Bia garden store makes two types of gazebo. Making a wooden gazebo requires 4 hours of labor while making a metal gazebo requires 10 hours of labor. During the most recent accounting period the company made 2,000 wooden gazebos and 500 metal gazebos. Indirect manufacturing costs amounted to $52,000 and are allocated based on labor hours. Based on this information: OA. $4 of overhead cost should be allocated to each gazebo regardless of the type. OB. $20.80 of overhead cost should be allocated to each gazebo regardless of the type. O C.$16 of overhead cost should be assigned to each wooden gazebo and $40 of overhead cost should be assigned to each metal gazebo. None of the answers are correct.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

C.$16 of overhead cost should be assigned to each wooden gazebo and

   $40 of overhead cost should be assigned to each metal gazebo

Explanation:

2,000 wooden x 4 hours = 8,000 labor hours

500 metal x 10 = 5,000 labor hours

total hours 13,000

single manufacturing overhead: 52,000 / 13,000 = $4 per labor hours

wooden gazebos:  4hours x $4 = $ 16

metal gazebos:    10 hours x $4 = $40


Related Questions

Blossom Company took a physical inventory on December 31 and determined that goods costing $560,000 were on hand. Not included in the physical count were $8,000 of goods purchased from Sunland Corporation, f.o.b. shipping point, and $29,000 of goods sold to Ro-Ro Company for $40,000, f.o.b. destination. Both the Sunland purchase and the Ro-Ro sale were in transit at year-end. What amount should Blossom report as its December 31 inventory

Answers

Answer:

Blossom  December 31 inventory $ 608,000

Explanation:

Blossom Company

Physical inventory on December 31  $560,000

Add goods purchased from Sunland Corporation $8,000

( the terms are f.o.b point they are buyer's inventory when the purchase was made)

Add goods sold to Ro-Ro Company for $40,000

( they will be added as it is f.o.b destination that is unless it reaches destination it is sellers' inventory)

Blossom  December 31 inventory $ 608,000

F.O. B shipping point transfers the title to the buyer when the purchases is made.

F. O. B shipping destination  are seller's goods until they reach their destination

When the sale is recorded the sales units are  recorded in the ending inventory because of f.o.b destination  but when the purchases are made the units are included in the ending inventory  because of  terms f.o.b point.

Your small remodeling business has two work vehicles. One is a small passenger car used for job site visits and for other general business purposes. The other is a heavy truck used to haul equipment. The car gets 25 miles per gallon (mpg). The truck gets 10 mpg. You want to improve gas mileage to save money, and you have enough money to upgrade one vehicle. The upgrade cost will be the same for both vehicles. An upgraded car will get 40 mpg; an upgraded truck will get 12.5 mpg. The cost of gasoline is $2.65 per gallon. Calculate the annual fuel savings in gallons for the truck and car assuming both vehicles are driven 12,000 miles per year. (Do not round intermediate calculations.)

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

First - if we upgrade the Car :

Current cost of fuel in car - 12000/25*2.65 = 1272$

after upgrading the car , cost of fuel in car - 12000/40*2.65 = 795$

Net saving in fuel cost -   1272-795 = 477$

Second - if we upgrade the Truck :

Current cost of fuel in truck - 12000/10*2.65 = 3180$

after upgrading the truck , cost of fuel in truck - 12000/12.5*2.65 = 2544$

Net saving in fuel cost - 3180-2544 = 636 $

So, we should upgrade the truck, because it will give more saving in fuel cost.

ANNUAL FUEL SAVINGS IN GALLONS:

CAR - 477/2.65 = 180 GALLONS

TRUCK - 636/2.65 = 240 GALLONS

suppose that a new alloy is invented which uses copper and zinc in fixed proportions where 1 unit of output requires 3 units of copper and 3 units of zinc for each unit of alloy produced. If no other inputs are needed, the price of copper is $3, and the price of zinc is $3, what is the average cost per unit when 4,000 units of the alloy are produced?

Answers

Answer:

$18 per unit

Explanation:

Average cost per unit is the cot of the product to product on average basis. Any product uses different costs to produce like material, Labor and overheads.

In this question there is only material cost of Copper and Zinc material to make Alloy.

Total Cost = 4,000 units [($3x3)+($3x3)] = $72,000

Average cost per unit = Total Cost / Total numbers of unit

Average cost per unit = $72,000 / 4,000 = $18 per unit

Answer:

the average cost per unit when 4,000 units of the alloy are produced : $18.00

Explanation:

Step 1. Calcutate the the Unit Cost of the New

Materials Costs

Copper (3 units × $3) = $9.00

Zinc (3 units $3)         = $9.00

Total                           = $18.00

Step 2 Calculate the Total Cost of the New

Total Cost=Unit Cost × Total Units of Production

                = $18.00 × 4,000 units

                = $72,000

Grunewald Industries sells on terms of 2/10, net 40. Gross sales last year were $4,380,000 and accounts receivable averaged $493,500. Half of Grunewald's customers paid on the 10th day and took discounts. What are the nominal and effective costs of trade credit to Grunewald's nondiscount customers

Answers

Answer:

Nominal 24.83%

Effective 27.86%

Explanation:

Terms 2/10, n/40 means there is a discount of 2% is available on payment of due amount within discount period of 10 days after sale with net credit period of 40 days.

Gross Sales = $4,380,000

Received within 10 days = $2,190,000

As $2,190,000 of Gross sales payments are made within discount period, discount will be availed on this value.

