Answer:
It has the daily value of fiber in each serving
Explanation:
Parathyroid hormone __________. activates osteoblasts enhances release of calcium from bone is released when aldosterone levels climb results in a lowering of calcium levels targets the thyroid gland.
Answer:
Parathyroid hormone enhances release of calcium from bone.
Explanation:
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is produced by the parathyroid glands. The function of these hormones is to increase the levels of Ca²⁺ in blood when they are low. To increase the calcium in blood the parathyroid hormone enhances the release of calcium from the bone in a process called osteolysis.
A client with ovarian cancer is ordered hydroxyurea (Hydrea), an antimetabolite drug. Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that interfere with various metabolic actions of the cell. The mechanism of action of antimetabolites interferes with:a. the chemical structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and chemical binding between DNA molecules (cell cycle-nonspecific).b. normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B
Explanation:
Anti-metabolites are the chemical drugs which interfere with the chemical enzymes used during the DNA synthesis.
The drugs act during the DNA replication process which takes place in S or synthesis phase of the cell cycle which prevents the DNA replication. They affect the DNA synthesis by acting as a substitute for the metabolite utilized during the DNA synthesis metabolism. They are used in cancer treatment chemotherapy.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. B. the way in which traumatic injuries occur. C. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries. D. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
Answer: C. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.
Explanation:
The suspicion may be defined as the act or instance of suspecting something wrong without any kind of proof or with the help of very few evidence. The suspicion is a state of uncertainty.
An index of suspicion can be defined as the suspicion that leads to the awareness or concern about a potentially serious unseen injury or illness. A high index of suspicion suggests the strong possibility of illness or internal injury.
The index of suspicion is most accurately defined as your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. It's the degree of suspicion one has about potential serious conditions in a patient, based on symptoms, medical history, or other factors. It's crucial in emergency scenarios for quick, potentially life-saving diagnoses.
Explanation:The index of suspicion in health science is most accurately defined as D. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. This term typically refers to the level of suspicion a healthcare professional has about potential serious conditions in a patient, based on symptoms, medical history, or other factors.
It's especially relevant in emergency scenarios where a preliminary diagnosis could potentially be life-saving. An example of this could be a patient coming in with minor bruises but their medical history reveals they take blood thinners. A high index of suspicion would raise concerns over potential internal bleeding, even though the exterior injuries look minor.
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Providing care that is respectful of and compatible with the client’s cultural health beliefs, practices, and preferred language is an example of which theme of culturally and linguistic competency:________
Answer: Psychometric evaluation.
Explanation: The psychometric evaluation is used by health professionals to evaluate the client's cultural health beliefs, practices, and preferred language. This theme is indispensable to guarantee that the client's cultural and linguistic preferences and beliefes are respected and followed by the health professionals.
Answer:
cultural competency- theme 1: developing culturally competent care
Explanation:
The linguistic competency care consist also on implementing recruitment strategies to gather and retain diverse personnel and also providing a sensitive service delivery
An animal is hit by a car and has a broken leg in which the bone is sticking out through the skin. This is an example of which fracture type?A. CompoundB. SpiralC. GreenstickD. Comminuted
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
A fracture is known to occur when a strong external force is applied on the rigid bone and the bone is broken down completely or partially in multiple pieces.
There are many types of bone fractures that occur like transverse, oblique, stable, open or compound.
In the given question, since the bone is coming out of the skin after a hit by the car, this type of fracture is known as the open fracture or compound fracture. The infection can spread in the wound as well as they can affect the bone.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Exercise physiology is the study of__________.
A) how to prescribe exercise for performance improvements
B) acute and chronic bodily responses to physical activity
C) the lasting effects of long-term exercise on overall fitness
D) biochemical changes in the body during high-intensity exercise
Poor medical care is dysfunctional for society, as people who are ill face greater difficulty in becoming healthy. and people who are healthy are more likely to become ill. Group of answer choices True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Improve health care will increase life expectancy and longevity while poor medical care will only result to more deadly cases that will affect the healthy living also via communicable diseases air borne or physical contact.
