The correct answer would be, Prescriptive Treatment.
She refers the client to a psychiatrist in the group practice. Grace is practicing Prescriptive Treatment.
Explanation:
A Prescriptive Treatment is a treatment in which the doctor tells the patient what he should do, rather than just telling him that what has happened to him and give him suggestions.
As described in the question, whenever Grace sees a new client, he takes proper information of the client, and make thorough assessment of his problems, and after that make a diagnosis. If the patient has something which Grace can cure, she starts the treatment, otherwise she sends the patient to the related doctor.
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Following routine delivery of a healthy newborn, the mother delivers the placenta, and there is about 350 mL of bleeding immediately, with additional bleeding continuing to flow from the vagina. Which action is appropriate?
A. Supporting the uterus just above the pubic bone with one hand and massaging it with the other.
B. Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position.
C. Applying direct pressure to control the bleeding.
D. Requesting ALS.
Answer:
A. Supporting the uterus just above the pubic bone with one hand and massaging it with the other.
Explanation:
A normal amount of blood loss during delivery is up to 500 mL. There is about 150 mL more that is left to go but it is important to try and prevent it, since it we cannot determine the exact amount of lost blood.
This massage is a way of stimulating the blood vessels to contract and reduce or stop the bleeding. Allowing the newborn to feed on the mother's breast is another possibility that helps prevent the flow of blood.
A 17-year-old boy is being treated in the ICU after going into cardiac arrest during a football practice. Diagnostic testing reveals cardiomyopathy as the cause of the arrest. What type of cardiomyopathy is particularly common among young people who appear otherwise healthy?
Answer:
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation:
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a common cause of sudden death in young athletes. The disease is characterized by hypertrophy (overdevelopment) of the heart muscle. It can reach any area of the organ, but the most common is affecting the septum region, the part that divides the heart cavities. The septum, which is less than one centimeter thick, can double or triple in volume in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
In some cases, this abnormal increase in heart volume generates an obstruction that affects blood flow. What happens is that when the heart beats by moving parts of the muscle to pump blood, flow is hampered because it encounters a barrier in the area increased by thickening.
The most common symptoms are shortness of breath, fainting (usually during or after physical exertion), chest pain (during or after physical activity). When observing them, it is important to seek medical attention, as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can cause arrhythmia and lead to sudden death. Sometimes the person has no symptoms and eventually discovers the disease during a routine checkup or cardiac assessment to go to the gym or do some competitive sports.
Usually is associated with genetic factors. Therefore, it cannot be prevented. But it is recommended that people who have family members with the disease take tests for control and follow-up.
Which factors will cause hypoglycemia in a client with diabetes? Select all that apply. Client has been sleeping excessively. Client has been exercising more than usual. Client is experiencing effects of the aging process. Client has not consumed food and continues to take insulin or oral antidiabetic medications. Client has not consumed sufficient calories
Answer:
Client has been exercising more than usual Client has not consumed food and continues to take insulin or oral antidiabetic medicationsClient has not consumed sufficient caloriesDiabetes is a medical condition in which being disciplined enough regarding time meals and exercise is a must. If a client involves themselves in a heavy load of exercise obviously their level of glucose is going to drop given that the food intake is not the ideal in order to back up the exercise load.
If the client applies insulin without a proper food intake then the effect is going to be glucose dropping since insulin is not being allowed to play the role it is supposed to play,
Hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes can be caused by increased exercise, insufficient food intake while continuing medication, and not consuming enough calories. Monitoring blood sugar levels closely is crucial for managing this condition.
The question asks which factors can cause hypoglycemia in a client with diabetes. The factors leading to hypoglycemia include:
Client has been exercising more than usual.Client has not consumed food and continues to take insulin or oral antidiabetic medications.Client has not consumed sufficient calories.In the context of diabetes, hypoglycemia occurs when blood glucose levels become too low, often due to an imbalance between insulin intake, dietary habits, and physical activity. This condition can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, and if severe, may result in unconsciousness or death if untreated. It's crucial for those with diabetes to monitor blood sugar levels closely, especially when altering diet, physical activity, or medication intake.
