Determine there oxidation state of Cl in NaClO3.
I believe that the answer is 1+??, but am a little unsure.,

Answers

Answer 1
Na⁺¹  Cl⁺⁵ O₃⁻²

Na = +1

Cl = + 5

O = -2 


Cl is + 5

Related Questions

Refers to the area(s) in in the midportion of the shafts of long bones where bone cells are formed so that the cartilage-model bones of the fetal skeleton begin ossifying, from the center outward, to form bone shafts.

Answers

The primary ossification center is the area in the midportion of long bone shafts where ossification begins during fetal development, forming the bone shafts. Secondary ossification centers form after birth at the ends of the bones, and these centers, together with the epiphyseal plate, allow bone lengthening until maturity.

The area in the midportion of the shafts of long bones where bone cells are formed for the ossification of cartilage-model bones of the fetal skeleton is referred to as the primary ossification center. This center initiates ossification during fetal development, converting the cartilage to bone tissue and forming the bone shafts. The process continues with the formation of secondary ossification centers after birth, which contribute to the formation of the ends of the bones.

Endochondral ossification is the specific process where the hyaline cartilage model is turned into bone, typically beginning by the twelfth fetal week. During early development, the skeleton is mostly made of cartilage. This cartilage then undergoes ossification, beginning at a primary ossification center in the diaphysis, or middle of the bone, and later at secondary ossification centers in the epiphyses, or bone ends.

The remaining cartilage at the end of long bones and the epiphyseal plate or growth region allows for continued bone lengthening until skeletal maturity is reached when the epiphyseal plate eventually disappears and the bone regions fuse.

The long band of nerve fibers that connects the brain's hemispheres is:

Answers

 The answer is Corpus callosum. The largest structure of the human brain, consisting of the two cerebral hemispheres connected by the corpus callosum and covered by the cerebral cortex. Corpus callosum is a long, thick band of nerve fibers that connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain and allows communication between them. Development of the CC makes communication between the hemispheres more efficient.

Learning that is not directly observable is called ________.

Answers

Answer:

This is known as latent learning: learning that occurs but is not observable in behavior until there is a reason to demonstrate it. Latent learning also occurs in humans.

Explanation:

The right answer is D. Latent Learning. This type of learning is not visible or expressed by the person until a reinforcement occurs that drives the person to do what they have learned. For example, a young man makes a sandcastle when they go to the beach, when they ask him how he learned to remember that it was through a television program he saw years ago.

Some people have the ability to taste a bitter chemical called phenylthiocarbamide (PTC). The ability to taste PTC is due to the presence of at least one dominant allele for the PTC taste gene. The incidence of nontasters in North America is approximately 45%. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what percent of the North American population is homozygous dominant for the ability to taste PTC? Provide your answer as a number between 0 and 1 to the nearest hundredth.

Answers

The ability to taste PTC is due to the presence of at least one dominant allele for the PTC taste gene, so a nontaster genotype should be homozygous recessive(pp). If the frequency of pp is 45%, then frequency of p would be:
pp=0.45
p= √0.45
p=67%

p+P= 100%
P= 100%- p
P= 100%-67%= 33%

The number of North American population that has is homozygous dominant(PP) genotype would be:
P=33%
PP= 33%^2= 10.89% = 0.1089 = 0.11

The ability to taste PTC is thanks to the presence of a minimum of one dominant allele for the PTC taste gene, so a nontaster genotype should be pure recessive(pp). If the frequency of pp is 45%, then the frequency of p would be:

pp=0.45

p= √0.45

p=67%

p+P= 100%

P= 100%- p

P= 100%-67%= 33%

The number of North American population that has is pure dominant(PP) genotype would be:

P=33%

PP= 33%^2= 10.89% = 0.1089 = 0.11

Why can some people taste the bitter chemical PTC?

Some people have the ability to taste a bitter chemical called phenylthiocarbamide (PTC).