The statement that poor medical care is dysfunctional for society is true, as it impedes the ability of individuals to be productive members and exacerbates social inequalities, impacting the overall health and functioning of society.
Explanation:The statement that poor medical care is dysfunctional for society is true. In sociology, the functionalist perspective, as proposed by Talcott Parsons, posits that good health and effective medical care are crucial for the stability and smooth functioning of society. Illness can be viewed as a form of deviance that hinders an individual's ability to perform their roles in society. This perspective further suggests that when many people are ill, the societal functions and stability are at risk. Moreover, social inequality often leads to disparately high illness rates and poorer medical care among disadvantaged social groups.
Furthermore, the issue of poor medical care and lack of health insurance can drastically affect society by increasing the difficulty for ill individuals to become healthy and raising the chances of healthy individuals becoming ill, leading to a vicious cycle of health issues that impact society's overall productivity and well-being. This is exasperated in contexts where health care disparities are profound due to socioeconomic, racial, or ethnic factors. The higher prevalence of certain diseases and health issues such as infant mortality and inadequate preventive care in lower-income populations provides evidence for the connection between social inequality and health outcomes.
When Colin was 6, his father died from alcohol poisoning. Colin started drinking and using marijuana at the age of 12. As an adult Colin has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. What subtype is Colin?
The correct answer would be, Young antisocial subtype.
Colin has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Colin has Young antisocial subtype.
Explanation:
Bipolar disorder is a personality disorder. A patient with Bipolar Disorder has extreme mood swings. These mood swings may include mania, hypomania and depression. The person with this disorder has least interests in most activities.
A subtype of Bipolar Disorder is Young antisocial subtype. This type of subtype starts in people in their mid twenties. There could be two reasons behind this subtype. One could be that the patient has alcoholics in his family, or second reason could be that he has an antisocial personality disorder.
So when Colin was diagnosed with this subtype, the clear reason was that, his father was an alcoholic.
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Ruby and Chris were married three years ago. At that time, they both wrote wills leaving their assets to the other person. Since that time, they have adopted two children. How can they alter their wills without rewriting the wills entirely?
a. Add a letter of last instructions.
b. Add a holographic appendix.
c. Add a codicil.
d. Add a residual clause.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C
C. Add a codicil
Explanation:
A codicil is a document that looks similar to a will but not exactly a will. It serves as an amendment to a will or as an alternative to a will but not exactly a replacement.
So in the case of Ruby and Chris who do not want to write a new will, they can add a codicil to the existing will to include their children.
Ruby and Chris can use a codicil to alter their wills without rewriting them entirely. A codicil is a document that amends or modifies an existing will.
Explanation:In order for Ruby and Chris to alter their wills without rewriting them entirely, they can use a codicil. A codicil is a document that amends or modifies an existing will. It allows Ruby and Chris to add provisions to their wills, such as including their adopted children as beneficiaries, without having to rewrite the entire will.
By using a codicil, Ruby and Chris can ensure that their wills reflect their current wishes, including the addition of their adopted children as beneficiaries.
They should consult with an attorney to properly draft and execute the codicil, ensuring that it complies with all legal requirements.
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A farmer in Arizona has a sudden onset of fever and muscle aches in his legs and trunk, followed by nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. His doctor discovers that his leukocyte count is high, platelet count is low, and his blood pressure is dropping. The doctor immediately orders hospitalization. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer:
The most likely diagnosis is hantavirus pulmonary syndrome.
Explanation:
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is a disease caused by being in contact with rodents that carry hantaviruses. This disease can be fatal if it is not treated. Some of the early symptoms are muscle aches, fever, headaches, nausea, and abdominal pain. After being infected for more than a week the person experiences breathing problems.