Holistic health refers to the well-being of the whole person, including physical, mental, and spiritual health and the body working as a unit to maintain and promote optimum wellness through daily actions.A. True.B. False.
Answer: A. True
Explanation:
Holistic health can be defined as the approach to life. It considers the health of the whole person rather is focusing on the specific parts of the body that is responsible for the illness. It emphasis the linkage between mind, soul, and body. It also emphasizes the fact that how a person interacts with his or her environment which corresponds to either illness or good health.
Alcohol is prohibited in many _________countries, particularly those that practice _________ law. Exceptions can be made for specific ________ or to capture _________
dollars.
Answer:
1) different 2)the 3)people 4)100
Explanation:
Alcohol is prohibited in many Muslim countries, particularly those that practice Sharia law. Exceptions can be made for specific individuals and places to capture foreign investment dollars
The countries where alcohol is completely prohibited or banned include Yemen, Sudan, Somalia, Saudi Arabia, Mauritania, Kuwait, and Libya which are Muslim countries that practice Sharia Law
The use of Alcohol in all forms is prohibited in Sharia law
Some countries like Sudan give exceptions to non-Muslims, and locations for whom and where alcohol consumption, and several countries have Export Processing Zones were regulations are relaxed to attract foreign investment dollars
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The nine basic training principles are specificity, overload, progression, recovery, variation, transfer, balance, individualization, and reversibility. How can the basic training principles influence the type of location that you choose? Select at least three of nine training principles to write about.
The basic training principles like the principle of specificity, transfer, and balance will influence the type of location that one chooses.
Explanation:
The principle of specificity defines and targets the specific part or location of the body where a person chooses to train a particular skill. This principle targets both the specific location and the specific skill to be developed.
Principle of transfer which is closely associated with specificity relates to transferring the areas of skill to another part with another skill development. This is done for improvisation of training.
Principle of balance, an integral part of specificity, transfer and progression, balances out the individual and combination of exercises in the fitness training program to achieve positive results and also maintaining the overall health of the body.
The basic training principles of specificity, overload, and progression can significantly influence the type of location chosen for training.
1. Specificity: The principle of specificity states that the training should be relevant to the desired outcome. For instance, if the goal is to improve performance in a particular sport, the training location should facilitate the practice of movements and skills specific to that sport. For example, a swimmer would benefit from training in a pool with similar dimensions to competition pools, while a runner would need access to tracks or varied terrain that mimics their race conditions.
2. Overload: The overload principle involves placing greater-than-normal demands on the body to induce physiological changes. The chosen location must allow for the necessary equipment and space to safely increase the intensity, duration, or frequency of workouts. A well-equipped gym with a variety of weights and resistance machines would be ideal for strength training, whereas a large open field would be suitable for high-intensity interval training (HIIT) or plyometrics.
3. Progression: The principle of progression dictates that the training program should gradually increase in difficulty over time to continue challenging the body and produce improvements. A location that offers a range of options for scaling up the training stimulus is crucial. This could mean a facility with various cardiovascular machines for incremental increases in endurance training or a martial arts studio with different levels of classes to accommodate advancement in skill and intensity.
In summary, when selecting a training location, it is essential to consider how the environment will support the application of specificity, overload, and progression principles. The location should not only cater to the immediate needs of the training program but also allow for adaptations and growth as the individual progresses towards their fitness or performance goals.
Estelle has Alzheimer's disease. Recently her speech has become aimless and repetitive, she is experiencing more confusion, and at times gets her words mixed up. She is most likely in which stage of the disease?
Answer:
moderate stage
Explanation:
A 16 year old adolescent who received a kidney transplant at the age of 10, has recently developed a trend of increasing BP readings. Of the following list of medications, which may be the primary cause for the development of hypertension?