Discount = $2,190,000 x 2% = $43,800

Nominal Cost of trade = 2%

Effective cost of Trade

Nominal Cost of trade  = 2% / (1 - 2%) x (365 / (40 -10 )

Nominal Cost of trade  = 24.83%

Effective cost of Trade = ( 2%/(1-2%) )^(365/(40-10)) - 1

Effective cost of Trade =   27.86%

Answer:

Nominal cost = 17.7 %.

Effective cost = 19.2 %

Explanation:

Calculate daily sales based on a 365-day year,

calculate the average receivables for discount customers,

find the DSO for the nondiscount customers

Sales per day = $4,380,000 / 365 days = $12,000

Discounted sales = 0.50 ($12,000) = $6,000

Accounts receivable attributable to discount customers = 10 * $6,000 = $60,000

Accounts receivable attributable to non-discount customers = $493,500 - $60,000 = $433,500

Alternatively

$493,500 / $12,000 = 41.13 days i.e. 41 days

41 days = 0.50 (10) + .50 * DSO nondiscount

Non discount = 36/.50 = 72 days

Non discount are require to pay in 40 days but they are paying in 72 days

Effective cost = (1 + 2/98 ) ^ (365 / 42) - 1

1.192 - 1 = 0.192 = 19.2 %

Nominal cost = 2/98*365/42 = 0.177 = 17.7 %.

ACME Corporation sells a product for $170 per unit. The product's current sales are 10,000 units and its break-even sales are 8,100 units. The margin of safety as a percentage of sales is closest to __________.

Answers

Answer:

Margin of safety ratio= 0.19= 19%

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

ACME Corporation sells a product for $170 per unit. The product's current sales are 10,000 units and its break-even sales are 8,100 units.

To calculate the margin of safety as a percentage, we need to use the following formula:

Margin of safety ratio= (current sales level - break-even point)/current sales level

Margin of safety ratio= (170*10,000 - 170*8,100) / (170*10,000)

Margin of safety ratio=(1,700,000 - 1,377,000) / 1700,000

Margin of safety ratio= 0.19= 19%

Velma and Keota (V&K) is considering an investment opportunitiy. The investment requires V&K to spend $11,751.44 to acquire a piece of asset. The asset will have an expected useful life of five years and no salvage value. This investment will generate expected cash inflows of $3,100 per year for the next five years. V&K has established a 9 percent minimum rate of return for all investments. (PV of $1 and PVA of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.) Required Calculate the total present value of all cash inflows for this investment opportunity. (Round final answer to the second decimal point. Do not round intermediate calculations.) Calculate the net present value of this investment opportunity. (Round final answer to the second decimal point. Do not round intermediate calculations.) Calculate the internal rate of return for this investment opportunity.

Answers

Answer:

The total present values of cash inflows is $12,057.92

The net present value is $306.48  

The IRR is 10%

Explanation:

The total present values was computed by multiplying each of the cash flow by a discount factor ,which is given as 1/(1+r)^n

r is the percent minimum  rate of return

n is the relevant year of cash flow

The computation is found in the attached.

The net present is the sum of present of inflows minus cash outflow

The formula for IRR is ,=irr(values) as contained in the excel file attached.

Final answer:

The total present value of all cash inflows is $12,433.85. The net present value of this investment opportunity is $682.41. The internal rate of return for this investment opportunity is approximately 8.54%.

Explanation:

To calculate the total present value of all cash inflows, we need to find the present value of each cash inflow and sum them up. Using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity, we can find that the present value of each cash inflow is $2,486.77. Therefore, the total present value of all cash inflows is $12,433.85.



The net present value of an investment is calculated by subtracting the initial investment from the total present value of all cash inflows. In this case, the net present value is $12,433.85 - $11,751.44 = $682.41.



The internal rate of return (IRR) is the discount rate that makes the net present value of an investment equal to zero. To find the IRR, we can use the interpolation method. By interpolating between the discount rates of 8% and 9%, we can estimate that the IRR is approximately 8.54%.

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An investor starts with $1 million and converts it to 0.75 million pounds, which is then invested for one year. In a year the investor has 0.7795 million pounds, which she then converts to dollars at an exchange rate of 0.72 pounds per dollar. The U.S. dollar annual rate of return earned was _____.

Answers

Answer:

8.26%

Explanation:

If the investor had, at the end of the year, 0.7795 million pounds, when converting that amount to U.S. dollars at an exchange rate of 0.72 pounds per dollar, the investor would have:

[tex]A = 0.7795\ million\ pounds*\frac{\$1}{0.72\ pounds}\\A=\$1.08264\ million[/tex]

Since the investment lasted for exactly 1 year, the annual rate of return was:

[tex]r=\frac{\$1.08264}{\$1}-1\\ r=0.08264\\r=8.26\%[/tex]

The U.S. dollar annual rate of return earned was 8.26%.

Answer:

Multiple choices are:

4.97%

5.27%

6.45%

7.69%

8.26%

The U.S. dollar annual rate of return earned was is 8.26%

Explanation:

Initial investment =$1 million

dollar value of investment after 1 year=pounds value*$1/pounds exchange rate

pounds value of investment after 1 year=0.7795 million pounds

$1 equals to 0.72 pounds in year

dollar value of investment after 1 year=0.7795*$1/0.72

dollar value of investment after 1 year=$1.082638889

U.S dollar annual rate of return earned=dollar value of investment after 1 year-initial dollar investment/initial dollar investment

U.S dollar annual rate of return earned=($1.082638889  million-$1 million)/$1 million*100

U.S dollar annual rate of return earned=0.082638889

U.S dollar annual rate of return earned=8.26%

Bill deposits $100 at the end of each year for thirteen years into fund A. Seth deposits $100 at the end of each year for thirteen years into fund B. Fund A earns an annual effective rate of 15% for the first five years and an annual effective rate of 6% thereafter. Fund B earns an annual effective rate of i throughout the thirteen years. The two funds have equal accumulated values at the end of the thirteen years. Find i.

