Answer:
survived
Explanation:
Millie has been having difficulties remembering what people have just said. She is unable to follow along during her favorite television shows. Millie is having difficulty with her _____ memory.
a. short-term
b. echoic
c. long-term
d. flashbulb
Answer:
a. short-term
Explanation:
True or False. Many organizations treat near misses in the same way that they treat sentinel events, using error-reduction tools such as root-cause analysis or failure mode and effects analysis in an effort to prevent future occurrences.
Answer: True
Explanation:
It's true many organizations treat near misses in the same way that they treat sentinel events, using error-reduction tools such as root-cause analysis or failure mode and effects analysis in an effort to prevent future occurrences.
which type of paralysis from spinal cord transection occurs in the upper thoracic or cervical region of the spinal cord ?
Answer:
Tetraplegia (paralysis in all four limbs)
Explanation:
We can group vertebrae into sections acording to their location, these sections are (You can see them in the image I added):
High cervical nerves (From c1 to c4)Low cervical nerves (from c5 to c8)Thoracic nerves (T1-T12)Lumbar nerves (L1-L5)Sacral nerves (S1-S5)An injury in the low cervical nerves can go from having hand movement and the need of assistance only for difficult tasks (c8 injury) to the likelihood of having some or total paralysis of wrist, hands, trunk and legs with weakened breathing (c5 injury), as you can see the higher the injury the more dysfunction can occur, when a high cervical nerve lesion occurs the patient may not be able to breathe on his own or speak, having tetraplegia and therefore requiring complete assistance
You are a contestant on Jeopardy! and it is your turn. You say to Alex, "I'll take Ancient Explanations of Mental Illness for $100." The answer is, "His was the first recorded attempt to explain abnormal behavior as due to some biological process." The smile on your face reveals the confidence you have as you say ______________.
Answer:
Hippocrates
Explanation:
Hippocrates has been considered the father of this field. Abnormal behavior was analyzed by him for the first time in history and he was concentrated on discovering what ignites this sort of inclinations in human beings.
He concluded there are differents areas to take into account such as behavior, thought and emotion.
Estelle has Alzheimer's disease. Recently her speech has become aimless and repetitive, she is experiencing more confusion, and at times gets her words mixed up. She is most likely in which stage of the disease?
Answer:
moderate stage
Explanation:
You are charged with developing a new nursing curriculum and are committed to developing a curriculum that reflects the needs of the profession and of the workplace. To address deficits that may already be present in nursing curricula related to the workplace, you include more content and skills development related to:a. Therapeutic communication with patients.
b. Effective communication in the workplace.
c. Increased emphasis on sender-receiver dyads.
d. Generational differences in communication.
Answer:
The correct answer is option N
b. Effective communication in the workplace.
Explanation:
I believe effective communication between the nurses, patients and their families is of Paramount importance and forms part of the healing process. Unfortunate, enough emphasis is not always placed on this and is often overlooked. So on designing a new curriculum, we should put more focus on that as well.
A dog presents for his first day of heartworm treatment. He tested positive for heartworms last week, and the infection was confirmed by chest radiographs and finding microfilariae in his blood. Which drug will this dog receive for killing the heartworms?
Answer:
Melarsomine.
Explanation:
The dog heartworm is the parasitic worm that causes dirofilariasis in dogs. This infection can spread from one host to the other host by the mosquito biting.
Melarsomine is the drug used to kill these heartworm. This drug is applicable in case of early infections only. The late infectious stage are resistant to this drug and cause harmful side effects in cats and dogs.
Thus, the answer is melarsomine.
Although Frankie realizes his behavior is unreasonable, he is so distraught by high bridges that he avoids them; as a result, he must take an unnecessarily lengthy route to and from work each day. Frankie appears to suffer from a(n) _____.
Answer:
Frankie appears to suffer from a Gephyrophobia
Explanation:
A phobia is a extreme and unexplicable fear or terror to something in specific, it also knownw as an anxiety disorder. Gephyrophobia is a type of phobia among others, and is the specific fear to be near brides. This specific phobias can really affect a person's daily activities.
For instance, in Frankie's case, he has to take unnecessary routs, that take longer, in order to avoid facing his fear. Since this anxiety casuses physical syntoms, people try to avoid confronting them.