Answer: the primary cause for the development of hypertension after 6 years of kidney transplant is chronic graft rejection.
Explanation:
Transplantation refers to the act of transferring cells, tissues,or organs from one site to another. Genetic and clinical studies have shown that human leucocyte antigens in recipient and donors are the important antigens responsible for the acceptance or rejection of the graft. A chronic graft rejection occurs when a successful transplant gradually loses its function over a period of time. This type of reaction is seen in renal transplants and can occur months to years after transplantation.
When salt and water are mixed, they form a solution like in the ocean. When sand and water are mixed, they form a mixture where the sand does not dissolve. Which statement might summarize this observation?
One possible statement that summarizes this observation is: "Salt is soluble in water, while sand is not."
What is a mixture?
A mixture is a combination of two or more substances that are physically combined, but not chemically combined. In a mixture, the individual substances retain their own properties and can be separated by physical means. For example, when sand is mixed with water, it forms a mixture where the sand particles are suspended in the water but do not dissolve. Similarly, when sugar is mixed with water, it forms a mixture where the sugar particles dissolve in the water to form a sweet-tasting solution.
Other common examples of mixtures include air (a mixture of gases), soil (a mixture of minerals, organic matter, water, and air), and concrete (a mixture of cement, water, sand, and aggregate). Mixtures can be homogeneous, meaning that the components are evenly distributed throughout the mixture, or heterogeneous, meaning that the components are not evenly distributed.
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Which of the following strategies would be most appropriate for a client who has been working on incorporating physical activity into his lifestyle and has made it to the maintenance stage of behavior change?
a. Plan for potential lapses
b. Reiterate the long-term benefits of adherence
c. Explain and personalize the inherent risks of physical activity
d. Help the client identify social support
Answer:
The answer is letter b, “Reiterate the long-term benefits of adherence.”
Explanation:
Incorporating Physical Activity – This means increasing the amount of physical activity that you do every day. Some ways of increasing physical activity are as follows:
Walk to your office instead of driving a car.
Doing some stretches in the morning and in the evening.
Behavior Change – This is the process that a person experiences in order to change his behavior for the better. It consists of 6 stages namely:
1. Pre-contemplation stage –This is the stage of denial. The person doesn’t see any reason why he needs to change.
2. Contemplation stage- The person acknowledges his behavioral problem and tries to weigh the pros and cons of changing.
3. Preparation stage- The person now understands how beneficial change is. He starts planning to start acting.
4. Action stage- This is the time they modify their behavior. For example, the person who used to consume a lot of alcohol, stops drinking.
5. Maintenance stage- The person can now overcome his former behavior but still needs to be careful of temptations in order to avoid relapse.
6. Relapse- It is common for a person to fall back to the patterns of old behavior.
As stated above, the client has already been working on incorporating physical activity into his daily life (this is the action stage). Then, he was able to make it to the maintenance stage. It is important to tell him to stick to his good behavior change and remind him over again about its benefits, for he might fall into relapse. So, the best strategy in this case is letter b.
The FITT principle focuses on three components to improve fitness: muscular fitness, flexibility, and __________.
A) cardiorespiratory fitness
B) progressive overload principle
C) conditioning
D) muscle endurance
Answer:
D
Explanation:
The third component of fitness that the FITT principle focuses on, alongside muscular fitness and flexibility, is cardiorespiratory fitness. This is a key element of health-related physical fitness which involves activities that improve the efficiency of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
The FITT principle focuses on three components to improve fitness: muscular fitness, flexibility, and cardiorespiratory fitness. Cardiorespiratory fitness, also known as aerobic endurance, is the ability to perform prolonged, dynamic exercise using large muscle groups at a moderate-to-high intensity level. It is one of the five health-related components of physical fitness, alongside muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, and body composition. The FITT principle, which stands for Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type, helps individuals create an effective exercise plan by manipulating these variables to improve their overall fitness level.