Answers

Answer:

The value of interest is 7,387%

Explanation:

We will first deal with fund A. First we will deal with the first 5 years earning interest at 15%.

Using a financial calculator we enter the following keystrokes

n = number of years i = interest pmt = annual payments FV = future value

n = 5 i = 15% pmt = 100 COMP FV

FV = 674,23

Now we wil use 674,23 as our Present Value (PV).

n = 8 PV = 674,23 i = 6% pmt = 100 comp FV

FV = 2064,36

Now we use this figure as the FV in Fund B to determine the interest rate.

n = 13 FV = 2065,36 pmt = 100 comp I *Note that either payments or FV needs to be entered as a negative otherwise the calculator will give you an error.

Interest = 7,387%

Final answer:

To find the effective annual interest rate Seth's fund needs to match the future value of Bill's fund, set the future values of the two funds equal to each other, and solve for i.

Explanation:

To solve this problem, we need to calculate the future value of Bill's and Seth's annual deposits to their respective funds over the thirteen years.

For Bill's deposits in Fund A, we need to divide it into two parts due to the change in the interest rate. The first part has 5 years of deposits with an interest rate of 0.15, while the second part has 8 years of deposits with an interest rate of 0.06. So, the accumulated value of Bill's deposits at the end of thirteen years will be:
Future_value_Bill = $100 * [(1+0.15)^5 - 1] / 0.15 + $100 * [(1+0.06)^8 - 1] / 0.06.

For Seth's deposits in Fund B, it's simpler because the interest rate remains the same over the thirteen years. So, the accumulated value of Seth's deposits after thirteen years can be calculated as: Future_value_Seth = $100 * [(1+i)^13 - 1] / i.

Since it's given that the two funds have equal accumulated values at the end of the thirteen years, we can set the above two formulas equal to each other and solve for i:
$100 * [(1+0.15)^5 - 1] / 0.15 + $100 * [(1+0.06)^8 - 1] / 0.06 = $100 * [(1+i)^13 - 1] / i.

Solving this equation will yield the annual effective rate, i, for Seth's account Fund B.

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Granite Construction Company is considering selling excess machinery with a book value of $175,000 (original cost of $315,000 less accumulated depreciation of $140,000) for $180,000, less a 5% brokerage commission. Alternatively, the machinery can be leased for a total of $200,000 for four years, after which it is expected to have no residual value. During the period of the lease, Granite Construction Company’s costs of repairs, insurance, and property tax expenses are expected to be $34,400. a. Prepare a differential analysis, dated November 7 to determine whether Granite should lease (Alternative 1) or sell (Alternative 2) the machinery.

Answers

Final answer:

Granite Construction Company should sell the excess machinery based on a differential analysis of the cash inflows and outflows for both alternatives.

Explanation:

To determine whether Granite Construction Company should lease or sell the excess machinery, a differential analysis needs to be prepared. First, let's calculate the cash inflows and outflows for both alternatives:

Alternative 1: Lease

Cash inflows: $200,000

Cash outflows: $34,400

Net Cash Flow: $200,000 - $34,400 = $165,600

Alternative 2: Sell

Cash inflows: $180,000 - 5% brokerage commission

Cash outflows: None

Net Cash Flow: $180,000 - (5% * $180,000) = $180,000 - $9,000 = $171,000

Next, compare the net cash flows to determine the more profitable alternative:

If Granite Construction Company leases the machinery:

Net Cash Flow: $165,600

If Granite Construction Company sells the machinery:

Net Cash Flow: $171,000

The alternative with the higher net cash flow is more profitable, so in this case, Granite Construction Company should sell the excess machinery.

On October 15, 2021, a 6% stock dividend was declared and distributed. The fair value of the common stock on this date was $32.3 per share. Fractional share rights represented 100,000 shares. Cash was paid in lieu of issuing fractional share rights. On the date of declaration and payment, the company had 10.3 million shares of common stock outstanding. The par of the common shares was $5 per share.

Prepare any necessary journal entries to record the above events.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is given below;

Explanation:

For Dividend

Dividend Expense (10.3*5*6%)   Dr. $3.090 Million

Bank                                             Cr.$3.090 Million

For fractional Shares,

Capital 100,000*32.3                     Dr.$ 3,230,000

Cash                                               Cr.$  3,230,000

Indigo Corporation factors $256,800 of accounts receivable with Kathleen Battle Financing, Inc. on a with recourse basis. Kathleen Battle Financing will collect the receivables. The receivables records are transferred to Kathleen Battle Financing on August 15, 2020. Kathleen Battle Financing assesses a finance charge of 2% of the amount of accounts receivable and also reserves an amount equal to 4% of accounts receivable to cover probable adjustments. (b) Assume that the conditions are met for a transfer of receivables with recourse to be accounted for as a sale. Prepare the journal entry on August 15, 2020, for Indigo to record the sale of receivables, assuming the recourse obligation has a fair value of $4,660.

Answers

Answer:

The journal entry on August 15, 2020  is as follows:

August 15, 2020

Cash                                $241,392  

Due from factors                 $10,272  

Loss on sale of receivables $7,136  

                                                  Recourse liability  $2,000

                                                 Account receivable  $256,800

Explanation:

In order to prepare the journal entry on August 15, 2020, we would have to get the the computation of net proceeds and then the Computation of gain or loss.

