Explain how our respiratory and circulatory systems relate to cellular respiration and ATP.

Answers

Answer 1
Cellular respiration, which generates ATP in your cells, requires oxygen to take place, also, it generates CO2 as a waste product.
The respiratory system allows oxygen to diffuse into your blood, and carbon dioxide to diffuse out. The blood then carries the oxygen to the cells, so cellular respiration to continue. When the blood reaches the cells, it also takes the carbon dioxide out of the cells, and carries it to the lungs to get rid of it.

Related Questions

A(n) _____________ is a pattern of dark bands on photographic film that is made when DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and tagged. The photograph produced is often used to determine whether or not suspects were involved in a crime.

Answers

A DNA Fingerprint is a pattern of dark bands on photographic film that is made when DNA fragments are separated by Gel electrophoresis and tagged. Every human has their own unique fingerprints which will leave its trace to whatever objects we touched and our Law enforce held the database of all legal citizen's fingerprints

Answer:

DNA fingerprint

Explanation:

DNA fingerprinting is a technique widely used in criminal and forensic investigation. This technique aims to identify fragments of DNA, which like a fingerprint can reveal someone's identity. This is because each individual has a unique, particular and individual ANA, even the restriction zones in the DNAs are different between two different individuals.

This technique is possible because a DNA is subject to the action of restriction enzymes. When biological material is found at a crime scene, the DNA of that material is subjected to restriction enzymes that fragment the molecule into different portions. These portions can be viewed through X-rays, if marked with a radioactive marker. After this marking, the DNA fragments are subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis, revealing a kind of "barcode" that is specific to a single person in the world.

Which group of organisms survived mass extinctions that marked the end of both the Paleozoic era and Mesozoic era?

Answers

The answer is Gastropods. The earliest representatives of this group appeared in the Late Cambrian. There are diverse gastropods alive today, commonly known as snails and slugs. There are many thousands of species of sea snails and sea slugs, as well as freshwater snails, freshwater limpets, land snails and land slugs.

The potential energy in atp is released when the terminal high-energy bond is broken by a process called

Answers

I think it is called "dephosphorylation."

A patient with chronic cholecystitis reports pruritus, clay-colored stools, and voiding dark, frothy urine. which laboratory analysis is a priority in the nurse's assessment of this patient? lipase level total bilirubin liver function tests white blood cell count

Answers

The answer would be: total bilirubin

Bilirubin is the waste that needs to be dumped by the gallbladder. In chronic cholecystitis, the common bile duct might be obstructed. This leads to increased level of bilirubin, mostly conjugated bilirubin. Pruritus, clay-colored stools, and voiding dark, frothy urine could be caused by hyperbilirubinemia(increased level of bilirubin in the blood). 

Alcoholic beverages
a.dilate the blood vessels and
b.increase the amount of water removed from the blood. how would factors a and b affect blood pressure?

Answers

Blood vessels dilation causes the resistance inside the vessels to decrease, and thus decreases BP.

Water removed from the blood causes blood volum to decrease, and thus decreases BP.

Explain how the cell cycle is normally controlled, including reference to the role of tumor-suppressor genes:

Answers

The cell cycle is composed of S (synthetic) phase and M (Mitotic) phase. In between are G1 and G2 phases. cyclin-dependent kinases propel cell division. Their activation results in the progression of a cell from one phase to another while their inactivation arrests a cell in a phase. In case of damage to DNA during a cell cycle, transcription factors p53 (a renowned tumor suppressor) are recruited. P53 inhibits cyclins-dependent kinases and also induces cell apoptosis if DNA is not repaired.






Final answer:

The cell cycle is controlled by the balance between proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes. Mutations in these genes can result in uncontrolled cell growth, possibly leading to cancer. Tumor suppressor genes normally prevent division of cells with damaged DNA, but when mutated, they may fail, contributing to cancer development.

Explanation:

Control of the Cell Cycle and Tumor Suppressor Genes.The cell cycle is tightly controlled by a balance between proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes to ensure that only healthy cells replicate. Tumor suppressor genes act as the 'brakes' of the cell cycle, preventing cells with damaged DNA from dividing. When these genes are mutated, they fail to function properly, resulting in uncontrolled cell division, which can lead to cancer.

Proto-oncogenes, on the other hand, when mutated, turn into oncogenes that promote cell division even if DNA is damaged. Mutations in these genes often occur due to environmental factors that damage DNA or through inherited genetic predispositions. The combined effect can lead to the development of cancer through uncontrolled cell growth.

Key proteins coded by tumor suppressor genes, such as Rb, p53, and p21, put up roadblocks to cell cycle progression until certain conditions are met. If these proteins are missing or dysfunctional due to mutations, it can result in the loss of cell cycle control and the onset of cancerous growths.

Refers to the area(s) in in the midportion of the shafts of long bones where bone cells are formed so that the cartilage-model bones of the fetal skeleton begin ossifying, from the center outward, to form bone shafts.

Answers

The primary ossification center is the area in the midportion of long bone shafts where ossification begins during fetal development, forming the bone shafts. Secondary ossification centers form after birth at the ends of the bones, and these centers, together with the epiphyseal plate, allow bone lengthening until maturity.

The area in the midportion of the shafts of long bones where bone cells are formed for the ossification of cartilage-model bones of the fetal skeleton is referred to as the primary ossification center. This center initiates ossification during fetal development, converting the cartilage to bone tissue and forming the bone shafts. The process continues with the formation of secondary ossification centers after birth, which contribute to the formation of the ends of the bones.

Endochondral ossification is the specific process where the hyaline cartilage model is turned into bone, typically beginning by the twelfth fetal week. During early development, the skeleton is mostly made of cartilage. This cartilage then undergoes ossification, beginning at a primary ossification center in the diaphysis, or middle of the bone, and later at secondary ossification centers in the epiphyses, or bone ends.

The remaining cartilage at the end of long bones and the epiphyseal plate or growth region allows for continued bone lengthening until skeletal maturity is reached when the epiphyseal plate eventually disappears and the bone regions fuse.

Extrusive igneous rock _____. forms beneath the earth's crust usually cools very slowlyb forms on the earth's crust has large mineral crystals

Answers

Extrusive igneous rock forms on the earth's crust has large mineral crystals.

Answer:

--forms on the earth's crust--

Explanation:

It can't be cools slowly because in the reading (on my assignment) it kept on stating that the extrusive igneous rock cool very quickly, so it cant be cools slowly...

Next we have Forms beneath the earths crust, I don't have much info on this one but I know for a fact that the extrusive igneous rock forms as soon as the volcano explodes its lava out then it quickly cool, So I'm guessing that its not this one either.

Next we have- forms on the earth's crust, Since a volcano is on the crust of the earth that means that the rock would be too! Since the rock can only be formed (I don't think that is a word lol) right as soon as the magma becomes lava then the rock cools and then becomes an extrusive igneous rock-

Last we have - Has large crystals, This is not possible since the rock cools extremely fast it does not have the time for bigger crystals to form, if that makes sense lol. therefore this cannot be the answer..

After all this we finally have our answer!! The answer is --Forms on earths crust--   I HOPE THIS HELPED YOU!! GOOD LUCK!! and yes this question was posted 2 years ago- lol

Explanation:

A decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the blood, for any reason, is a condition known as ________.

Answers

ANEMIA

Anemia is a condition of the blood where there is not enough red blood cells or hemoglobin. Hemoglobin has an iron core and is the main part of the red blood cells where oxygen from the lungs binds. IF hemoglobin is too low or abnormal delivery of oxygen to the body will be altered. There are various reasons for anemia to happen. This cane be due to abnormal cell development, deficiency in iron, malabsorption of vitamins. Symptoms includes pale skin, fatigue, palpitations, shortness of breath.

For ABP, is BK a median an altitude or neither

Answers

BK is a Altitude...Hope this helps :)

A nurse is assessing a primigravida who was admitted in early labor after her membranes have ruptured. she is at 41 weeks' gestation. her contractions are irregular, and her cervix is dilated 3 cm. the fetal head is at station 0, and the fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. how can the nurse help the client facilitate labor

Answers

The answer would be: take a walk around the unit with her. 

The patient is not ready for labour because of her uterus has an irregular contraction and the cervix is only 3cm. Taking walk around can increase the frequency and the intensity of uterus contraction. The patient should be accompanied to ensure her safety.

The nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client with a history of recurrent pneumonia. what deep breathing techniques will the nurse plan to teach?

Answers

Deep breathing techniques help the lungs to recover from the loss of its capacity. This technique moves the air down to the bottom areas of the lungs, helps open air passages, and moves mucous out (which can also be facilitated through coughing). This process improves blood and oxygen supply to your lungs.