The correct answer to the question is A) cardiorespiratory fitness, as it is one of the health-related components of physical fitness that the FITT principle aims to improve through aerobic or endurance activities, such as brisk walking, running, swimming, and cycling.
In which is not a process in the second trimester the baby uses all five senses hear elbow and eyelashes are developed fingers and toes grow the baby has a regular sleep cycle
Answer:
the baby uses all five senses.
Explanation:
While a baby is in mother's stomach, they cannot use all of the senses because they're not developed, yet. Some of them, like smell and taste, reach their highest development at birth. When it comes to hearing, it is developed when baby is approximately 30 days old, and baby's sight is being gradually developed through the first year of life.
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________.A) sleep disturbancesB) loss of body temperature controlC) dehydrationD) loss of fine motor control
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT loss of fine motor control. That is option D.
Effects of injury to the hypothalamusThe central nervous system is made up of the brain and the spinal cord.
The hypothalamus is the main part of the brain along side with the Cerebral cortex, Cerebellum, Thalamus, Pituitary gland and Pineal gland.
The hypothalamus is responsible to control
sleepbody temperature DehydrationFine motor control is carried out by the Cerebellum part of the brain.
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Injury to the hypothalamus may result in sleep disturbances, loss of body temperature control, and dehydration, but not in loss of fine motor control.
Explanation:Injury to the hypothalamus may result in sleep disturbances, loss of body temperature control, and dehydration. However, it does not typically result in loss of fine motor control. The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions and maintaining homeostasis, including controlling sleep patterns, body temperature, and fluid balance. It also helps to regulate hormone production and release.
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During meningitis, which of the following layers is the most likely to be a direct source of pathogens that may spread to the brain?
A) pia mater
B) arachnoid mater
C) dura mater
D) arachnoid villi
Answer:
A) Pia mater
Explanation:
Pia mater is the first layer of the meninges which is directly exposed to brain so it is most likely to be direct source of pathogens during meningitis.
The pia mater, the innermost meningeal layer that is in direct contact with brain's surface, is most likely to be a direct source of pathogens that may spread to the brain during meningitis.
Explanation:During meningitis, a bacterial or viral infection of the meninges, the pia mater (option A) is most likely to be a direct source of pathogens that may spread to the brain. This is the innermost meningeal layer, in direct contact with the brain's surface. The pia mater serves as a barrier and nutrient supplier for the brain's surface and, when infected, these pathogens can potentially infiltrate more deeply into the brain tissue. Options B, C and D, while components of the meninges or related structures, are not in as direct contact with the brain's tissue as the pia mater is.
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Jack has no genetic disorders, does not consume excessive trace mineral supplements, and has not experienced environmental overexposure. Yet, he could still be at risk for developing either a deficiency or toxicity of which two trace minerals?
Answer: Iron and Iodine
Explanation:
He will be at the risk of being iodine and iron deficient this is because he is not taking trace minerals in his diet.
Iron and iodine are trace minerals which means it has to be consumed in a trace amounts inside the body of the human beings.
Iodine is very important for the normal metabolism that takes place inside the body.
Iron is also important for the body in order to keep the body healthy and maintain an adequate amount of hemoglobin in the body.
Malika sees her therapist every other week. When she is at her therapist's office, she feels accepted and can share everything with her therapist. While her therapist listens to what Malika has to say without judgment, he also seeks understanding by paraphrasing as well as asking for clarification. Malika's therapist is using which therapeutic approach _______.
Answer:
person-centered therapy.
Explanation:
This type of therapy is utilized in a way that a person ( client ) does not feel judged. The goal is to make an environment a comfortable, safe space, where there is no judgment present in the room, and a person ( a professional ) is very empathetic. The professional allows their client to keep on talking without being interrupted by other topics and a professional shows enormous acceptance and support no matter what the client is going through.