Therefore, Computation of net proceeds=

Cash received($256,800×94%)=$241,392

Add Due from factor($256,800×4%)=$10,272

Less recourse obligation=$2,000

Hence, Net proceeds=$249,664

Next, we calculate the Computation of gain or loss=

Carrying value=$256,800

Less net proceeds=$249,664

Hence, there is a Loss=$7,136

Therefore, the journal entry on August 15, 2020  is as follows:

August 15, 2020

Cash                                $241,392  

Due from factors                 $10,272  

Loss on sale of receivables $7,136  

                                                  Recourse liability  $2,000

                                                 Account receivable  $256,800

Final answer:

To record the sale of receivables with recourse, Indigo Corporation will debit the Accounts Receivable and Sales Revenue accounts, credit the Recourse Obligation and Finance Charge Expense accounts, and calculate the gain on the sale.

Explanation:

The sale of receivables with recourse to be accounted for as a sale involves recording the transaction in the books of the seller. In this case, Indigo Corporation factors $256,800 of accounts receivable with Kathleen Battle Financing, Inc. on a with-recourse basis. To record the sale, Indigo will debit the Accounts Receivable and Sales Revenue accounts, credit the Recourse Obligation and the Finance Charge Expense accounts, and calculate the gain on the sale. The journal entry on August 15, 2020, will be as follows:


Debit Accounts Receivable for $256,800
Credit Sales Revenue for $256,800
Debit Recourse Obligation for $4,660
Credit Finance Charge Expense for $5,136 (2% of $256,800)
Credit Gain on Sale for $1,476 ($5,136 - $3,660)

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1. Firm A has 10 million shares outstanding, currently trading at $5/share. They are worried about possible hostile acquisitions, so they adopt a poison pill that consists of call options that allow shareholders to purchase 1 additional share per share owned. The poison pill options will allow the shareholders to purchase their new share at a price of $2/share if a hostile bidder purchases 20% of the equity of Firm A. (Assume all options are exercised)

Show the impact of this poison pill if a bidder buys 20% of Firm A:

Answers

Answer:

We are told that Firm A has 10 million Shares outstanding, Currently trading at $ 5/share.

They adopt Poison pill to avoid possible Hostile Acquisitions.

What then is poison pill?

Poison Pill: Poison Pill technique is used to avoid the acquisitions which may take place due to the hostile takeovers. This is a defensive mechanism used by the target company to prevent the bidders from takeover. At that time it allows the shareholders to buy more shares at a discount , if one shareholders purchase the 20% of the shares.

Here, the posison pill allows the shareholders to purchase additional share per share owned. This allows the shareholders to purchase their new shares at a price of $2/sahre if a hostile bidder purchases 20% of the equity of firm.

If a bidder buys 20% of Firm A, this allows the other share holders to buy the shares at discount which would dilute the bidders interest and increase the cost of the bid.This makes the bidder to withdraw from the decision to takeover. He has to negotiate with board inorder to revoke the plan. The Board of Directors revokes the plan by attaching option or warrant to the existing shares.

So, the Bidder may withdraw the plan to takeover due to increase in the cost of the bid due to the purchases made by the othershareholders at discount.

Explanation:

PowerTrain Sports Inc. manufactures and sells two styles of All Terrain Vehicles (ATVs), the Mountain Monster, and Desert Dragon from a single manufacturing facility. The manufacturing facility operates at 100% of capacity.

The following per unit information is available for the two products:

Mountain Monster
Sales price $5,400
Variable cost of goods $3,285
Manufacturing margin $2,115
Variable selling expenses $1,035
Contribution margin $1,080
Fixed expenses $485
Income from operations $595
Desert Dragon
Sales price $5,250
Variable cost of goods sold $3,400
Manufacturing margin $1,850
Variable selling expenses $905
Contribution margin $945
Fixed expenses $310
Income from operations $635.00

In addition, the following sales unit volume information for the period is as follows: Mountain Monster

Sales unit volume 5,000
Desert Dragon
Sales unit volume 4,850

a. Prepare a contribution margin by product report.
b. Calculate the contribution margin ratio for each product as a percent, rounded to one decimal place.
c. Calculate the contribution margin ratio for each product as a percent, rounded to one decimal place.

Answers

Answer:

Contribution margin ratio Mountain Monster *100=   20.0 %

Contribution margin ratio Desert Dragon * 100= 18.00%

Explanation:

PowerTrain Sports Inc.

Contribution Margin

Product Report

                                  Mountain Monster,     Desert Dragon

Sales price                        $5,400                      $5,250

Variable cost of goods     $3,285                      $3,400

Manufacturing margin       $2,115                        $1,850

Variable selling expenses $1,035                        $905

Contribution margin           $1,080                       $945

Fixed expenses                     $485                      $310

Income from operations         $595                $635.00

b.Contribution margin ratio= Contribution Margin / Sale

Contribution margin ratio= Sales - Variable Costs / Sale

                                     

b. Contribution margin ratio Mountain Monster *100=  

=1080/5400 * 100=  0.2*100= 20.0 %

 

b.Contribution margin ratio Desert Dragon * 100=    

=945/5250* 100   = 0.18*100= 18.00%

c.Contribution margin ratio Mountain Monster *100=  

=1080/5400 * 100=  0.2*100= 20.0 %

 

c.Contribution margin ratio Desert Dragon * 100=    

=945/5250* 100   = 0.18*100= 18.00%

Explanation of contribution margin for Mountain Monster and Desert Dragon ATVs.

a. Contribution Margin by Product Report:

Mountain Monster:

Sales price: $5,400Variable cost of goods: $3,285Contribution margin: $1,080

Desert Dragon:

Sales price: $5,250Variable cost of goods sold: $3,400Contribution margin: $945

b. Contribution Margin Ratio:

Mountain Monster: $1,080 / $5,400 = 0.2 or 20%

Desert Dragon: $945 / $5,250 = 0.18 or 18%

c. Contribution Margin Ratio:

Mountain Monster: $1,080 / $3,285 = 0.33 or 33%

Desert Dragon: $945 / $3,400 = 0.278 or 27.8%

On November 1, 2018, Aviation Training Corp. borrows $46,000 cash from Community Savings and Loan. Aviation Training signs a three-month, 6% note payable. Interest is payable at maturity. Aviation’s year-end is December 31.Required: Record the necessary entries in the Journal Entry.i. Record the issuance of note.ii. Record the adjustment for interest.iii. Record the repayment of the note at maturity.