The shape of the receptor protein determines how strongly it can bind to PTC. Since all people have two copies of every gene, combinations of the bitter taste gene variants determine whether someone finds PTC intensely bitter, somewhat bitter, or without taste at all.

Thus, the ability to taste a bitter chemical called phenylthiocarbamide.

Learn more about phenylthiocarbamide here:

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For ABP, is BK a median an altitude or neither

Answers

BK is a Altitude...Hope this helps :)

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from uv damage when keratinocytes ________. provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a uv-blocking pigment layer maintain the appropriate ph in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature

Answers

The answer would be: accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer

The number of melanocyte cells is not much compared to keratinocytes. That is why melanocytes secrete dark melanin granules that will be spread into keratinocytes, not to itself.
The nutrient should be provided by the blood vessels of dermis skin. There should be no problem with pH or temperature either.
Final answer:

Keratinocytes help protect the skin from UV damage by accumulating melanin granules, which forms a UV-blocking layer. The balance of melanin production is vital for protecting the skin's DNA while also maintaining proper levels of nutrients like folic acid and vitamin D.

Explanation:

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer. Melanocytes are responsible for producing melanin, the pigment that gives color to the skin and helps protect it from UV radiation. Keratinocytes, the predominant cells in the epidermis, receive melanin from melanocytes and then move it to their superficial (upper) layers. There, the accumulated melanin forms a protective layer that absorbs and scatters UV radiation, preventing it from reaching deeper layers of the skin. This process is a crucial mechanism in the skin's defense against the harmful effects of UV radiation, including sunburn and the risk of skin cancer.

The earliest ancestors of about half of all extant animal phyla can be traced back to the _____ explosion. see concept 32.2 (page 675)

Answers

The   earliest  ancestors  of  about  half  of  all  extant  animal  phyla  can   be  traced  back   to  the   Cambrian   explosion

  
The  Cambrian  explosion  also  known as   Cambrian  radiation  was  the   event  of  approximately  541  million  years  ago  in the   Cambrian  period. During  this  time  most  major  animal  phyla  appeared  in  the  fossil  record.  It  resulted  in  the  diverge  of most  modern  metazoan  phyla,.

What type of plant has no vascular tissue daisy fern moss or pine tree

Answers

moss plants do not have vascular tissue.
hope i helped :D
Moss for sure

Hope this helps

~ Jordan ~

what is the relationship between ionic bonds and cleavage

Answers

The relationship between ionic bonds and cleavage is "as the ionic bond strength increases, cleavage will be more difficult". 
There are ionic bonds between the minerals that held them together. Ionic bonds are the consequence of electrostatic fascination and electron exchange amongst positive and negative particles (cations and anions). Ionic bonding infers the development of requested crystalline solids and the cleavage of those solids will rely upon the quality of this bonding. 

Placer deposits form when _____.

heavy eroded particles settle out of moving water

hot, metal-rich fluids cool below the surface

magma cools in underground chambers

organic matter is compressed over millions of years

Answers

Answer: heavy eroded particles settle out of moving water

Placer deposits forms when rocks weathered due to the effect of water. The heavy minerals from the rocks get settled down in water. Minerals that form placer deposits  have high specific gravity, they are resistant to chemical weathering process and are durable.

Placer deposits form when (D) organic matter is compressed over millions of years.

Further Explanation:

During the sedimentaryprocess when the heavy and valuable minerals accumulate, placer deposits/ placer is formed. These are found in the mountain streams. Placer deposits are usually associated with precious metal mining like gold. Sedimentation is the process of settling down of the particles in a medium according to their size.

In the presence of gravity sedimentation occurs. The larger particles have more gravitational force that pulls them down followed by the lighter ones. When the heavy and stable minerals are introduced to weathering, the particles get eroded and flow down through a stream. Because of the heaviness, the metals then settle down at some place and this phenomenon results in the formation of placer deposits.