The ________ of the eye works similarly to the shutter of a camera

Answers

Toenail?

Correct me if I'm wrong.

For ingested foods, the first opportunity for enzymatic digestion occurs in the _____. see concept 41.3 (page 903)

Answers

Answer;

The mouth


For ingested foods, the first opportunity for enzymatic digestion occurs in the mouth.


Explanation;

The digestion of food starts in the mouth.

There is both mechanical and enzymatic digestion of food in the mouth. Mechanical digestion involves the mechanical break down of food using teeth to smaller particles thus increasing the surface are for the activity by enzymes.

Enzymatic digestion in the mouth involves enzyme salivary amylase which acts on starch to form maltose.

For a parasitic organism such as ascaris what would be the selective advantage of a cuticle

Answers

Ascaris is a type of parasitic nematode worm that inhabits the small intestine of its host, which includes humans. The intestine can be a harsh environment for biological material as it is alkaline and contains enzymes to facilitate the break down and absorption of nutrients. The presence of a cuticle can act as a physical barrier, protecting the parasite from these elements. 

what is the relationship between ionic bonds and cleavage

Answers

The relationship between ionic bonds and cleavage is "as the ionic bond strength increases, cleavage will be more difficult". 
There are ionic bonds between the minerals that held them together. Ionic bonds are the consequence of electrostatic fascination and electron exchange amongst positive and negative particles (cations and anions). Ionic bonding infers the development of requested crystalline solids and the cleavage of those solids will rely upon the quality of this bonding. 

Some people have the ability to taste a bitter chemical called phenylthiocarbamide (PTC). The ability to taste PTC is due to the presence of at least one dominant allele for the PTC taste gene. The incidence of nontasters in North America is approximately 45%. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what percent of the North American population is homozygous dominant for the ability to taste PTC? Provide your answer as a number between 0 and 1 to the nearest hundredth.

Answers

The ability to taste PTC is due to the presence of at least one dominant allele for the PTC taste gene, so a nontaster genotype should be homozygous recessive(pp). If the frequency of pp is 45%, then frequency of p would be:
pp=0.45
p= √0.45
p=67%

p+P= 100%
P= 100%- p
P= 100%-67%= 33%

The number of North American population that has is homozygous dominant(PP) genotype would be:
P=33%
PP= 33%^2= 10.89% = 0.1089 = 0.11

The ability to taste PTC is thanks to the presence of a minimum of one dominant allele for the PTC taste gene, so a nontaster genotype should be pure recessive(pp). If the frequency of pp is 45%, then the frequency of p would be:

pp=0.45

p= √0.45

p=67%

p+P= 100%

P= 100%- p

P= 100%-67%= 33%

The number of North American population that has is pure dominant(PP) genotype would be:

P=33%

PP= 33%^2= 10.89% = 0.1089 = 0.11

Why can some people taste the bitter chemical PTC?

Some people have the ability to taste a bitter chemical called phenylthiocarbamide (PTC).

The shape of the receptor protein determines how strongly it can bind to PTC. Since all people have two copies of every gene, combinations of the bitter taste gene variants determine whether someone finds PTC intensely bitter, somewhat bitter, or without taste at all.

Thus, the ability to taste a bitter chemical called phenylthiocarbamide.

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What is the difference between directional, stabilizing, and disruptive selection? 25 points!!

Answers

With stabilizing selection, the phenotype for a trait does not influence survival. Stabilizing selection reduces the amount of variation in a trait.
Disruptive selection increases the amount of variation in a trait. With stabilizing selection, extreme individuals have high biological fitness.
Directional Selection
When the environment changes, populations will often undergo directional selection, which selects for phenotypes at one end of the spectrum of existing variation.
Stabilizing Selection
If natural selection favors an average phenotype by selecting against extreme variation, the population will undergo stabilizing selection. For example, in a population of mice that live in the woods, natural selection will tend to favor individuals that best blend in with the forest floor and are less likely to be spotted by predators. Assuming the ground is a fairly consistent shade of brown, those mice whose fur is most-closely matched to that color will most probably survive and reproduce, passing on their genes for their brown coat. Mice that carry alleles that make them slightly lighter or slightly darker will stand out against the ground and will more probably die from predation. As a result of this stabilizing selection, the population’s genetic variance will decrease.
Diversifying (or Disruptive) Selection
Sometimes natural selection can select for two or more distinct phenotypes that each have their advantages. In these cases, the intermediate phenotypes are often less fit than their extreme counterparts. Known as diversifying or disruptive selection, this is seen in many populations of animals that have multiple male mating strategies, such as lobsters. Large, dominant alpha males obtain mates by brute force, while small males can sneak in for furtive copulations with the females in an alpha male’s territory. In this case, both the alpha males and the “sneaking” males will be selected for, but medium-sized males, which cannot overtake the alpha males and are too big to sneak copulations, are selected against

Hope this helped your answer should come after reading over this

The long band of nerve fibers that connects the brain's hemispheres is:

Answers

 The answer is Corpus callosum. The largest structure of the human brain, consisting of the two cerebral hemispheres connected by the corpus callosum and covered by the cerebral cortex. Corpus callosum is a long, thick band of nerve fibers that connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain and allows communication between them. Development of the CC makes communication between the hemispheres more efficient.

Which two types of tissue have the greatest ability to repair themselves?

Answers

Epithelial  and  connective  tissues  have  the   greatest  ability  to  repair  themselves. Epithelial  and   connective  tissues  replace  damaged  or  dead  cells   from  a  supply   of adult  stem  cells.  This tissue  contains  pools  of   stem  cells  which  have  enormous  proliferative  and  self-renewing  ability  and   which   give  rise  to  more  than  one  type  of  cell.

A client with diabetes insipidus has been administered desmopressin and is now reporting drowsiness, light-headedness, and headache. what intervention will best address this client's symptoms?
a. temporary bed rest
b. stat administration of epinephrine
c. administration of a loop diuretic
d. reduction in the client's dose of desmopressin

Answers

The answer is D. Reduction in the client's dose of desmopressin. Since this drug is the primary treatment prescribed to patients with diabetes insipidus, the nurse should advise the patient that it is normal to see a decrease in their urine output, however, if the patient already reports lightheadedness and headache, the nurse should ask the physician to reduce the dosage of the drug to avoid retaining water that causes these adverse effects.

Why does the h+ gradient across the membrane dissipate when the light goes off? what happens to the rate of atp production?

Answers

The reaction is driven by the absorption of light energy. So the H+ gradient across the membranes dissipates when the light goes off and the reaction is stopped.

What are phototrophs?

The organisms that capture the particles of light and convert them into chemical energy are called phototrophs. Organisms capture this light with specialized pigments. The light is captured in the form of electromagnetic energy.

An enzyme called the H+ driven ATP synthase moves the H+ ions through the ATP synthase. The ATP synthesis continues until the H+ gradient runs out of energy to drive the reaction forward.

Thus the reaction continues for as long as the light is being absorbed. The H+ gradient that is generated is persisted even after the light goes off. The gradient is persisted till the H+ ions move through the ATP synthase.

Thus, the cell used light for the generation of ATP and it is then stored for use later. ATP is a chemical battery and H+ is an electrochemical battery.

Therefore, the reaction is driven by the absorption of light energy. So the H+ gradient across the membranes dissipates when the light goes off and the reaction is stopped.

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Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from uv damage when keratinocytes ________. provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a uv-blocking pigment layer maintain the appropriate ph in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature

Answers

The answer would be: accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer

The number of melanocyte cells is not much compared to keratinocytes. That is why melanocytes secrete dark melanin granules that will be spread into keratinocytes, not to itself.
The nutrient should be provided by the blood vessels of dermis skin. There should be no problem with pH or temperature either.
Final answer:

Keratinocytes help protect the skin from UV damage by accumulating melanin granules, which forms a UV-blocking layer. The balance of melanin production is vital for protecting the skin's DNA while also maintaining proper levels of nutrients like folic acid and vitamin D.

Explanation:

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer. Melanocytes are responsible for producing melanin, the pigment that gives color to the skin and helps protect it from UV radiation. Keratinocytes, the predominant cells in the epidermis, receive melanin from melanocytes and then move it to their superficial (upper) layers. There, the accumulated melanin forms a protective layer that absorbs and scatters UV radiation, preventing it from reaching deeper layers of the skin. This process is a crucial mechanism in the skin's defense against the harmful effects of UV radiation, including sunburn and the risk of skin cancer.

Proteins that are targeted to different cellular compartments other than the cytosol are made on the ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. in order for ribosomes to attach to the endoplasmic reticulum, which proteins that are attached to the ribosome interact with proteins associated with the endoplasmic reticulum

Answers

Signal recognition particle


Witch contribution did Kepler make to viewing the solar system? A: He proposed the earth-centered model of the solar system. B: He proposed that gravity kept the planets in their orbit. C: He showed that planets moved in elliptical orbits. D: He proposed the sun-centered model of the solar system.

Answers

Answer:

C: He showed that planets moved in elliptical orbits.

Explanation:

Copernicus described the solar system model with Sun at its center and planets along with their moons revolving about the Sun in circular orbits. This model is known as heliocentric model and this shift from geocentric model is known as Copernican revolution. Kepler supported the heliocentric model but showed that the planets revolved in elliptical orbits with the Sun at one of its foci. He wrote laws describing the planetary motion.

Answer:

Hello friend the answer is C.

Explanation:

I do K12 so this would help you a lot for the ones who are in K12. :)

What chemicals regulate the cell cycle how do they work?

Answers

Final answer:

The cell cycle is regulated by chemicals, primarily proteins called cyclins and Cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Cyclins fluctuate in concentration throughout the cycle, activating CDKs that stimulate the cell to progress stages by phosphorylating target proteins. This regulates the timing and progression of the cell cycle.

Explanation:

The cell cycle is a complex process regulated by a series of chemicals and proteins. The two main chemicals are proteins known as cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Cyclins increase and decrease in concentration throughout different parts of the cell cycle, binding to CDKs and activating them. These activated CDKs then stimulate the cell to progress to the next phase by phosphorylating target proteins. When there are high levels of cyclins, the cell moves into the mitosis phase. After mitosis, the cyclin levels decrease, causing the cell to exit the cell cycle and enter the G0 phase. Therefore, these two chemicals work together to control the progression and timing of events in the cell cycle.

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Final answer:

The cell cycle is regulated by chemicals namely cyclins, cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks), and regulatory molecules. These chemicals can either promote or halt the cycle depending on cell conditions. Any dysfunction in these chemicals can cause unchecked cell division, eventually leading to cancer.

Explanation:

The cell cycle is regulated by various types of chemicals which include cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks), along with regulatory molecules that either promote or hinder the progress of the cycle. The cell moves through the cycle under the supervision of these control molecules, which determine whether conditions are correct for the cell to transition to the next stage. Cyclins and Cdks regulate transitions through checkpoints in the cell cycle, while negative regulator molecules, such as tumor suppressor proteins, can halt the cycle if specific requirements are not met.

On the other hand, Cdk inhibitors are molecules that block the full activation of Cdks to arrest the cell cycle until an event they are monitoring is completed. Any changes in these regulatory molecules can result in unchecked cell division leading to cancer. Therefore, these chemicals maintain the balance between cell division and cell death and help in the proper functioning of cell cycle.

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The earliest ancestors of about half of all extant animal phyla can be traced back to the _____ explosion. see concept 32.2 (page 675)

Answers

The   earliest  ancestors  of  about  half  of  all  extant  animal  phyla  can   be  traced  back   to  the   Cambrian   explosion

  
The  Cambrian  explosion  also  known as   Cambrian  radiation  was  the   event  of  approximately  541  million  years  ago  in the   Cambrian  period. During  this  time  most  major  animal  phyla  appeared  in  the  fossil  record.  It  resulted  in  the  diverge  of most  modern  metazoan  phyla,.

Where should the breastplate on the restraint straps rest in the infant?

Answers

For the answer to the question above, the best part to place the breastplate to restraint an infant especially on cars in the armpit level. If you place it below. They might have a difficulty in breathing. Higher than armi. they might choke their neck. So the best place is in the Armpit level.

Answer:

Armpit level

Explanation:

To ensure the safety of the whole family it is important that all members are properly protected inside the car. This protection is done through the seat belt, however, in the case of babies and very young children the seat belt does not promote safety, requiring different accessories to protect the little ones. In the case of infants it is important that restraint straps are used so that the breastplate is located at the level of the axolas, in the child.

What type of plant has no vascular tissue daisy fern moss or pine tree

Answers

moss plants do not have vascular tissue.
hope i helped :D
Moss for sure

Hope this helps

~ Jordan ~

Progressive changes in fossils of different ages provides one of the strongest lines of evidence for

Answers

Are there any options you can provide?
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