A 13-month-old girl presents to the Shadow General Hospital Emergency Department with fussiness and pulling at her left ear. She has also had a fever. What is the primary expected finding on the HEENT exam?
A) White patches on her tongue and gums
B) Green eye discharge
C) Bulging, red left tympanic membrane
D) Nasal discharge
Answer:
C: Bulging, red left tympanic membrane
Explanation:
This patient presents with signs and symptoms of an ear infection. She may have nasal discharge that contributed to the infected fluid behind her tympanic membrane, but that is not the direct cause of her pulling at her ear. The provider should order antibiotics.
The primary expected finding on the HEENT exam would be a bulging, red left tympanic membrane.
Explanation:The primary expected finding on the HEENT (head, ears, eyes, nose, throat) exam in this case would be a bulging, red left tympanic membrane.
When a child presents with fussiness, pulling at the ear, and fever, it is indicative of acute otitis media (ear infection). The ear exam would likely reveal a swollen and inflamed eardrum, characterized by it being bulging and red.
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A dog presents for his first day of heartworm treatment. He tested positive for heartworms last week, and the infection was confirmed by chest radiographs and finding microfilariae in his blood. Which drug will this dog receive for killing the heartworms?
Answer:
Melarsomine.
Explanation:
The dog heartworm is the parasitic worm that causes dirofilariasis in dogs. This infection can spread from one host to the other host by the mosquito biting.
Melarsomine is the drug used to kill these heartworm. This drug is applicable in case of early infections only. The late infectious stage are resistant to this drug and cause harmful side effects in cats and dogs.
Thus, the answer is melarsomine.
A male client, aged 42 years, is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. He visits the gym regularly and is a vegetarian. Which of the following factors is important when assessing the client?
a.The client's mental and emotional status.
b. History of radiographic contrast studies that used iodine.
c. The client's exercise routine.
d. The client's consumption of carbohydrates.
Answer:
While assessing the male client,the client's consumption of carbohydrates is the most important factor.
Explanation:
The client's consumption of carbohydrates is most important factor because he has high blood sugar.Although other factors can be important for data collection, they are not as important for the information related to client's high blood sugar.
Carbohydrates play a very important role in diabetes mellitus:
The food we eat consists of nutrients which provide us with energy and other things that are essential for body(carbohydrates).The two main forms are: sugars & starches. The body converts most carbohydrates into sugar.Glucose absorption takes place in bloodstream and with the help of insulin hormone it travels into body cells where it can be used for energy.People with diabetes have insulin problems which causes rise in the blood sugar levels. For people with type 1 diabetes, the pancreas loses the ability to make insulin.In type 2 diabetes, the body can't respond normally to insulin which is made.Because body turns carbohydrates into glucose, eating carbohydrates makes blood sugar levels rise. But carbs can't be avoided in a diet because they are healthy & important part of a nutritious diet. Fibers play main role in proper working of digestive system.People with diabetes mellitus should take more fibrous dietTrue or False. Many organizations treat near misses in the same way that they treat sentinel events, using error-reduction tools such as root-cause analysis or failure mode and effects analysis in an effort to prevent future occurrences.
Answer: True
Explanation:
It's true many organizations treat near misses in the same way that they treat sentinel events, using error-reduction tools such as root-cause analysis or failure mode and effects analysis in an effort to prevent future occurrences.
Ehab is a high school science teacher. He recently received a Teacher of the Year award for his district, but he believes he only received it because no one else bothered to apply for it. He is a popular teacher, but he is convinced the students only pretend to like him so they will get better grades. What aspect of job burnout does his exemplify?A. alarmB. depersonalizationC. diminished personal accomplishmentD. exhaustion
Answer: C. diminished personal accomplishment
Explanation:
Diminished personal accomplishment is a psychological condition in which a person negatively evaluates his or her work, such a person feels insufficiently and experiences a lack of confidence regarding the ability to perform one's job. Such a person also experiences poor professional self-esteem. In such a condition, the person fails to appreciate own efforts and accomplishments.
In the given situation, Enab is experiencing diminished personal accomplishment. As he is not able to appreciate his efforts and convinced with the fact that the respect he gets from students is just because of grades.
The __________ circulation collects nutrient-rich venous blood draining from the digestive viscera. splanchnic hepatic portal enterohepatic pulmonary
Answer:
Hepatic portal
Explanation:
The hepatic portal is a system of veins and its tributaries, the main function it has is to provide the liver with the correct amount of metabolites and it is also responsible for doing the correct selection of substances in the liver before they go to the systemic circulation.
Alicia came home from work today and seemed okay, but then found that she had lost the change from her change purse. It probably amounted to $2.00 or less, but she started sobbing and can't seem to stop crying. Her family doesn't understand what is wrong. Use your knowledge about stressors to help her family understand what probably happened. Which inference below is most appropriate?
a. she's very worried about the economy and money problems, in general
b. she got up on the wrong side of the bed
c. she had a hard day where a lot of different things went wrong
d. she is coming down with a cold or flu
Answer:
She had a hard day where a lot of different things went wrong.
Explanation:
Stress may be defined as the medical condition in which individual suffers from physical and mental emotional. This might remain for some hours, days or may be long for years.
Stressor may be defined as any agent that might be responsible for the formation of stress. The individual sometimes gets depress due to the different stressors that he faced during his stress situation. Alicia had a hard day as she has lost her money and things gets wrong with her at the while day.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
Final answer:
The correct inference based on Alicia's reaction to losing her change is that she had a hard day with many stressors, culminating in an emotional breakdown. The accumulation of stressors such as traffic, footwear malfunction, and forgotten lunch suggests a compounded emotional response, consistent with stress-related behaviors in various provided cases.
Explanation:
Based on the context provided, the most appropriate inference about why Alicia was sobbing after losing the change from her change purse is option c: she had a hard day where a lot of different things went wrong. Given the background information that Alicia was late for class, stuck in traffic, dealt with a broken shoe heel, and forgot her lunch, we can deduce that the loss of the change was likely the last in a series of stressors that overwhelmed her capacity to cope, leading to an emotional response disproportionate to the event itself.
This situation illustrates how accumulated stressors can lead to heightened emotional reactions to seemingly minor incidents. It is a reminder that people's responses are often influenced by a confluence of events rather than a single issue. Comparable examples include a person feeling worthless after a bad day (Blake), someone acting irrationally due to a mood disorder (Crystal), or a mother feeling overwhelmed and anxious after childbirth (Maria).
Moreover, the excerpt about Mrs. Ames underscores how ongoing stress and worry about financial stability can lead to significant distress, which might be analogous to Alicia's situation if the loss of money symbolizes larger economic concerns.
Markel has recurring bouts of trembling and shaking, dizziness, chest pain or discomfort, rapid heart rate, feelings of unreality, hot and cold flashes, and sweating. He feels that he is going crazy. Markel is showing the symptoms of _________.
Markel is showing the symptoms of a panic attack.
A 29-year-old patient visits his provider because of a lump on his left testicle that is not painful. During a history and physical exam, he mentions another symptom. Which of the following is a significant diagnostic symptom that is suggestive of metastasis?
Answer:
Persistent cough and shortness of breath
Explanation:
When testicular cancer spreads the most common areas it spreads to is the the lung and the lymph nodes of the chest resulting in lung problems
What are some consequences of not having emotional support? (Select all that apply.) Isolation Hearing loss Depression Loss of skin integrity Fear Dementia Decreased mobility Hopelessness
Final answer:
Lack of emotional support can result in isolation, depression, and hopelessness, leading to significant mental and physical health consequences. These can impact educational experiences through cognitive impairments, highlighting the importance of support systems. Option A, Option C.