Which statement does the nurse include when teaching a patient about disulfiram (Antabuse) therapy? "Disulfiram (Antabuse) will cure your alcoholism if you take it as directed." "If you drink alcohol after taking disulfiram (Antabuse), your blood pressure will get very high." "You cannot drink alcohol for at least 3 or 4 days after taking disulfiram (Antabuse)." "If you miss a dose of disulfiram (Antabuse), double the dose the next time it is due."
Answer:
"You cannot drink alcohol for at least 3 or 4 days after taking disulfiram"
Explanation:
In order to use disulfiram in a correct way it is necessary that the patient does not drink alcohol during at least the next three to four days after consuming disulfiram.
Another point which is necessary to be taken into account is that this medication is a very important component of the treatment but does not cure alcoholism.
In a condition called detached retina, the neural layer of the retina separates from the pigmented part. Blindness may result if blood supply to the photoreceptors cannot be restored. What are these photoreceptors called__________.
Answer: These photoreceptors are called rods and cons
Explanation:
One of the most important primary sense organs in human body is Eyes, it has in it photoreceptors (around 125million), which are rods and cons, their major function is to provide vision to the eyes. Rods provide vision during the night, which is also called scotopic vision while cons provide vision during the daylight, which is also called photopic vision. More so, Cons helps in colour vision but rods don't.
Final answer:
The photoreceptors that may cause blindness if the blood supply cannot be restored are rods and cones.
Explanation:
The photoreceptors that may cause blindness if the blood supply cannot be restored are called rods and cones. The retina, which is composed of several layers, contains these specialized cells that change their membrane potential when stimulated by light energy. Rods are particularly sensitive to dim light, while cones are sensitive to light of different colors.
Delivering puppies and kittens can be a rewarding experience and a procedure that the technician should always be ready to perform. What are the basic steps that need to be taken once a puppy or kitten is delivered?
Answer:
The basic steps that need to be taken once a kitten or puppy is delivered are:
Dry the newborn,massage gently, dry and suction any secretions from mouth and nose
Explanation:
The correct handling of a newborn kitten or puppy involves the following procedure:
Drying the kitten/puppyGentle body massage is must because it will help him/her in breathingRemoval of the secretions from mouth or noseOne of the most important concern regarding to pet is maintenance of warmthAnthony is training for a half-marathon. He is now training for more than 90 minutes most days of the week. If Anthony weighs 199 pounds, approximately how many calories per day does he need to support his energy needs and maintain his current weight?
Anthony could lose about 48 calories per day.
The textbook states that ""people with retrograde amnesia generally remember who they are and the most important events of their earlier lives."" This sentence suggests that some _____ memories are preserved in cases of retrograde amnesia.
Answer:
important
Explanation:
This sentence suggests that some important memories are preserved in cases of retrograde amnesia
Final answer:
Retrograde amnesia is a condition where a person loses memory for events that occurred prior to a brain injury. Despite this memory loss, people with retrograde amnesia often retain their self-identity and memories of important past events.
Explanation:
Retrograde amnesia is a condition where a person loses memory for events that occurred prior to a brain injury. Despite this memory loss, people with retrograde amnesia often retain their self-identity and memories of important past events. This suggests that some autobiographical memories are preserved in cases of retrograde amnesia.
The extent of retrograde amnesia can vary, and the memories lost may not be uniform across all experiences.
Why is it important to know who reviews the information posted on a Web site and the date it was last updated?
Answer:
See the explanation
Explanation:
Yes it always important to know the date on which the information is posted on a web site because with the time, information may change specially in the case of:- laws and rules. Similarly it is also important to know that who reviews the information because reviewer authorize that information, so in case of any glitches he would be responsible.
Answer:
Websites are reviewed regularly to maintain and improve the SEO (Search Engine Optimization) standing. There are several sites on which reviews about the business, people, or services can be posted. Websites should include the last date it was updated and should be authentic.