Placer deposits are usually used in economic geology because metals of high specific gravity which settle down and are concentrated over time are used for valuable purposes.The few varieties of the so-called placer deposits would include: stream or alluvial placer deposits; beach placer deposits; eluvial placers; and eolian placer deposits. Stream or alluvial deposits are so far the most significant placer deposits because these have yielded the most placer gold, cassiterite, platinum, and gemstones. Placer deposits can demonstrate to be truly significant because of a similar reason of high measures of important metals found there.

Learn more:

Learn more about environment https://brainly.com/question/1640375 Learn more about how environment can affect fitness.https://brainly.com/question/2525949 Learn more about North American environment https://brainly.com/question/4712120

AnswerDetails:

Grade:Middle School

Subject:Biology

Chapter:Types of Soils

Keywords:

Sedimentary process, heavy metals, sedimentation, minerals, minerals accumulation, gravity, gravitational pull, placer deposits, economic geology, high specific gravity.

A client with diabetes insipidus has been administered desmopressin and is now reporting drowsiness, light-headedness, and headache. what intervention will best address this client's symptoms?
a. temporary bed rest
b. stat administration of epinephrine
c. administration of a loop diuretic
d. reduction in the client's dose of desmopressin

Answers

The answer is D. Reduction in the client's dose of desmopressin. Since this drug is the primary treatment prescribed to patients with diabetes insipidus, the nurse should advise the patient that it is normal to see a decrease in their urine output, however, if the patient already reports lightheadedness and headache, the nurse should ask the physician to reduce the dosage of the drug to avoid retaining water that causes these adverse effects.

Witch contribution did Kepler make to viewing the solar system? A: He proposed the earth-centered model of the solar system. B: He proposed that gravity kept the planets in their orbit. C: He showed that planets moved in elliptical orbits. D: He proposed the sun-centered model of the solar system.

Answers

Answer:

C: He showed that planets moved in elliptical orbits.

Explanation:

Copernicus described the solar system model with Sun at its center and planets along with their moons revolving about the Sun in circular orbits. This model is known as heliocentric model and this shift from geocentric model is known as Copernican revolution. Kepler supported the heliocentric model but showed that the planets revolved in elliptical orbits with the Sun at one of its foci. He wrote laws describing the planetary motion.

Answer:

Hello friend the answer is C.

Explanation:

I do K12 so this would help you a lot for the ones who are in K12. :)

A bicameral legislature describes a legislative body made of _____.

Answers

Two chambers.

Bicameral legislature divides the legislators in two separate assemblies. Often, members of the legislation are elected or selected by various ways depending on the country. Primary legislation enactment should require a majority. Which is the approval of majority members in each of the chambers of the legislature. Some legislatures lies in between two positions with one house only able to overrule at certain circumstances.

Which group of organisms survived mass extinctions that marked the end of both the Paleozoic era and Mesozoic era?

Answers

The answer is Gastropods. The earliest representatives of this group appeared in the Late Cambrian. There are diverse gastropods alive today, commonly known as snails and slugs. There are many thousands of species of sea snails and sea slugs, as well as freshwater snails, freshwater limpets, land snails and land slugs.

Explain how the cell cycle is normally controlled, including reference to the role of tumor-suppressor genes:

Answers

The cell cycle is composed of S (synthetic) phase and M (Mitotic) phase. In between are G1 and G2 phases. cyclin-dependent kinases propel cell division. Their activation results in the progression of a cell from one phase to another while their inactivation arrests a cell in a phase. In case of damage to DNA during a cell cycle, transcription factors p53 (a renowned tumor suppressor) are recruited. P53 inhibits cyclins-dependent kinases and also induces cell apoptosis if DNA is not repaired.






Final answer:

The cell cycle is controlled by the balance between proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes. Mutations in these genes can result in uncontrolled cell growth, possibly leading to cancer. Tumor suppressor genes normally prevent division of cells with damaged DNA, but when mutated, they may fail, contributing to cancer development.