Explanation:
The consequences of not having emotional support can lead to various significant issues that affect a person's mental and physical health. Some of these include isolation, which can lead to feelings of loneliness and detachment from others; depression, characterized by sadness, loss of interest, hopelessness, and changes in sleep and appetite; and hopelessness, which is a sense of despair that can affect a person's decision-making and motivation. Moreover, a lack of emotional support may contribute to increased stress, which can interfere with healthy neuron development, leading to potential cognitive impairments such as memory and focusing issues, thereby diminishing the quality of one's education or learning experience. Psychological harm can therefore have lasting effects on an individual's overall well-being, highlighting the importance of nurturing support systems within communities and educational environments.
which type of paralysis from spinal cord transection occurs in the upper thoracic or cervical region of the spinal cord ?
Answer:
Tetraplegia (paralysis in all four limbs)
Explanation:
We can group vertebrae into sections acording to their location, these sections are (You can see them in the image I added):
High cervical nerves (From c1 to c4)Low cervical nerves (from c5 to c8)Thoracic nerves (T1-T12)Lumbar nerves (L1-L5)Sacral nerves (S1-S5)An injury in the low cervical nerves can go from having hand movement and the need of assistance only for difficult tasks (c8 injury) to the likelihood of having some or total paralysis of wrist, hands, trunk and legs with weakened breathing (c5 injury), as you can see the higher the injury the more dysfunction can occur, when a high cervical nerve lesion occurs the patient may not be able to breathe on his own or speak, having tetraplegia and therefore requiring complete assistance
Lily Larson is a 17-year-old primigravida who has come to the prenatal clinic where you work. She says she is about seven months pregnant. This is her first visit for prenatal care. She has come to the clinic because she knows "my baby is due soon."
Because Lily has sought prenatal care so late, she is at risk for_______.
As lily has sought the prenatal care so late she might be at the risk of many hazards which are listed below:
First, she is only 17 years and her immature pregnancy can get the complications in delivery. The endocrine glands of adolescents are not properly developed for the pregnancy which may cause anemia. Gestational hypertension (GH) is a common risk for the pregnant mother. Her family history of (GH) must have been examined in the earlier stage of pregnancy. So dealing with the immature pregnancy needs the early care and proper medication otherwise the pregnancy may turn into the complications.A 9-year-old child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) has been placed on the stimulant methylphenidate. The nurse knows that the teaching has been effective when the parents make which statement?
Answer:
If the parents say that they have seen improvement
Explanation:
ADHD or Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is a type of neurodevelopmental disorder, in which an individual is characterized by impairing, impulsivity, and inattention.
The correct statement that parents will make is that if their child has improved.
The condition of ADHD is controlled as:
1. ADHD is a neurological disorder in which person focuses on themselves only.
2. The person suffering from ADHD will exhibit emotional turmoil, unfinished tasks, lack of focus, and interrupting.
3. The stimulant methylphenidate is used to treat ADHD. The medication increases the brain activity that controls the attention and behavior part.
Thus, the parent will see improvement in the child's behavior if the medication works.
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As a healthier alternative to French fries, some fast food outlets offer pre-sliced, bagged apples as a side option. The ingredients list often reads, "Apples and Ascorbic Acid." Ascorbic acid is another name for vitamin C. What role does the ascorbic acid play in the product?
A) Ascorbic acid is a sequestrant that binds free metal ions and reduces the rancidity of fat in the apples.
B) Ascorbic acid is an antioxidant that prevents discoloration when the apples are cut and exposed to oxygen.
C) Ascorbic acid is a color additive that makes the color of the apples appear more vibrant.
D) Ascorbic acid is a curing agent that prevents the growth of Clostridium botulinum.
Answer:
The answer is Letter B
Explanation:
Ascorbic acid is an antioxidant that prevents discoloration when the apples are cut and exposed to oxygen.