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________.A) sleep disturbancesB) loss of body temperature controlC) dehydrationD) loss of fine motor control
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT loss of fine motor control. That is option D.
Effects of injury to the hypothalamusThe central nervous system is made up of the brain and the spinal cord.
The hypothalamus is the main part of the brain along side with the Cerebral cortex, Cerebellum, Thalamus, Pituitary gland and Pineal gland.
The hypothalamus is responsible to control
sleepbody temperature DehydrationFine motor control is carried out by the Cerebellum part of the brain.
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Injury to the hypothalamus may result in sleep disturbances, loss of body temperature control, and dehydration, but not in loss of fine motor control.
Explanation:Injury to the hypothalamus may result in sleep disturbances, loss of body temperature control, and dehydration. However, it does not typically result in loss of fine motor control. The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions and maintaining homeostasis, including controlling sleep patterns, body temperature, and fluid balance. It also helps to regulate hormone production and release.
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Which of the following strategies would be most appropriate for a client who has been working on incorporating physical activity into his lifestyle and has made it to the maintenance stage of behavior change?
a. Plan for potential lapses
b. Reiterate the long-term benefits of adherence
c. Explain and personalize the inherent risks of physical activity
d. Help the client identify social support
Answer:
The answer is letter b, “Reiterate the long-term benefits of adherence.”
Explanation:
Incorporating Physical Activity – This means increasing the amount of physical activity that you do every day. Some ways of increasing physical activity are as follows:
Walk to your office instead of driving a car.
Doing some stretches in the morning and in the evening.
Behavior Change – This is the process that a person experiences in order to change his behavior for the better. It consists of 6 stages namely:
1. Pre-contemplation stage –This is the stage of denial. The person doesn’t see any reason why he needs to change.
2. Contemplation stage- The person acknowledges his behavioral problem and tries to weigh the pros and cons of changing.
3. Preparation stage- The person now understands how beneficial change is. He starts planning to start acting.
4. Action stage- This is the time they modify their behavior. For example, the person who used to consume a lot of alcohol, stops drinking.
5. Maintenance stage- The person can now overcome his former behavior but still needs to be careful of temptations in order to avoid relapse.
6. Relapse- It is common for a person to fall back to the patterns of old behavior.
As stated above, the client has already been working on incorporating physical activity into his daily life (this is the action stage). Then, he was able to make it to the maintenance stage. It is important to tell him to stick to his good behavior change and remind him over again about its benefits, for he might fall into relapse. So, the best strategy in this case is letter b.
An injury to the occipital lobe will likely impair the function of the _____.
Answer:
primary visual cortex
Explanation:
The occipital lobes are the center of our visual perception system. They are not particularly vunerable to injury due to their location in the back of the brain, although any significant trauma to the brain could produce subtle changes to our visual-perceptual system, which cause defects and scotomas of the field of vision.
Mr. Hector Joules presents to the office today for swelling in his right testicle. The swelling has been present for the past month. He reports orchialgia, described as a dull ache in the testicle. He also has had a feeling of heaviness in his abdomen. He hasn’t had any recent injury to the area. He denies risky sexual behavior, urethrorrhea, dysuria, nocturia, polyuria.Which symptom is exhibited by Mr. Joules?
Answer:
The symptom is pain in the testicles.
Explanation:
The symptom is orchitis which means swelling of a testicle associated with pain. Sometimes you can also get the pain in the abdomen. There are many causes other than injury or sexual behavior; Infection might also be a major cause to the symptom among many other causes.
Hey! How are you? My name is Maria, 19 years old. Yesterday broke up with a guy, looking for casual sex.
Write me here and I will give you my phone number - *pofsex.com*
My nickname - Lovely
Cleaning dirty needles prior to use helps prevent the spread of HIV. When using bleach, the user must rinse out all the blood first and then fill the needle and syringe with full-strength bleach three times for 10 to 20 seconds. True or False?
Answer:
False, it is preferable to use disposable needles since AIDS is a permanent disease and that is spread through the contact of blood without ebargo, the needles can be sterilized in the following way since it is not feasible to clean them with chlorine for 10 to 15 seconds. It is advisable
The best way to do this is to "BOIL IT IN WATER FOR 15 MINUTES".