Answers

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

1.  Cash $46,000

              To Note payable $46,000

(Being the issuance of the note is recorded)

2.  Interest expense ($46,000 × 6% × 2 months ÷ 12 months) $460

            To interest payable $460

(Being the interest expense is recorded)

3. Note payable $46,000

   Interest payable $460

   Interest expense ($46,000 × 6% × 1 months ÷ 12 months ) $230

              To cash $46,690

(Being the repayment of the note is recorded)

Assume that a new law is passed which restricts investors to holding only one asset. A risk-averse investor is considering two possible assets as the asset to be held in isolaiton. The assets' possible returns and related probabilities are as followsAsset X Asset Y Pr Rx Pr Ry.10 -3% .05 -3%.10 2 .10 2.25 5 .30 5.25 8 .30 8.30 10 .25 10Which asset should be preferred?a. Asset X, since its expected return is higher.b. Asset Y, since its beta is probably lower.c. Asset Y, since its coefficient of variation is lower and its expected return is higher.d. Asset X, since its standard deviation is lower.e. Either one, since the expected returns are the same.

Answers

Answer:

(C) Asset Y, since its coefficient of variation is lower and its expected return is higher

Explanation:

Given the various probabilities (P) and returns (R) for Asset X and Asset Y, their expected return is computed as follows.

Asset X = [tex]Summation(P_{r} *R_{x} )[/tex]

= (0.1*-3%) + (0.1*2%) + (0.25*5%) + (0.25*8%) + (0.3*10%)

Expected return (Asset X) = 6.15%

Asset Y = [tex]Summation(P_{r} *R_{y} )[/tex]

= (0.05*-3%) + (0.1*2%) + (0.3*5%) + (0.3*8%) + (0.25*10%)

Expected return (Asset Y) = 6.45%.

Due to its higher expected return, Asset Y should be preferred.

The answer is option C because it contained a statement that Asset Y has a higher expected return.

Option (B) is wrong because we are not certain if Asset Y has a lower beta. We were not given any information to compute the beta.

Options (A), (D) and (E) are wrong because they did not specify Asset Y has the preferred asset.

SY manufacturer (SYM) is producing T-shirt in three colors: blue, red, and white. The monthly demand for each color is 3000 units. Each shirt requires 0.5 pound of raw cotton that is imported from LuftGeshfet-Textile (LGT) Company in Brazil. The purchasing price per pound is $2.5 (paid only when the cotton arrives at SYM’s facilities) and transportation cost by sea is $o.2 per pound. The traveling time from LGT’s facilty in Brazil to SYM facility in the United States is two weeks. The cost of placing a cotton order, by SYM, is $100 and the annual interst rate that SYM is facing is 20 percent. a. What is the optimal order quantity of cotton? b. How frequently should the company order cotton? c. What is the resulting annual holding cost? d. What is the resulting annual ordering cost?

Answers

Answer:

a) Optimal order Quantity =4,472.13 pounds

b) No of times order per year= 12 times in a years i.e once in a month

c) Annual Holding cost = $1207.47

d) Ordering cost per annum = $1207.47

Explanation:

Total annual demand = 3000 ×3 × 12 × 0.5 pounds= 54,000 pounds

Ordering cost per order =  100

Holding cost per order = 20%× (2.5+0.2) = 0.54

Optimal order Quantity = √(2× 100×54000)/0.54

                                     =4,472.13 pounds

No of times order per year

= 54,000/4472.13 = 12 times in a years

 that is, once per month.

Annual Holding cost

= Holding cost per unit annum × Average inventory

= 0.54 × 1/2 × 4,472.135 = $1207.47

Ordering cost per annum

=Annual demand/order quantity × ordering cost per order

= 54,000/4472.13  ×  100 = $1207.47

Thornton Airline Company is considering expanding its territory. The company has the opportunity to purchase one of two different used airplanes. The first airplane is expected to cost $13,770,000; it will enable the company to increase its annual cash inflow by $5,100,000 per year. The plane is expected to have a useful life of five years and no salvage value. The second plane costs $27,900,000; it will enable the company to increase annual cash flow by $9,300,000 per year. This plane has an eight-year useful life and a zero salvage value.

Required

Determine the payback period for each investment alternative and identify the alternative Thornton should accept if the decision is based on the payback approach. (Round your answers to 1 decimal place.)

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer for first plane is 2.7 years and for second plane is 3 years and first plane should be accepted.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

Payback period = Cost of first airplane ÷ Annual cash inflow

First plane cost = $13,770,000

Cash flow = $5,100,000

So, Payback period for first plane = $13,770,000 ÷ $5,100,000

= 2.7 years

Second plane cost = $27,900,000

Cash flow = $9,300,000

So, Payback period for second plane = $27,900,000 ÷ $9,300,000

= 3  years

First plane should be accepted as it has less payback period.

A confidence interval, at the 95% confidence level, will be used to answer the question, "What is the mean annual salary (in US dollars) of a Tesla car owner?" Data was collected from 36 Tesla owners across the US. The mean annual salary of those 36 Tesla owners was $289000 with a standard deviation of $1342.

Answers

Answer:

The answer to the question is given below in the explanation section

Explanation:

From the question  we recall  the following

The mean: this is the  the value at  the center of the confidence interval which represents the quantity.

let Z* denotes when building the confidence level

]The mean = 289000, n = 36, standard deviation= 1342

Z* for 95% Confidence Interval = 1.96

The margin of error = 1.96*[1342/√(36)] = 438.39

The 95% Confidence Interval is given by:

Lower CI = Mean - Margin of error = 289000 - 438.39 = 288561.61

Upper CI = Mean +  Margin of error = 289000 + 438.39 = 289438.39

When the sample is decreased to 20 Tesla owners, the confidence  interval widens.

Final answer:

A 95% confidence interval for the mean annual salary of Tesla car owners is calculated using a t-distribution with the given sample mean and standard deviation. The confidence interval helps estimate the true mean salary within a certain level of certainty.

Explanation:

The question presented requires the construction of a 95% confidence interval for the mean annual salary of Tesla car owners, based on a sample mean of $289,000 and a standard deviation of $1,342 from 36 Tesla owners. To create the confidence interval, the appropriate distribution to use is the t-distribution, since the standard deviation is from a sample and the sample size is relatively small. Calculating the confidence interval involves finding the t-value that corresponds to the 95% confidence level and the degrees of freedom (which is the sample size minus one), and then multiplying this value by the standard error of the sample mean, which is the sample standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.

Using the sample data and the appropriate statistical methods, we can estimate the range in which the true mean annual salary of all Tesla car owners is likely to fall, with 95% certainty. This analysis is essential for making informed business decisions or for academic study.

Wadhams Snow Removal's cost formula for its vehicle operating cost is $1,900 per month plus $430 per snow-day. For the month of December, the company planned for activity of 16 snow-days, but the actual level of activity was 21 snow-days. The actual vehicle operating cost for the month was $11,470.
Required:
1. The vehicle operating cost in the planning budget for December would be closest to _________.

Answers

Answer:

$8,780

Explanation:

According to the planning budget, the monthly operating cost for the vehicle is:

[tex]C=1,900+430d[/tex]

Where 'd' is the number of snow-days.

If the company has planned for 16 snow days, then the operating cost in the planning budget would be:

[tex]C=1,900+430*16\\C=\$8,780[/tex]

The planning budget for December would be $8,780

The following data is related to sales and production for Spark Enterprises at a volume of 120,000 units: Total fixed costs: $300,000 Total costs: $450,000 This question has 5 parts, you must answer all 5. Each part is worth .5 points. If Spark makes 75,000 units what is the fixed cost per unit?

Answers

Answer:

$4 per unit

Explanation:

Fixed costs are those costs which remains same whatever the level of activity is. I t remains constant and do not change with the change in the level of sales / production.

But fixed cost per unit may change with the change in the activity level. if the production volume increases the per unit fixed cost decreases and if the  production volume decreases the per unit fixed cost increases

In this question the fixed cost is $300,000 when the production volume is $120,000

Now Volume is revised and decreased to 75,000 units

Fixed cost per unit = $300,000 / 75,000 units = $4 per unit

BMW has developed two new print ads designed to appeal to women.One ad uses local scenes from around its South Carolina plant and emphasizes the "made in America" aspect.The other ad uses a spokesperson and emphasizes the safety of the car.Which type of ad effectiveness measure should BMW use to test which ad is most effective?
A)split-run testing
B)day-after recall
C)consumer juries
D)physiological measures
E)portfolio tests

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": split-run testing.

Explanation:

A split-run test is useful for companies advertising their products through e-mails or print advertisements. The firm takes a sample of the target population and divides the test into two sections to measure the responsiveness of consumers to one and another promotion. The advertisement that ends up resulting in being more beneficial is sent to all the audience the institution has.

The Variable Speed Company manufactures a line of high quality tools. The company sold 1,000,000 hammers at a price of $4 per unit last year. The company estimates that this volume represents a 20% share of the current hammers market. The market is expected to increase by 5%. Marketing specialists have determined that, as a result of a new advertising campaign and packaging, the company will increase its share of this larger market to 24%. Due to changes in prices, the new price for the hammer will be $4.30 per unit. This new price is expected to be in line with the competition and have no effect on the volume estimates. What are the estimated sales revenues in the coming year

Answers

Answer:

Estimated sales revenue next year =$ 5,418,000.

Explanation:

Current market size  = Company share/percentage of market share

= 1,000,000./0.2

=5,000,000 units

New market size with 5% increase

= 105%× current market size

=105% × 5,000,000

=5,250,000 units

Company new if it will now accounts for 24% of the market size

Company new market share = 24% × New market size

  = 24%× 5,250,000    

=  1,260,000  units

    Estimated sales revenue next year

=  Price per unit × new market share

= $4.30 per unit. ×  1,260,000

=$ 5,418,000.0

Answer:

The estimated sales revenue for the coming year is $5,418,000.00

Explanation:

Quantity sold initially       1,000,000

initial total market share  =1,000,000/20%

initial market total market share=5,000,000 hammers

new total market share=5,000,000*(1+5%)

                                     =5,000,000*(1+0.05)

                                     =5,000,000*1.05

                                      =5,250,000

Variable speed new share of market is 24%

market share in units=24%*5,250,000=1,260,000

Estimate sales revenue=variable market share*new unit price

new unit price is $4.30

estimated sales revenue=1,260,000*$4.30=$5,418,000.00  

During the Great Recession of 2008-2009 and the current pandemic, corporate cash conversion cycles typically increased in length by a significant amount. Why might this have occurred? How can this be mitigated? Was it a good decision by corporate CFOs to allow this to happen? Explain.

Answers

Answer:

During the Great Recession of 2008-09 money cycle was commonly expanded because of profound sorrow in economy. Worldwide interest for the items were low and organizations were confronting request emergency therefore organizations were offering high length of credit line and timing because of which assortment period from the indebted individuals expanded essentially and accordingly money cycle has increased. Aside from the credit assortment different fund organizations were mindful about the working capital financing and were offering credit for exceptionally brief time frame therefore credit instalment period was diminished to a huge level which lead to increment in real money cycle.  

There was no different choices for CFOs to control the circumstances as these issues occurred because of huge changes in economy and this was crazy of CFO. CFO can do one thing they can deal with their assets by proficiently using the float,factoring administrations and by better management of account holders money and stock administration.

Charlotte's Crochet Shoppe has 14,300 shares of common stock outstanding at a price per share of $75 and a rate of return of 11.61 percent. The company also has 280 bonds outstanding, with a par value of $2,000 per bond. The pretax cost of debt is 6.13 percent and the bonds sell for 97.2 percent of par. What is the firm's WACC if the tax rate is 40 percent?

Answers

Charlotte's Crochet Shoppe's Weighted-Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is 8.9%.

Data and Calculations:

Outstanding common stock shares = 14,300

Price per share = $75

Value of common stock = $1,072,500 ($75 x 14,300)

Return of return of common stock = 11.61%

Price of Bonds = $1,944 ($2,000 x 97.2%)

Value of bonds outstanding = $544,320 ($1,944 x 280)

Selling rate of bonds = 97.2%

Pretax cost of debt = 6.13%

After-tax cost of debt = 3.678% (6.13% x (1 - 40%)

Total value of stock and debt = $1,616,820 ($1,072,500 + $544,320)

Weight of common stock = 66.3% ($1,072,500/$1,616,820 x 100)

Weight of bonds = 33.7% ($544,320/$1,616,820 x 100)

WACC = (66.3% x 11.61%) + (33.7% x 3.678%)

= 7.7% + 1.2%

= 8.9%

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Money, Inc., a calendar year S corporation in Denton, Texas, has two unrelated shareholders, each owning 50% of the stock. Each shareholder has a $400,000 stock basis as of January 1, 2015. At the beginning of 2015, Money has an AAA of $300,000 and AEP of $600,000. During 2015, Money has an operating income of $100,000. At the end of the year, Money distributes securities worth $1,000,000, with an adjusted basis of $800,000. b. At the end of the year, before the distribution, each shareholder's basis is $___after the distribution, each shareholder's basis is $______ . Each shareholder has $____ of dividend income.

Answers

Answer:

each shareholder has $250,000 of the dividends.

Explanation:

At the end of the year, just before the distribution, each shareholder's basis is:

= $400000 + 10000 + 50000

= $550,000

after the distribution, each shareholder's basis is:

= 300000 + 200000

= $500000

therefore, each shareholder has $250,000 of the dividends.

The expected rates of return on portfolios A and B are 11% and 14%, respectively. The beta of A is 0.8 and the beta of B is 1.5. The T-bill rate is currently 6%, while the expected rate of return on S&P500 index is 12%. The standard deviation of portfolio A is 10% annually, while that of B is 31%, and that of the index is 20%. If you currently hold a market index portfolio, would you choose to add either of these portfolios to your holdings? Discuss your answer.

Answers

Answer:

Portfolio B has a higher return but more volatile stocks. However it depends on how the individual can tolerate risks.

Explanation:

Expected return= free return + Beta (Expected rate of return – risk free rate)

Portfolio A

6%+ +.8*6%

= 6%+4.8%= 10.8%

Portfolio B

6%+1.5(6%)

6%+9%= 15%

It depends on different factors. Portfolio B has a higher return but more volatile stocks. However it depends on how the individual can tolerate risks.

A car rental agency uses 96 boxes of staples a year. The boxes cost $4 each. It costs $20 to order staples, and carrying costs are $0.80 per box on an annual basis.

1. Determine the annual cost of ordering and carrying the boxes of staples.

A. $55

B. $48

C. $196

D. $69

E. $20

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is $55.42.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

Boxes use = 96 boxes

Cost = $4 per box

Staple cost = $20

Carrying cost = $0.80

So, we can calculate the annual cost of ordering and carrying by using following formula:

Annual cost = (EOQ ÷ 2) × Carrying cost + (Boxes use ÷ EOQ) × Staple cost

Where, EOQ = ( 2 × 96 × 20 ÷ 0.80)^1/2 = 69.28

So, by putting the value, we get

Annual cost = ( 69.28 ÷ 2) × $0.80 + ( 96 ÷ 69.28) × $20

= $27.71 + $27.71

= $55.42

Final answer:

The total annual cost of ordering and carrying the boxes of staples would be $480.80 when considering the cost of the staples, ordering cost, and carrying cost. This value, however, is not represented in the listed options.

Explanation:

In order to determine the annual cost of ordering and carrying the boxes of staples for the car rental agency, one should consider both the cost of the staples themselves, the ordering cost, and the carrying cost. The total cost of the staples per year is 96 boxes times $4 each, which comes to $384. The cost of ordering is a flat $20. Lastly, the carrying cost is $0.80 per box annually, so multiply 96 boxes by $0.80 which results to $76.80. Adding all these costs together will give the annual cost of the staples for the agency.

So, the annual cost of ordering and carrying the boxes of staples is $384 (cost of staples) + $20 (ordering cost) + $76.80 (carrying cost) = $480.80. This value isn't listed among the options provided, indicating a potential mistake in the problem statement or the given answers.

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​(Cost of​ debt) Belton Distribution Company is issuing a ​$1 comma 000 par value bond that pays 8.9 percent annual interest and matures in 15 years that is paid semiannually. Investors are willing to pay ​$962 for the bond. The company is in the 18 percent marginal tax bracket. What is the​ firm's after-tax cost of debt on the​ bond?

Answers

Answer:

After tax cost of debt is 7.69%

Explanation:

The after tax cost of debt can be computed by first of all determining the pre-tax cost of debt .

The pre-tax of debt is the yield to maturity computed using the rate formula in excel as follows:

=rate(nper,pmt.-pv,fv)

nper is the number of times the bond would pay coupon interest over the entire bond life ,which is 15 years multiplied by 2=30

pmt is the semi-annual interest which is $1000*8.9%/2=$44.5

pv is the current price of the bond at $962

fv is the face value of the bond at $1000

=rate(30,44.5,-962,1000)=4.69%

this is the semi-annul yield ,annual yield is 9.38%

The 9.38% is the pretax

after tax cost of debt=9.38%*(1-0.18)=7.69%

0.18 is the 18% tax rate

For twenty years, Maynard works for Natural Gas Wells, Inc., which employs more than five hundred persons in two states. Natural Gas Wells drills for and mines natural gas to sell and transport to refineries, which in turn pipes liquefied gas to other states. Maynard starts as an unskilled worker in the drilling fields. After a career of positive job evaluations and pay raises, Maynard is ultimately promoted to the position of chief of maintenance for a dozen wellheads. Five years later, a new employee, Oberto, is hired to oversee operations at all of the wellheads. Oberto demotes Maynard, who is now over the age of forty, and freezes his salary. Oberto demotes five other employees over the age of forty and places Maynard under the supervision of Pitt, who is twenty-three. Maynard overhears Pitt say, "We’re going to have to do away with these old men." Maynard quits and files a suit against Natural Gas Wells for employment discrimination. Should he prevail?

Answers

Answer: He will most likely PREVAIL

Explanation:

Oberto's actions are in direct violation of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 that forbids age discrimination acts in employment against people over the age of 40.

Maynard directly overhears his Supervisor, Pitt confirm that the demotion was based on age as well as the added evidence that the others that were demoted were over the age of 40 as well.

Under this Act, Maynard will most likely triumph in court.

Final answer:

Maynard may have grounds to prevail in his suit against Natural Gas Wells for employment discrimination based on age. The demotion, freezing of salary, derogatory remarks, and placement under a younger supervisor suggest discriminatory intent.

Explanation:

Maynard may have grounds to prevail in his suit against Natural Gas Wells for employment discrimination. Age discrimination occurs when an employer treats an employee less favorably because of their age. In this case, Maynard and five other employees over the age of forty were demoted and placed under the supervision of a much younger employee who made derogatory remarks about older employees. This could be seen as evidence of discriminatory intent based on age.

Maynard was promoted to the position of chief of maintenance for a dozen wellheads.A new employee, Oberto, is hired to oversee operations at all of the wellheads.Oberto demotes Maynard, who is over the age of forty, and freezes his salary.Oberto demotes five other employees over the age of forty and places Maynard under the supervision of Pitt, who is twenty-three.Maynard overhears Pitt say, "We’re going to have to do away with these old men."Maynard quits and files a suit against Natural Gas Wells for employment discrimination.

Look at the following data: durable goods = $200 billion; nondurable goods = $350 billion; services = $600 billion; fixed investment + inventory investment = $200 billion; government purchases = $400 billion; exports = $30 billion; imports = $79 billion. GDP is equal to

Answers

Answer:

The answer is $1,701 billion

Explanation:

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the cumulative (total) market value of the final outputs (goods and services) produced within an economy(country) during a given period of time usually a year.

GDP = C + I + G + (X - M)

where C - expenditure by households or consumers

I - investments by businesses or firms

G - expenditure from the government

X - exports from the country

M - imports into the country

Total consumers' expenditure is:

durable goods = $200 billion;

nondurable goods = $350 billion; services = $600 billion

Total. $1,150 billion

Total business investment is $200billion

Therefore, GDP is

$1,150 + $200 + $400 + ($30 - $79)

=$1750 - $49

= $1,701 billion

Final answer:

The GDP for the provided country data is calculated using the formula for GDP, which includes adding up consumption (sum of durable, nondurable goods, and services), investment, government spending, and subtracting net exports (exports minus imports). The GDP for the country in question is $1,701 billion.

Explanation:

GDP Calculation

To calculate the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country, you can use the formula:

GDP = Consumption + Investment + Government Spending + (Exports - Imports)

Using the data provided for the country in the question:

Durable goods = $200 billion

Nondurable goods = $350 billion

Services = $600 billion

Fixed investment + Inventory investment = $200 billion

Government purchases = $400 billion

Exports = $30 billion

Imports = $79 billion

We sum up durable goods, nondurable goods, and services to get total consumption:

Consumption (C) = Durable goods + Nondurable goods + Services
= $200 billion + $350 billion + $600 billion
= $1,150 billion

Then calculating Net Exports (Exports - Imports):

Net Exports (NX) = Exports - Imports
= $30 billion - $79 billion
= -$49 billion

Now we can plug these values into the GDP formula:

GDP = C + Investment + Government Spending + NX
= $1,150 billion + $200 billion + $400 billion - $49 billion
= $1,701 billion

Therefore, the GDP is $1,701 billion.

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