Explanation:
Websites are advantageous because it is accessible to anyone at any time. Websites provide information about entertainment, services, businesses, news, sports, and health. It is important to know who reviews the information posted on the website because:
Websites are also used to write reviews on certain gadgets, equipment, and services. Thus, the proper and accurate information should be provided by the reviewer. The functioning of certain gadgets or services is changed with time. Therefore, it is necessary to update the reviews and mention the date on which it was last updated. Also, information posted on the website must be authentic and accurate. The law and rules are updated regularly, which makes it mandatory for a reviewer to update and highlight the changes on information posted on the website.Therefore, it is important to know who reviews the information on the website because, in case of any glitch or spurious information, the reviewer will be held accountable.
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Lola doesn't like to cook, so she eats fast food at least three times a week. When she doesn't eat fast food, she opens a can of soup and makes a ham and cheese sandwich. For snacks, she prefers processed cheese cubes, potato chips, and pretzels. Based on this information, her diet is very high in:
Answer:
Based on this information, her diet is very high in: calories.
Explanation:
Fast food and processed food are likley to have high calories, but no the good kind. The body needs calories, but healthy ones.
Fast good and processed food are normally high on sugars, fat and carbohidrates. Processed foods also have transfat, which is an artificial fat, manufactured when processing foods.
According to the context, her diet is unhealthy and is very high in fat, salt, sugars, condiments and additives.
What are unhealthy diets?They are diets based on those foods that have large amounts of sugars, saturated or trans fats and salt.
By having high doses of salt and fat, they generate, on par, who consume them, a greater demand for consumption of them, can cause health disorders.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the context, her diet is unhealthy and is very high in fat, salt, sugars, condiments and additives.
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ou are assessing a 27-year-old female who is 9 months pregnant with her first child. She has been having contractions for the past 6 hours. As you are about to assist her to your cot, she asks you to wait because she feels the need to use the bathroom first. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby's head is visible.
B. Advise the patient that this could be a sign of a serious complication, have her lie on her left side, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport immediately.
C. Tell the patient she needs to be transported immediately and using the bathroom will have to wait until she arrives at the hospital.
D. Allow the patient to use the bathroom as it will make transport, and also delivery, more comfortable.
A 28-year-old man presents with reports of diarrhea, fecal urgency, and weight loss. His stool is light-colored and malodorous, and it tends to float and be difficult to flush. He has also noted tender, red bumps on his shins and reports pain and stiffness in his elbows and knees. Sigmoidoscopy reveals discontinuous, granulomatous lesions; no blood is detected in his stool. Which diagnosis would his care team first suspect?
A. Crohn diseaseB. Ulcerative colitisC. DiverticulitisD. Colon cancer
Answer:
Crohn disease.
Explanation:
Some of the symptoms: diarrhea, fever, pain and cramps in the abdominal area, poor appetite, weight loss, pain around an*s.This disease is IBD, which means, it causes inflammation of the digestive tract. It is very painful and sometimes it results in complications that could be fatal. There is no cure for this disease, yet, but therapies and medicaments can help with symptoms and promise people a healthy life if they stick to the therapy and advice that they get from doctors.
What happens during implantation?
The blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus.
Sperm are deposited into the vagina.
Sperm fertilize an egg.
The embryo is surrounded by the amniotic sac.
Answer:
The blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus.
The thing which happens during implantation is that the blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus. Therefore, the correct option for this question is A.
What is Implantation?Implantation may be characterized as the stage of embryonic development in mammals through which a blastocyst is formed after the formation of a zygote which gets embedded in the wall of the uterus.
The sperm are deposited into the vagina through the process of ejaculation. Sperm fertilize an egg in order to form a zygote through the process of fertilization. In the early stages of development, the embryo is surrounded by the amniotic sac in order to facilitate all the nutrients which are required for further development.
Therefore, the thing which happens during implantation is that the blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus. Therefore, the correct option for this question is A.