Explanation:

Control of the Cell Cycle and Tumor Suppressor Genes.The cell cycle is tightly controlled by a balance between proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes to ensure that only healthy cells replicate. Tumor suppressor genes act as the 'brakes' of the cell cycle, preventing cells with damaged DNA from dividing. When these genes are mutated, they fail to function properly, resulting in uncontrolled cell division, which can lead to cancer.

Proto-oncogenes, on the other hand, when mutated, turn into oncogenes that promote cell division even if DNA is damaged. Mutations in these genes often occur due to environmental factors that damage DNA or through inherited genetic predispositions. The combined effect can lead to the development of cancer through uncontrolled cell growth.

Key proteins coded by tumor suppressor genes, such as Rb, p53, and p21, put up roadblocks to cell cycle progression until certain conditions are met. If these proteins are missing or dysfunctional due to mutations, it can result in the loss of cell cycle control and the onset of cancerous growths.

All of the following are examples of voluntary muscle movement except
A. heart beating
B. leg kicking a soccer ball
C. arm picking up a glass

Answers

Heart beating (A) is not an example of voluntary heart movement. You can think of it as movements that you can control. You can decide to kick a soccer ball, and you can decide to pick up a glass, but you do not get to consciously decide to have your heart beat.

The ________ of the eye works similarly to the shutter of a camera

Answers

Toenail?

Correct me if I'm wrong.

What is the difference between directional, stabilizing, and disruptive selection? 25 points!!

Answers

With stabilizing selection, the phenotype for a trait does not influence survival. Stabilizing selection reduces the amount of variation in a trait.
Disruptive selection increases the amount of variation in a trait. With stabilizing selection, extreme individuals have high biological fitness.
Directional Selection
When the environment changes, populations will often undergo directional selection, which selects for phenotypes at one end of the spectrum of existing variation.
Stabilizing Selection
If natural selection favors an average phenotype by selecting against extreme variation, the population will undergo stabilizing selection. For example, in a population of mice that live in the woods, natural selection will tend to favor individuals that best blend in with the forest floor and are less likely to be spotted by predators. Assuming the ground is a fairly consistent shade of brown, those mice whose fur is most-closely matched to that color will most probably survive and reproduce, passing on their genes for their brown coat. Mice that carry alleles that make them slightly lighter or slightly darker will stand out against the ground and will more probably die from predation. As a result of this stabilizing selection, the population’s genetic variance will decrease.
Diversifying (or Disruptive) Selection
Sometimes natural selection can select for two or more distinct phenotypes that each have their advantages. In these cases, the intermediate phenotypes are often less fit than their extreme counterparts. Known as diversifying or disruptive selection, this is seen in many populations of animals that have multiple male mating strategies, such as lobsters. Large, dominant alpha males obtain mates by brute force, while small males can sneak in for furtive copulations with the females in an alpha male’s territory. In this case, both the alpha males and the “sneaking” males will be selected for, but medium-sized males, which cannot overtake the alpha males and are too big to sneak copulations, are selected against

Hope this helped your answer should come after reading over this

Explain how electrophoresis can be used as a part of genetic testing.

Answers

Electrophoresis separates polypeptide chains and DNA chains by their fragment sizes after they have been cut by restriction enzymes are specific sites.   Genetic testing involves checking genetic disorders by evaluating DNA sequences or protein amino acid sequences. By using restriction enzymes to cut DNA or polypeptides at specific sites, then run them on an electrophoresis, bands will form that will help indicate whether one has an abnormal sequence at the target site. If so, further analysis is used to determine the sequence by use of next-generation sequencing machines




During genetic testing, a segement of amplified DNA obtained from gene is digested using a restriction enzyme. Electrophoresis allows one to analyze the patterns by separating DNA by size. The process allows separation of different sizes of DNA fragments and provides genetic information in a wide range of data fields. A good example is genetic testing; Human DNA can be analyzed to provide evidence in criminal cases, to diagnose genetic diseases, and to solve partenity cases.

Proteins that are targeted to different cellular compartments other than the cytosol are made on the ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. in order for ribosomes to attach to the endoplasmic reticulum, which proteins that are attached to the ribosome interact with proteins associated with the endoplasmic reticulum

Answers

Signal recognition particle


Why are plants classified as producers? why are plants classified as producers? plants are classified as producers because they are at the bottom of the food chain. plants are classified as producers because they produce oxygen. plants are classified as producers because they fix inorganic carbon into organic molecules?

Answers

For the answer to the question above, the answer is "Plants are classified as producers because they fix inorganic carbon into organic molecules."

Inorganic carbons are those carbons which are extracted from ores and some minerals which are not naturally found in living things. 
Final answer:

Plants are classified as producers because they are autotrophs that can generate their own food through photosynthesis. They form the base level of the food chain, providing energy and nutrients for all other organisms in the ecosystem. Without them, the survival of other life forms on earth would be impossible.

Explanation:

Plants are classified as producers in the ecosystem because they can generate their own food using inorganic carbon as a carbon source through a process known as photosynthesis. During photosynthesis, plants harness solar energy and convert it into chemical energy, in turn creating complex organic molecules such as glucose. This ability to produce their own food classifies plants as autotrophs, which include photosynthetic organisms like algae and certain types of bacteria.

In the context of the food chain, plants are often situated at the base or foundation, making them primary producers. The organisms that consume these primary producers are herbivores, known as the primary consumers. This cycle continues up the food chain with secondary, tertiary consumers, all the way to apex consumers, with each level feeding on the one below it. Therefore, without plants and their photosynthesis process, energy would not be readily available to other living organisms in the ecosystem, making life as we know it impossible.

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For ingested foods, the first opportunity for enzymatic digestion occurs in the _____. see concept 41.3 (page 903)

Answers

Answer;

The mouth


For ingested foods, the first opportunity for enzymatic digestion occurs in the mouth.


Explanation;

The digestion of food starts in the mouth.

There is both mechanical and enzymatic digestion of food in the mouth. Mechanical digestion involves the mechanical break down of food using teeth to smaller particles thus increasing the surface are for the activity by enzymes.

Enzymatic digestion in the mouth involves enzyme salivary amylase which acts on starch to form maltose.

What happens during meiosis that would allow genes located on the same chromosomes to separate independently of one another?

Answers

The homologous separate, and separate is called anaphase.

The​ 15-month-old you are treating is in respiratory arrest. pulse still present at​ 108, skin is cyanotic. mom states the baby was fine a minute ago and when she came​ back, her daughter​ wasn't breathing. you open the airway and make an attempt to ventilate but no air goes in. you reposition the child with padding under her shoulders and reattempt​ ventilations, but still no air entry is achieved. what is your course of action​ now?

Answers

the course of action is performing a series of 5 back blows by kneeling to the side and just behind the 15 month old.  Place your arm across the chest for support. Bend the child over at the waist in order that the  upper body is in ground parallel . exhibit five separate back blows in between the child's shoulder blades with assistance of the heel of your hand, then apply 5 chest thrusts or the Heimlich maneuver. This a first aid for choking and the signs and symptoms exhibited by the 15 month old is choking. 

From the end of the small intestine, the segments of the large intestine, in order, are:

Answers

ascending large intestine, transverse, and descending

Final answer:

The large intestine begins with the cecum followed by the ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colons, rectum, and ends at the anus, responsible for absorbing water, forming feces, and defecation.

Explanation:

From the end of the small intestine, specifically the ileum, the segments of the large intestine, in order, are as follows: the cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, and anus. The ileocecal valve, located between the ileum and the large intestine, regulates the movement of chyme into the large intestine. Once in the large intestine, the digestion process continues with the absorption of water and nutrients, the breaking down of carbohydrate residues by bacterial flora, and the synthesis of certain vitamins. The goblet cells within the mucosa of the large intestine secrete mucus, easing the passage of feces.

The large intestine's function is to absorb water and form feces in preparation for defecation, and its various sections each play a role in this process. The cecum is the first part where chyme enters, followed by the ascending, transverse, and descending colons, the sigmoid colon, and ultimately the rectum. The rectum serves as storage for feces before elimination occurs, ending with the anus, where feces are expelled.

Alcoholic beverages
a.dilate the blood vessels and
b.increase the amount of water removed from the blood. how would factors a and b affect blood pressure?

Answers

Blood vessels dilation causes the resistance inside the vessels to decrease, and thus decreases BP.

Water removed from the blood causes blood volum to decrease, and thus decreases BP.

The potential energy in atp is released when the terminal high-energy bond is broken by a process called

Answers

I think it is called "dephosphorylation."

Sensory cells and sensory neurons allow multicellular animals to sense physical and chemical cues from their environment. what key properties of these cells enable them to perform this function? (select all that apply.) sensory cells and sensory neurons have electrically excitable membranes that change in charge potential in response to binding an environmental signaling molecule. sensory neurons have myelinated dendrites that serve as nerve endings. all sensory cells and sensory neurons fire action potentials when they bind a signaling molecule. sensory cells and sensory neurons have protein receptors linked to intracellular or membrane-based signaling pathways that alter ion channel permeability.

Answers

The options for this question are:
A. Sensory cells and sensory neurons have electrically excitable membranes that change in charge potential in response to binding an environmental signaling molecule.
B. All sensory cells and sensory neurons fire action potentials when they bind a signaling molecule.
C. Sensory cells and sensory neurons have protein receptors linked to intracellular or membrane-based signaling pathways that alter ion channel permeability.
 The best answer choices are: A & C
Sensory cells and sensory neurons have electrically excitable membranes that change in charge potential in response to binding an environmental signaling molecule.
Sensory cells and sensory neurons have protein receptors linked to intracellular or membrane-based signaling pathways that alter ion channel permeability.

Explanation:
Sensory neurons are nerve cells within the nervous system responsible for converting external stimuli from the organism's environment into internal electrical impulses.
For example, some sensory neurons respond to tactile stimuli and can activate motor neurons in order to achieve muscle contraction. Sensory receptors located in the dermis or epidermises of the skin are called cutaneous receptors. These include nociceptors and thermoreceptors.

Answer:

A. Sensory cells and sensory neurons have electrically excitable membranes that change in charge potential in response to binding an environmental signaling molecule

B. Sensory cells and sensory neurons have protein receptors linked to intracellular or membrane-based signaling pathways that alter ion channel permeability.

Explanation:

Neurons have ability to change the charge potential across their membrane in response to certain stimulus or binding of signaling molecule. To allow the binding of signaling molecules, these neurons have receptors on their surface. The binding of signaling molecules affects the charge potential by affecting the permeability of ion channels. Hence, presence of receptors and ability of changing the ion concentration and thereby charge across their membrane allow the sensory cell and neuron to sense the stimulus.

If there is a blockage between the av node and the av bundle, how will this affect the appearance of the electrocardiogram?

Answers

Out of the following given choices;

A. PR interval would be smaller

B. QRS interval would be shorter

C. There would be more P waves than QRS complexes

D. There would be more QRS complexes than P waves

E. The T wave would be absent

The answer is C. Waves on the ECG represent the depolarization an repolarization of the atrial and ventricular walls. The sequence of waves on the ECG is P waves, QRS complex, then T waves. Therefore, If there is a blockage between the av node and the av bundle, P waves of atrial contraction are of longer intervals (more than 200 ms)compared to those of QRS complex of ventricular contraction. This is referred to as the First Degree Heart Block. In second-degree heart block, no QRS complex follows the P waves






An anaerobic organism does not need ________ to survive.

Answers

doesn't need air to survive

Answer:

The answer is Oxygen

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