Other ways, such as burning the tip with a lighter or disinfecting with alcohol, iodine ... are very little recommended. The worst is to burn the tip of the needle with a lighter, because the soot tip gets dirty and then we will introduce it under the skin with the risk of infection.
30 years ago the needles and injection syringes were boiled with water with a small metal box. A flame with alcohol was used that burned and heated a little water until it was boiled.
Mrs. Beasley wanted to know how much time Michael talks when he should be working on his class worksheet. Mrs. Beasley recorded four separate duration events of 5 minutes, 7 minutes, 5 minutes, and 6 minutes in the same observation period. What is the average duration of Michael's behavior?
Answer:
The average time Michael spends talking instead of working on his class worsheet is 5.75, this means nearly 6 minutes.
Explanation:
In this case to obtain an average you should add all the minutes that Mrs. Beasly recorded, and then divide the result of the addition by four, wich is the number of separete duration she toke.
The calculations should be:
5+7+5+6= 5,75
5,75/4= 5,75
An other way to say average is media.
Joe is complaining of blurred vision. A visual screening reveals that his eyes have cloudy areas on the lenses that are preventing light from passing through. Joe's diagnosis is likely __________.
Answer:
cataracts
Explanation:
Chelsea is in the hospital after injuring her knee in a bike accident. During a visit, her sister shows her the newest photos of the family dog, her niece and nephew, her little brother dressed for Halloween, and her parents. While looking at the photos Chelsea hardly notices her postsurgical pain. The reduced pain results from activation of the:
Answer:
serotonin.
Explanation:
Her feelings of love, trust and warmth in her overruled the pain due to her surgery. So her brain focused on that, instead of the post-surgical pain, so the focus was on the positive emotion. Researchers also claim that Serotonin has been known for a long time that it can help successfully in reducing pain.
The latissimus dorsi inserts __________. The latissimus dorsi inserts __________. on the lesser tubercle of the humerus on the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus on the intertubercular groove of the humerus on the greater tubercle of the humerus
Answer:
The latissimus dorsi inserts on the intertubercular groove of the humerus.
Explanation:
The human body is a perfect machine, made of a base that is the skeleton, a wide range of muscle groups, organs and many other components. Every muscle in our body is perfectly assembled in order to perform a given function and the correct position of the latissimus dorsi is the one mentioned above.
The latissimus dorsi is a large muscle in the back that inserts on the intertubercular groove of the humerus. It helps in various shoulder and arm movements, including extension, adduction, flexion and medial rotation.
Explanation:The latissimus dorsi is a broad, flat muscle on the back that covers most of the posterior aspect of the trunk and the lower half of the back. It is a large muscle that inserts on the intertubercular groove of the humerus. This is a narrow groove located between the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus. The latissimus dorsi is responsible for extension, adduction, transverse extension also known as horizontal abduction, flexion from an extended position, and (medial) internal rotation of the shoulder joint. It also has a synergistic role in extension and lateral flexion of the lumbar spine.
For example, during activities such as swimming and rowing, the latissimus dorsi pulls on the humerus and creates a powerful stroke. Practicing these sports or exercises can, in turn, lead to a greater development of the latissimus dorsi.
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Helena believes that people with psychological disorders are suffering from diseases that have physical causes that can be diagnosed, treated, and sometimes even cured. Helena believes in the _____ model of psychological disorders.
Answer:
medical
Explanation:
The medical model in the field of mental health, that is, psychiatry and its biological approach to disease, sustains and attempts to show that people with emotional or psychological difficulties are "mentally ill." According to these premises, psychiatry as a medical guidance discipline has defined a series of human problems as objects of mental health, according to the use of diagnoses of mental disorders and pharmacological treatments.
However, since the sixties and the antipsychiatry movement, until today based on the work of various groups of alternatives to psychiatry together with critically oriented university researchers and academics - important questions of credibility, legitimacy have continued to be developed and scientific authority of psychiatry.
The medical model is based on three main assumptions:
1) It presupposes an organic substrate, more or less relevant, in mental disorders.
2) It gives great importance to the diagnosis and classification of the disorders in order to be able to predict the course of the disease and the appropriate treatment.
3) Emphasizes the explanation rather than the compression of mental disorders.
Most mechanical processing of food occurs in the _____. Most mechanical processing of food occurs in the _____. oral cavity and stomach oral cavity and small intestine stomach and small intestine small intestine and large intestine
Answer:
Oral cavity and stomach
Explanation:
Digestion is one of many different processes the human body carries out on a daily basis. The mechanical processing of food occurs in the oral cavity and stomach since it is there where the chewing process takes place, the teeth, tongue, and saliva help to break the food into smaller pieces, the rest of the process which is chemical starts later on.
Most mechanical processing of food occurs in the oral cavity and stomach, where food is physically broken down and mixed with digestive juices. It also occurs in the small intestine through localized contractions called segmentation, which helps with absorption and further digestion.
Explanation:The most mechanical processing of food occurs in the oral cavity and stomach. Mechanical digestion begins in the oral cavity where the food is physically broken down by the teeth, and saliva moistens the food and begins chemical digestion. The tongue then helps to move the food to the stomach. In the stomach, the food is further broken down by churning and mixing with digestive juices, creating chyme.
After the stomach, the mechanical processing of food continues in the small intestine. The circular muscle of the small intestine performs localized contractions called segmentation, which mixes and breaks up the food with digestive juices. This helps facilitate absorption and further digestion.
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You are counseling a pregnant woman who is experiencing "morning sickness." To alleviate this condition you tell her to: sip juice or coffee when nauseated. nibble on soda crackers or dry toast. try drinking beverages between meals only. a and b b and c
Answer:
To alleviate this condition you tell her to: b)nibble on soda crackers or dry toast and c) try drinking beverages between meals only.
Explanation:
It is recommended during pregancy that a women knows what types of food cause more nausea, in order to avoid them. Coffee for instance is not good, it doesn't help with the symptoms so should be avoid.
Crackers are easy to digest thats is why they are good. Drinking water bit by bit between meals, and not big ones during a meal is also adviced.
What health advantage does cystic fibrosis confer on the person who has it? a. Decreased risk for anemia b. Decreased risk for tuberculosis c. Decreased risk for type 1 diabetes mellitus d. Decreased risk for typhoid
Answer:
d. Decreased risk for typhoid.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis confers the advantage of decreased risk for typhoid. The reason for this low risk is that the typhi bacteria, which is responsible for typhoid fever, affects the body through intestinal absorption. In the case of people with cystic fibrosis, typhi bacterias do not enter the intestinal cells.
The nine basic training principles are specificity, overload, progression, recovery, variation, transfer, balance, individualization, and reversibility. How can the basic training principles influence the type of location that you choose? Select at least three of nine training principles to write about.
The basic training principles like the principle of specificity, transfer, and balance will influence the type of location that one chooses.
Explanation:
The principle of specificity defines and targets the specific part or location of the body where a person chooses to train a particular skill. This principle targets both the specific location and the specific skill to be developed.
Principle of transfer which is closely associated with specificity relates to transferring the areas of skill to another part with another skill development. This is done for improvisation of training.
Principle of balance, an integral part of specificity, transfer and progression, balances out the individual and combination of exercises in the fitness training program to achieve positive results and also maintaining the overall health of the body.
The basic training principles of specificity, overload, and progression can significantly influence the type of location chosen for training.
1. Specificity: The principle of specificity states that the training should be relevant to the desired outcome. For instance, if the goal is to improve performance in a particular sport, the training location should facilitate the practice of movements and skills specific to that sport. For example, a swimmer would benefit from training in a pool with similar dimensions to competition pools, while a runner would need access to tracks or varied terrain that mimics their race conditions.
2. Overload: The overload principle involves placing greater-than-normal demands on the body to induce physiological changes. The chosen location must allow for the necessary equipment and space to safely increase the intensity, duration, or frequency of workouts. A well-equipped gym with a variety of weights and resistance machines would be ideal for strength training, whereas a large open field would be suitable for high-intensity interval training (HIIT) or plyometrics.
3. Progression: The principle of progression dictates that the training program should gradually increase in difficulty over time to continue challenging the body and produce improvements. A location that offers a range of options for scaling up the training stimulus is crucial. This could mean a facility with various cardiovascular machines for incremental increases in endurance training or a martial arts studio with different levels of classes to accommodate advancement in skill and intensity.
In summary, when selecting a training location, it is essential to consider how the environment will support the application of specificity, overload, and progression principles. The location should not only cater to the immediate needs of the training program but also allow for adaptations and growth as the individual progresses towards their fitness or performance goals.
"In the healthcare sector, what is the term for a group of individual entities, such as individual persons, employers, or associations, whose healthcare costs are combined for evaluating financial history and estimating future costs?"
Answer:
The term for a group of individual entities whose healthcare costs are combined for evaluating financial history and estimating future costs is risk pool.
Explanation:
Risk pool refers to the risks that a group of individual entities may experience, which are financially unbearable for the company, person or healthcare sector, therefore they are transferred to an insurance company, that can handle these situations. In the healthcare sector, medical history, and previous expenditures are taken into account to evaluate future costs and risks.
Final answer:
In healthcare, risk pooling refers to the practice of grouping individuals or entities to estimate future healthcare costs and financial needs, aiding in the control of health insurance costs.
Explanation:
In the healthcare sector, the process of combining individual entities like persons, employers, or associations to evaluate financial history and estimate future costs is known as risk pooling. This concept is fundamental to the practice of health insurance, which mitigates the risk of incurring personal medical expenses by spreading the risk among a group of insured individuals. Premiums or payroll taxes collected from the members of the risk pool finance the health care benefits outlined in insurance agreements, which are administered by central organizations like government agencies, private businesses, or non-profit organizations.
The objective in creating a risk pool is to ensure that the health insurance costs remain manageable for each participant. In the context of managed care programs such as Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs), this is particularly important as they aim to control costs through preventive care and the efficient allocation of resources. Furthermore, participation in HMOs involves providers being reimbursed on a per-patient basis and is linked to the imperative of managing health resources effectively.
Since individuals within a risk pool are likely to demand varying levels of healthcare services, an insurer uses risk pooling as a strategy to balance the costs. This concept becomes critical to prevent what's known as adverse selection in insurance markets, where there's a discrepancy between what the insurance buyer and the insurance company know about the associated risks, potentially leading to financial imbalances for the insurer.
You are working in the free clinic when Father X comes in. You know him well; he is a type 2 diabetic who keeps his sugar under control with diet and exercise but is often in the clinic with homeless patients from the shelter he runs in the Episcopalian church down the block.
On this visit, Father X has brought in a thin man in his twenties named Joe. Joe appears confused and lethargic. He is breathing heavily and has a strong fruity odor. Father X tells you he is concerned about Joe because last night Joe was up every half-hour or so to use the bathroom and get water. Father X knows these are signs of diabetes, so he wants to get Joe checked out. He also tells you that Joe has not been drinking; they have a breathalyzer at the shelter, and Joe tested clean when he checked in the night before.
Joe's blood pressure is a little low at 95/60 mm Hg and his heart rate is a little high at 96 bpm. When you take his pulse, you notice that his skin is dry and "tents" up when pinched − a sign of dehydration. His respirations are more rapid than normal, 25 breaths/min, and heavy. His blood glucose is elevated at 320 mg/dL. His urine also contains glucose, and has a lower pH than normal. When you take his history he tells you that type 1 diabetes runs in his family.
Many of Joe's signs and symptoms can be related to the loss of glucose in his urine. Normally, urine does not contain glucose. When plasma glucose levels are elevated, however, some of the glucose from the plasma passes into the urine. Apply the principle of osmosis to explain why Joe was getting up all night to use the bathroom and why he has low blood pressure and signs of dehydration.
Choose the most accurate explanation for Joe's problem.
A. The frequent urination is happening because the urine contains a large volume of glucose. The loss of glucose from his plasma has decreased his blood volume.
B. The frequent urination is happening as part of a feedback loop to regulate his blood volume. It does not have anything to do with his plasma glucose.
C. The frequent urination is happening because his kidneys have stopped working. The kidney failure leads to low blood pressure.
D. The frequent urination is happening because when glucose moved into his urine, water also followed it. This removed water from his plasma, decreasing his blood volume and dehydrating him.
Answer:
D. The frequent urination is happening because when glucose moved into his urine, water also followed it. This removed water from his plasma, decreasing his blood volume and dehydrating him.
Explanation:
Joe has diabetes mellitus, to regulate the high levels of glucose in the blood the body has to eliminate the excess of glucose through urine. To move the glucose to the urine, water has to move with the glucose. When this happens, the water in the blood decreases causing dehydration, that is why Joe is so thirsty, with dry skin, low pressure and presents the rest of the symptoms mentioned.
Alex has been unable to accept his father's death. He thinks about his father every day, to the extent that he is unable to concentrate on his work or home life. Which term describes the type of grief Alex is experiencing?
Answer:
Complicated grief.
Explanation:
There are a few kinds of grieving: yearning-searching, hormonal grief, shock-numbness, complicated grief and disorganization-despair. Alex is going through complicated grieving and I'm going to focus on that. Almost every person loses a loved one and it's the darkest time of one's life. As the time passes by, a person feels better and relieved. Some people don't feel better and the feeling of loss does not improve over time. In this condition, pain, emotions and grief last longer and are very severe, so it blocks a person from moving on with their own life. Some of the symptoms: sorrow and pain over loss of our loved one, not being able to focus on anything but their death, problems with dealing with the fact that they're gone, numbness, bitterness, wishing we were dead too, etc. This condition usually occurs in people who lost a loved one under very complex and heavy circumstances, like: suici*e, ra*e, car-crash, murd*r, etc.
If a label claims a food is a "good source of" fiber". It means to say that
Answer:
It has the daily value of fiber in each serving
Explanation:
(A) Educational level has little effect on one’s health status,
a) true
b) false
(B) access to nutritious food, safe housing, reliable transportation, clean environment and culturally sensitive health care providers influence health status.
a) true
b) false
The answers for the given questions are True and True respectively.
Explanation:
Educational level has little effect on one's health status. This statement is true because one's educational level has nothing to do with the health status of a person. If a person is healthy, it does not matter, he is educated of uneducated. Similarly if a person has a lot of ailments, then his education level cannot do anything to cure it.
Access to nutritious food, safe housing, reliable transportation, clean environment and culturally sensitive health care providers influence health status. This statement is true, because a person's health is truly dependent upon what he eats, what nutrients he gets, how clean is his environment and how his health care facilities are helping him in maintaining his health. These factors have direct impact on the person's health status.
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At age 65 and older, the death rate from unintentional injuries is __________." at an all-time low at an all-time high about the same as in middle adulthood about half as great as in adolescence
Answer:
At age 65 and older, the death rate from unintentional injuries is at an all-time high."
Explanation:
From the age of 65 the rate of death that a person has is at all times high due to a variety of facts: The body does not work as well as it should, there is a high risk of catching viruses, that can be lethal because the body does not work effectively, there is a high possibility of having an accident such as falling or disorientation that can be risky, etc. In other words, the body is weaker and more vulnerable.
At age 65 and older, the death rate from unintentional injuries is about half as great as in adolescence.
Explanation:At age 65 and older, the death rate from unintentional injuries is about half as great as in adolescence. This means that the death rate for older adults from unintentional injuries is lower compared to the death rate for adolescents. Older adults may have developed better safety habits and are more cautious, reducing their risk of unintentional injuries.
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A patient's assessment findings include dizziness, shortness of breath, heart palpitations, and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). The nurse obtains a prescription for adenosine. Which statement is true about the medication?a. It is given as an intravenous push (IVP) over one to two minutes.b. It must be given through a central venous access device (CVAD).c. The medication decreases conduction through the AV node.d. Its half-life is 10 minutes.
Answer:
The answer is letter C. That is the true stament.
Explanation:
c. The medication decreases conduction through the AV node.
Because Adenosine stops PSVT by slowing the conduction through AV node. A brief period of asystole is normal. Adenosine is given to the patient as an IVP over one to two seconds and then immediately followed by a fast 20ml normal saline flush. It might be given through a peripheral IV, but the site should be as close to the heart as possible because of its short half-life, around 10 seconds.
Injuries to tissues of the body can be caused by forces whose magnitudes are within the limits that the tissue can tolerate if they are applied repeatedly over a long period of time. True or False?
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The given statement is a true statement. That the Injuries to tissues of the body can be caused by forces whose magnitudes are within the limits that the tissue can tolerate if they are applied repeatedly over a long period of time.