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David is a healthy 5-year-old boy who is scheduled to see his pediatrician for a checkup in July prior to starting kindergarten. David's immunization record reveals that he has received the following vaccines:3 doses of HepB4 doses of PCV132 doses of HepA3 doses of IPV2 doses of rotavirus1 dose of MMRV4 doses of DTaP4 doses of HibWhich vaccines should David receive at this visit?
Answer:
At this visit, David should receive one dose of IPV, one dose of MMRV and one dose of DTaP.
Explanation:
During this visit David should receive 3 vaccines:
the last dose of IPV, which protects the kid against polio a disease that causes paralysis and death.
The last dose of MMRV, which protects the individual against rubella a disease spread through direct contact with an infected person and through the air.
The last dose of DTaP, a vaccine that prevents tetanus, a fatal disease that starts with difficulties to breath.
The types of aging changes related to particular conditions or illnesses that become more common with aging but are caused by health habits, genes, and other influences are referred to as:
Answer:
primary and secondary aging
Explanation:
As an individual grows older, one becomes more susceptible to some conditions and illnesses as a result of primary and/or secondary aging.
Primary aging changes arise from biological and genetic factors that are beyond our control. It is the gradual deterioration of the body as one ages, leading to slower movement, problems with vision and hearing, gray hair as a result of loss of melanin, increased susceptibility to infections, etc.These conditions and illnesses caused by aging are inevitable and cannot be controlled.
Secondary aging, on the other hand, are changes which are not naturally caused but are brought about as a result of personal lifestyle changes and poor health practices. Secondary aging changes can be prevented or controlled. Examples of such factors include smoking, sedentary lifestyle etc
Because infants and small children rely more heavily on the diaphragm for breathing, respiratory distress can be detected by observing which one of the following signs that is not prominent in adults?
A) Bulging of the intercostal spaces
B) Use of the sternocleidomastoid muscles of the neck
C) Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort
D) None of the above
Answer: The answer is C- Movement of the abdomen with respiratory effort.
Explanation:
Adults require the coordinated use of the diaphragm, the intercostal muscles and the abdominal muscles for breathing.
However babies and young children make use of the abdominal muscles to pull the diaphragm down for breathing. Their intercostal muscles are not yet fully developed at birth. It is therefore easy to observe respiratory distress by observing the movement of the abdominal muscles.
Several clients in clinic today are reporting urinary signs/symptoms. Which reported manifestation(s) leads the health care provider to suspect acute pyelonephritis? Select all that apply.
Answer:
The healthcare professional may suspect acute pyelonephritis if patients experience pain while urinating and have signs of pus (pyuria) and blood (haematuria) in the urine, which becomes cloudy and has an unpleasant odor.
Explanation:
Acute pyelonephritis is a potentially serious infectious inflammatory disease caused by bacteria. It affects the renal parenchyma, where the urine-producing functional structures are located, and the dilated portion of the kidney (or pelvis), roughly shaped like a funnel, whose function is to facilitate the flow of urine through the ureters. so that it is stored in the bladder and then eliminated through the urethra.
The most characteristic symptoms are fever, chills, sweating, nausea, vomiting, malaise; low back and pelvic pain in the abdomen and back; urgency and pain (dysuria) to urinate, sign of pus (pyuria) and blood (hematuria) in the urine, which becomes cloudy and has an unpleasant odor.
A recipe calls for 3/4 cup of sugar per batch of cookies. If Gabe wants to make 6 batches of cookies, how many cups of sugar does he need? Write your expression and then solve it giving you the answer for how much sugar Gabe will need.
Answer:
4.5 cups
Explanation:
3/4 C sugar =1
3/4 x 6
3 divided by 4 = 0.75
0.75 x 6 = 4.5
Five medications related to the peripheral nervous system
Answer: Masoprocol, Tramadol,Cavimeline, Betaxolol,, Amphetamine.
Explanation:
Amphetamine for treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.
Masoprocol for treatment of actinic keratoses.
Cavimeline is used for the
symptomatic treatment of dry mouth in Sjogren's syndrome patients.
