30% of the human genes has the same homology to this yeast
Hence, S. cerevisiae is used as a model organism for studying eukaryotic cells.
Correct spelling of nontender
It can be spelled as either non tender or non-tender
Both are correct
The thyroid hormones increase metabolic rate by increasing all of the following except:
a. oxygen utilization
b. glycogenolysis
c. lipolysis
d. Na+/K+ ATPase activity
e. CO2 production
f. protein synthesis
Answer:
The correct answer is option e. CO₂ production.
Explanation:
Thyroid hormones stimulate an increase in metabolic rate. It increased oxygen consumption and rates of ATP hydrolysis. Increased thyroid hormone levels stimulate lipid mobilization. They also increase the oxidation of fatty acids in several tissues.
Thyroid hormones have an effect on the increase of metabolism of carbohydrates, including increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis to producing free glucose.
CO₂ production is not a factor that increases metabolic rate stimulated by thyroid hormone but an outcome of the metabolic activity.
Thus, the correct answer is option e. CO₂ production.