Tramadol- for moderate or severe pain management.
Betaxolol us used for treatment of hypertension and intraocular pressure elevation through ophthalmic administration.
Seamus is obsessive about details when drawing pictures. He keeps his bedroom spotless and meticulously organized. he tends to shy away from other children and is awkward when trying to relate to others. which of the following diagnoses would best fit Seamus's behavior?
A. compulsive disorder
B. asperger syndrome
C. dyslexia
D. autism
Your team attends an emergency cesarean delivery of a term baby because of chorioamnionitis, meconium stained amniotic fluid, and fetal heart rate decelerations. At delivery, the newborn is term as expected, with very poor tone and he is not breathing (apneic). You quickly perform the initial steps, but the baby is still not breathing. What is the most appropriate next step of resuscitation?
a.Intubate and administer 0.05 mg/kg of endotracheal epinephrine
b.Start positive pressure ventilation and check heart rate response after 15 seconds
c.Start cardiac compressions coordinated 3:1 with the ventilations, and prepared insert an umbilical venous catheter
d.Immediately intubate and suction the trachea
Answer:
B. Start possitve-pressure ventilation and check heart rate response after fifteen seconds
Explanation:
The most important when having to deal with this kind of procedure is planning and preparation, since it is necessary to count on the ideal professional staff and available equipment. Besides it should exist an accurate level of communication between the obstretic and neonatal resuscitation team and one more thing that should be taken into account is the maternal-fetal risk factors in case there are some.
Answer:
The correct answer is: Start positive-pressure ventilation and check heart rate response after 15 seconds,
Explanation:
When indicated, PPV should begin within 1 minute after delivery.
How do you prepare to start positive pressure ventilation? 1. Eliminate airway secretions. If it is no longer done, suck the mouth and nose to make sure the secretions do not obstruct the PPV.
2. Position yourself next to the baby's head. The person responsible for placing the airways in position and holding the mask on the baby's face is placed on the baby's head.
3. Place the baby's head and neck in the correct position.
The baby's head and neck should be in a neutral position or slightly extended in the sniffing position so that the baby's chin and nose are facing up. The airways will be clogged if the neck is excessively flexed or extended.
How do you evaluate the baby's response to positive pressure ventilation? The most important indicator of a successful PPV is the increase in heart rate. An assistant will monitor the baby's heart rate response with a stethoscope, a pulse oximeter or an electronic heart monitor. Perform 2 assessments of the baby's heart rate response to PPV separately.
Check chest movements with assisted breaths. The heart rate is not increasing; The chest is moving. Announce "The chest IS moving." Continue the PPV that moves to the chest. Perform your second evaluation of the baby's heart rate after 15 more seconds from the PPV that moves the chest. The heart rate is not increasing; the chest is NOT moving. Announce "The chest is NOT moving." The vents are not insufflating the lungs. Perform corrective ventilation steps
Jackson agreed to Stanley's suggestion that they shoplift some video games. Later in the week, Jackson agreed to go along with Stanley's suggestion to steal a neighbor's expensive racing bike. Reflecting on what he had done, Jackson was surprised by his willingness to comply with Stanley's request. Jackson's experience illustrates____________.
Answer:
the foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
Explanation:
It is a strategy in psychology and it is used in order to make someone do something we ask from them. The one who persuades another, picks a simple thing at first and that way, makes sure that they will do the same when a bigger thing comes along. Why is it important, because if we asked from them a '' bigger favor '' at first, they would not agree. An example: Sarah asked Tina to steal a candy. She said yes. A few days later, Sarah said she would like Tina to steal an expensive dress for her, and Tina said yes.
In a study of 2,752 adults in New York after the 9/11 attacks, people were judged to be resilient if they __________ PTSD symptoms in the first six months after the attack. By this measure, 65.1 percent of the sample populations fit the qualifications for resiliency.
Answer:
survived
Explanation: