Answer:
1. commensalism ( A )
2. mutualism ( C )
3. Parasitism ( B )
4. amensalism ( D )
Explanation:
Mutualism ; in this kind of relationship both parties benefit.
commensalism ; in this kind of relationship on party benefits without causing harm or damage to the other.
Parasitism ; Only one party benefits here by inflicting damages on the other.
amensalism ; a relationship between two different organisms in which one inhibits or destroy the other without been affected.
Answer:
1. commensalism "Aerobic bacteria in the human colon consume oxygen, making it possible for anaerobic species to survive"
2. mutualism "Flagellates live in the gut of termites, feeding on the wood consumed by the termite and allowing the termite access to nutrition and energy in wood that they could not otherwise digest"
3. parasitism "A helminth takes up residence in a human digestive tract, consuming nutrients"
4. amensalism "A mold produces a chemical that kills bacteria without apparently benefiting"
Explanation:
1. commensalism: one species benefits while the other species neither benefit nor prejudiced
2. mutualism: two species benefit
3. parasitism: one species benefits while the other species is prejudiced
4. amensalism: one species is unaffected while the other species is prejudiced
How does the ocean environment affect where ocean organisms live?
Are euglena unicellular or multicellular?
Answer: unicellular
Explanation: Euglena are unicellular organisms classified into the Kingdom Protista, and the Phylum Euglenophyta. All euglena have chloroplasts and can make their own food by photosynthesis.
I really hope this helps!
Euglena are unicellular organisms that are known for their flexibility and unique capability to behave like both plants and animals. They move towards light for photosynthesis but can also absorb nutrients in the absence of light. Their flexibility is due to a protein structure known as a pellicle.
Explanation:The Euglena is a type of organism classified under the Euglenozoans group. It is a unicellular organism that exhibits traits of both plants and animals. Common in many aquatic environments, Euglena have been known for their ability to move towards light due to a primitive ocular organ known as an eyespot. Additionally, they possess chloroplasts for photosynthesis, enabling them to be photosynthetic when light is present. However, in the absence of light, they can also absorb organic nutrients from their environments.
The Euglena, being unicellular, belongs to the domain of Eukarya which includes all unicellular and multicellular organisms with cells that contain membrane-bound nuclei and organelles. The flexible nature of Euglena is attributed to a tough pellicle composed of protein bands attached to the cytoskeleton. These protein bands spiral around the cell giving it a unique flexibility and structure.
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In Arabidopsis thaliana, the flowering locus C (FLC) gene codes for a regulatory protein that suppresses flowering. FLC is expressed in seedlings to prevent premature flowering. In mature plants, FLC expression decreases with cooler temperatures, and flowering occurs once sufficiently cool temperatures are reached.
If small interfering RNA (siRNA) that is complementary to FLC mRNA is introduced, how would RNA interference (RNAi) affect flowering?
a. RNAi is found in prokaryotes and would not affect Arabidopsis.
b. RNAi would bind irreversibly to FLC mRNA and stimulate flowering.
c. RNAi would degrade FLC mRNA and repress flowering.
d. RNAi would degrade FLC mRNA and stimulate flowering.
e. RNAi would induce methylation of chromatin and repress flowering.
Answer:
In Arabidopsis thaliana, the flowering locus C (FLC) gene codes for a regulatory protein that suppresses flowering. FLC is expressed in seedlings to prevent premature flowering. In mature plants, FLC expression decreases with cooler temperatures, and flowering occurs once sufficiently cool temperatures are reached.
If small interfering RNA (siRNA) that is complementary to FLC mRNA is introduced, how would RNA interference (RNAi) affect flowering?
D- RNAi would degrade FLC mRNA and stimulate flowering.
Explanation:
Arabidopsis thaliana is a small flowering plant native to Eurasia (the old continent) and Africa. This plant has a small genome that is diploid. This is why it is useful and easier for genetic mapping and sequencing. It is commonly used for understanding the molecular biology of some plant traits, maybe due to the fact that it was the first plant to have its genome sequenced.
One type of chicken has three different types of feather: white, speckled (spotted black and white) and black. A speckled chicken is mated with a black chicken. If 8 chicks are born, how many would be speckled?
A)8
B)4
C)6
D)2
I'm going to use the letter W for this
Going by the question, white is the dominant trait.
WW = white
Ww = speckled
ww = black
4 chickens would be speckled because 50% of the punnet square is Ww
Which type of selection allows for the middle phenotypes to have increased fitness
Answer:
Stabilizing Selection
Explanation:
There are 3 types of selection: directional, stabilizing, and disruptive.
Directional selection means that the animal slowly evolves from one extreme phenotype to the other extreme. For example, in horses, a horse could evolve from very weakling into a super strong and fast one.
Stabilizing selection means that the middle phenotype is chosen over the two extremes. For example, in babies, a too-low or a too-high birth weight are both bad, so a middle-weight is preferred.
Disruptive selection means the two extremes are chosen. For example, if there is a population of mice living in an area of sand and grasslands, the light colored mice can blend in with the sand, while the dark colored mice can blend in with the grass. However, the middle-colored mice cannot.
The only one that matches here is stabilizing.
Hope this helps!
Long-chain fatty acids have an alkyl chain of more than 10 carbon atoms. Fatty acids with alkyl chains of this length are characterized as ____ in terms of polarity and ___ in terms of size. This length decreases their ability to cross the lipid bilayer of the mitochondrial membrane. As a result, such fatty acids are activated in the cytoplasm by ___ . However, the resulting molecule, fatty acyl-CoA, is still too ____ to cross the membrane. Therefore, a protein system involving carnitine is required for this transport to occur.
This system consists of enzymes ___ (located in the outer mitochondrial membrane) and ____ (located in the inner mitochondrial membrane), which are responsible for the conjugation of the fatty acyl-CoA with carnitine and the delivery of the resulting molecule into the ____ .
The purpose of such a mechanism is that the carnitine molecule is ____ in size compared to coenzyme A but is classified as ____ , which gives it the ability to pass the lipid bilayer. When a fatty acyl group is transferred to carnitine, the conjugate molecule passes into the intermembrane space via the pores in the outer mitochondrial membrane and the inner membrane is crossed with the help of _____ .
Answer:
The answers of blanks are:
---Non-polar
---Large
---Acyl-coA synthetase
---Large
---CPT I
---CPT II
---Mitochondrial matrix
---Small
---polar
---Translocase
Explanation:
Filling up he blanks, we have;
Long-chain fatty acids have an alkyl chain of more than 10 carbon atoms. Fatty acids with alkyl chains of this length are characterized as nonpolar in terms of polarity and large in terms of size. This length decreases their ability to cross the lipid bilayer of the mitochondrial membrane. As a result, such fatty acids are activated in the cytoplasm by acyl CoA synthetase. However, the resulting molecule, fatty acyl-CoA, is still too large to cross the membrane. Therefore, a protein system involving carnitine is required for this transport to occur.
This system consists of enzymes CPT I (located in the outer mitochondrial membrane) and CPT II (located in the inner mitochondrial membrane), which are responsible for the conjugation of the fatty acyl-CoA with carnitine and the delivery of the resulting molecule into the mitochondrial matrix .
The purpose of such a mechanism is that the carnitine molecule is small in size compared to coenzyme A but is classified as polar , which gives it the ability to pass the lipid bilayer. When a fatty acyl group is transferred to carnitine, the conjugate molecule passes into the intermembrane space via the pores in the outer mitochondrial membrane and the inner membrane is crossed with the help of translocase .
Answer: simultaneously the answers includes: nonpolar, large, acyl coa synthetase, large,CPT1,CPT2,mitochondrial matrix,small, polar,translocase.
Explanation:
Long-chain fatty acids have an alkyl chain of more than 10 carbon atoms. Fatty acids with alkyl chains of this length are characterized as NONPOLAR in terms of polarity and LARGE in terms of size. This length decreases their ability to cross the lipid bilayer of the mitochondrial membrane. As a result, such fatty acids are activated in the cytoplasm by ACYL COA SYNTHETASE . However, the resulting molecule, fatty acyl-CoA, is still too LARGE to cross the membrane. Therefore, a protein system involving carnitine is required for this transport to occur.
This system consists of enzymes CARNITINE PALMITOYLTRANSFERASE 1 (located in the outer mitochondrial membrane) and CARNITINE PALMITOYLTRANSFERASE 2 (located in the inner mitochondrial membrane), which are responsible for the conjugation of the fatty acyl-CoA with carnitine and the delivery of the resulting molecule into the MITOCHONDRIAL MATRIX.
The purpose of such a mechanism is that the carnitine molecule is SMALL in size compared to coenzyme A but is classified as POLAR , which gives it the ability to pass the lipid bilayer. When a fatty acyl group is transferred to carnitine, the conjugate molecule passes into the intermembrane space via the pores in the outer mitochondrial membrane and the inner membrane is crossed with the help of TRANSLOCASE .
Lysosomes are considered to be part of the endomembrane system because they ________. Lysosomes are considered to be part of the endomembrane system because they ________. deposit end-products of digestion in the endoplasmic reticulum are composed largely of phospholipids facilitate movement between stacks of the Golgi are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and proces
Answer:
Lysosomes are considered to be part of the endomembrane system because they are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and processed by the Golgi
Explanation:
Lysosomes are organelles whose function is the digestion of macromolecules, they contains hydrolytic enzymes and membrane proteins
Which kingdoms contain organisms that are multicellular?
Answer:
Animal
Explanation:
Answer:
Animalia and Plantae
Explanation:
Mltochondria are the
of the cell.
Answer:
powerhouse
Explanation:
The mitochondria are organelles located in the cell and play a crucial role in cell respiration where they produce ATP. ATP is basically the cell's energy source, so mitochondria is commonly known as the powerhouses of the cell because they produce this energy.
Hope this helps!
Explanation:
Powerhouse is your answer :)
The body uses non-specific immune responses as the first line of defense when we are exposed to pathogenic or disease causing organisms. Which of the following factors is a nonspecific response?
A. Antibodies are produced after an infection.
B. Bacterial cell surface proteins start a response.
C. Unbroken skin provides a physical barrier.
D. Vaccine injections will imitate viral exposure.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
A nonspecific response is a defense you are born with. You were born with unbroken skin to be a physical barrier.
Final answer:
The correct answer to the question about which factor is a nonspecific immune response is that unbroken skin provides a physical barrier, which is part of the innate immune system and acts non-specifically to block pathogens. So the correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
The non-specific immune response is the first defense mechanism of the body against pathogenic organisms. This response is innate and does not target specific pathogens. Instead, it includes physical and chemical barriers like skin and mucous membranes, as well as leukocytes that phagocytize pathogens and other general responses to prevent infections from establishing themselves in the body.
Considering the provided options, the correct answer to the question 'Which of the following factors is a nonspecific response?' is C. Unbroken skin provides a physical barrier. This is because unbroken skin is a part of the innate immune system, acting instantaneously to block the entry of a broad range of pathogens without specificity towards any particular type of pathogen. In contrast, the production of antibodies and the specific immune response involving B and T cells are tailored to specific pathogens and are thus specific, not nonspecific, immune responses.
Professor Owen made an astute observation: In outbred cattle, dizygotic twins that share the same placenta occur occasionally. Indeed, if one examines peripheral blood samples from such twin pairs, each has blood cells derived from the other, indicating shared circulatory systems in utero. Surprisingly, even though they are not genetically identical, they accept tissue grafts from one another.
(a) In as much as these are dizygotic twins and thus are not genetically identical, does their mutual graft acceptance violate the "isografts succeed, allografts fail" rule?
(b) What does this experiment tell you about the underlying mechanism of that last property of the immune system - non-responsiveness to "self?"
Answer:
When talking about dizygotic and not monozygotic twins, they share the uterus, but they do not share the bag, nor the nutritional sources nor the placenta, if they can share the same amniotic sac depending on how far one ovum separated from another.
Thus, being two different ovules and fertilized by two different sperm (unlike homozygotes, which is an ovum fertilized by a sperm that divides into two and share the same development medium) they present the same genetic load but not the expression of this or the same phenotype since they develop in two different environments, this was raised in certain investigations and it was presented that even the different location that they present in the uterus can influence the different phenotypic manifestations of the genome.
There are studies that maintain that immunosuppressive treatments in grafts between monozygotic twins do not make sense and should not be done since it was experimented in certain cases and the patients had no problem of rejection in allografts, since it is argued that they have the same genotype and this genotype. It is usually expressed in the same way, therefore it is rare that the immune receptors and the immune response differ and consider something foreign to a tissue that presents histocompatibility almost 100 percent.
In contrast, in dizygotes it is different, allografts are made but under protocol immunoregulatory treatments that prevent rejection of the allogeneic implant or graft. Thus, certain researchers argue that having developed other phenotypes between twins, this causes the histocompatibility complex to express itself differently and thus the immune response does not recognize it as its own.
Explanation:
With the wording then we can conclude that the dizygotic twins corrupt the myth that transplants of tissues or organs can be performed without immunomodulatory treatment, if or if drugs must be administered to avoid rejection of said tissue or organ.
After several generations of labeling cells in 15N media, the cells are switched to 14N media for one generation. The DNA extracted after one generation in 14N media was centrifuged in a cesium gradient. The DNA formed a single band with a density somewhere between DNA grown in 15N media and DNA grown in 14N media. This data is consistent with which replication model:
A) conservative replication only
B) conservative and dispersive replication
C) semiconservative replication only
D) dispersive replication only
E) semiconservative and dispersive replication
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
The experiment that was conducted for the labeling of cells in 15 N media and then for a generation in 14N media shows two replication model
One is the semi-conservative model in which a single strand of the DNA acts as the template strand to make new complementary copies of DNA.
The other model is the dispersive replication which shows the hybrid of two DNA. The parental and the daughter cells are both shown in the newly synthesized DNA.
Hence, the correct answer is Option D
The classification of algae in taxonomic groups remains a topic of some debate. The classic approach to classification focused on cell wall composition, storage products, and pigment production. While molecular techniques can be used to confirm the identity of algae, it is helpful for you to be able to recognize distinguishing features of algae as you conduct your survey. Fill in the blank with the appropriate algae group to correctly complete the sentence. Reset Help Phaeophyta Rhodophyta Chlorophyta Chrysophyta 1. Considered the progenitor of land plants, have 18S rRNA sequences comparable to plants 2 are utilized commercially to produce carrageenan and can photosynthesize at depths greater than 10 meters 3. Described as "hairy" in appearance produce alginic acid, which can be used as a thickening agent. 4. The is a diverse group that includes the diatoms, a major component of phytoplankton.
Answer:Phaeophyta--Described as "hairy" in appearance produce alginic acid, which can be used as a thickening agent.
Rhodophyta ;are utilized commercially to produce carrageenan and can photosynthesize at depths greater than 10 meters
Chlorophyta;Considered the progenitor of land plants, have 18S rRNA sequences comparable to plants
Chrysophyta;The is a diverse group that includes the diatoms, a major component of phytoplankton
Explanation:algae are a diverse group of organisms with majority of them living in water and a few on land. They are green and contains chlorophyll.they also contains phycobillins pigments.
Chlorophyta are green algae that exist in water habitat an example is Chlamydomanas reinhardi.they have similar structures with higher plants such as chlorophyll, cellulose cell wall and stores food as starch.
The chrysophyta includes diatoms.diatoms have a cell wall composed of pectin and deposits of silica. They may occur in large deposit as diatomaceous earth.
Phaeophyta--are brown algae. An example is sea weed they are found in deeper ocean waters. Sea weed has a thallus which branches into a basal holdfast that aids attachment to rocks.their blade allows the plant to float
Rhodophyta are algae which are sometimes Unicellular in form they have a characteristic red color due to the presence of phycoerythrin along with phycocyanin, chlorophyll.they are used as source of algar for microorganism culture.
Which will occur if humans continue to overload water systems with excess nutrients?
Answer:
Eutrophication.
Explanation:
This is the natural process of excessive enrichment of water with nutrients by which large amount of living organic matter grows in the water.lakes slowly develop large concentration of aquatic life, which eventually decays. Human activities have speeded up this natural process of eutrophication by adding mineral and organic nutrient in larger quantities.
Maria wanted to Gram stain some bacteria growing on cheese she found in the back of her refrigerator. She couldn't find any crystal violet, but did have crystal yellow. An email to her BIO 1510 lab instructor assured her that the two stains had exactly the same properties. She was able to perform the rest of the procedure according to the usual protocol. When she looked at her slide she found two organisms. One was rod-shaped and yellow in color, the other was pink and spherical. What color would the Gram negative bacteria be if she didn't counterstain the slide
Answer:
If mordant isn't utilized the both gram positive and negative cells show up green (if natural green utilized)
Clarification here severe utilized is iodine.after the option of essential stain(crystal violet) when we include iodine,it will respond and frame precious stone violet-iodine complex. We realize that gram positive cells have progressively acidic protoplasm.also peptidoglycan layer of gram positive microorganisms is thick, and these properties make them ready to hold the precious stone violet-iodine complex. Furthermore, after decolonization because of this property gram positive microorganisms won't be de-colorized and hold essential stain(pink).
So if severe isn't included gram positive microorganisms the gem iodine complex won't be framed thus precious stone violet alone can't tie emphatically to peptidoglycan and will be de-colorized and produce shade of counter-stain (sufranine-pink,neutral green-green).
Here gram positive is purple and round.
The table above shows the average amount of sunlight for each month. During which month would the Summer Solstice occur in the Northern Hemisphere?
A. Month 6 because it had an average of 15.2 hours of sunlight.
B. Month 4 because it had an average of 13.32 hours of sunlight.
C. Month 7 because it had an average of 14.93 hours of sunlight.
D. Month 5 because it had an average of 14.52 hours of sunlight.
Answer:
A. Month 6 because it had an average of 15.2 hours of sunlight.
Explanation:
Summer Solstice occurs in June, which is the sixth month of the year. Summer Solstice is the longest day of the year, for the Northern hemisphere this is between the 20, 21 or 22 of June, During one of these days, the Northern hemisphere is more exposed to the sun rays giving more hours of sunlight, which means a longer day.
How many chromosomes in a tail
i might be wrong i would say 5
Which is a secondary disturbance?
O
A. Forest fire
B. Volcanic eruption
O
C. Snow melting
O
D. Tree falling
Forest fire is a secondary disturbance.
What is Secondary disturbance?Secondary succession is a type of ecological succession (the development of a biological community's ecological structure) in which plants and animals recolonize a habitat following a significant disturbance.
Such as a devastating flood, wildfire, landslide, lava flow, or human activity (such as farming or building or road construction), but before the area has become completely lifeless.
The development of a biological community when there was none before is known as primary succession, in contrast to secondary succession.
Therefore, Forest fire is a secondary disturbance.
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Use this information for questions 19-21 Two mice breed. The male is heterozygous for the dominant traits of black fur and active behavior but is homozygous recessive for light eyes. The female mouse is heterozygous for dark eyes, has white fur, and displays lazy behavior. How many types of gametes does the male mouse produce?
Answer:
Four (4)
Explanation:
Assuming the allele for black fur color is represented by B, the alternate will be b.
Assuming the allele for active behavior is A, the alternate will be a.
Assuming the allele for light eyes color is L, the alternate will be l.
A male is heterozygous for the dominant traits of black fur and active behavior but is homozygous recessive for light eyes.
Heterozygous for black fur = Bb
Heterozygous for active behavior = Aa
Homozygous recessive for light eyes = ll
Hence, the genotype of the male is BbAall
Possible gametes:
BAl
Bal
bAl
bal
Hence, 4 types of gametes are produced by the male.
Answer:
The male mouse would produce four possible combinations of gametes in equal proportions which includes: BAd, Bad, bAd and bad.
Explanation:
let B- black fur, A- active behaviour and D-dark eyes
The male mouse is heterozygous for dominant traits of black fur and active behavior but is homozygous recessive for light eyes.
Thus the genotype will be: BbAadd
The female mouse is heterozygous for dark eyes, has white fur, and displays lazy behavior. thus the genotype wil be: bbaaDd
The male mouse would produce four possible combinations of gametes in equal proportions which includes: BAd, Bad, bAd and bad
Despite this innate defense, the invading virus can often establish an infection in epithelial cells. Once the virus has been replicating there for about a week, our ADAPTIVE immune response "learns" to recognize it and mounts a defense. For this part of the question, focus on explaining the TC response. How is it activated, and how is it antiviral? An accompanying sketch should show all the important cell-cell interactions, and label all surface proteins that are required.
Answer:
Adaptive immune is slow response but it is powerful than innate immunity because it is having t cells and B cells.
B and T cells are lymphocytes, or white blood cells, which are able to recognize antigens that distinguish “self” from “other” in the body. B and T cells that recognize “self” antigens are destroyed before they can mature; this helps to prevent the immune system from attacking its own body.cell cell interaction in adaptive immune response by cell it include T helper lymphocytes and T cytotoxic lymphocytes.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction?
The rate of reproduction is too slow.
Large numbers of daughter cells.
Ability to reproduce using only one parent.
Mutation is the only way to vary the genetic pool.
Answer:
mutation have a good day!!!!<333
Explanation:
Greg is breeding leopard geckos and wants to produce a new color morph. He crosses a homozygous red morph with a homozygous white morph and their offspring are white with red spots. Greg is now fabulously wealthy. What type of genetic pattern do these leopard geckos display?
O Pleiotropy
O Incomplete dominance
O Multiple allelism
O Epistasis
O Codominance
Answer:
Codominance
Explanation:
Codominance occurs when two heterozygous allele for a trait is expressed equally in the an organism's phenotype with neither allele being dominant or recessive. In codominance, none of the allele hides the expression of the other allele. So when two alleles are crossed, the offspring carries a combination of the parents phenotype without anyone masking the other.
From the question, the type of genetic pattern of the leopard geckos display is codominance.
An image of a plant growing in a tunnel is shown. Which tropism is best illustrated?
Answer:
Gravitropism i think?
Explanation:
Answer:
Gravitropism
Explanation:
Gravitropism (also known as geotropism) is a coordinated process of differential growth by a plant or fungus in response to gravity pulling on it. Gravity can be either "artificial gravity" or natural gravity. It is a general feature of all higher and many lower plants as well as other organisms.
The liver is the......................
gland in the body.
The liver is the
gland in the body.
The liver is the...................... gland in the body.
Answer: The liver is the largest
gland in the body.
Final answer:
The liver is the largest gland in the human body and has multiple functions in metabolism. It is involved in carbohydrate metabolism by carrying out processes like gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis, and glycogenesis, as well as the breakdown of hormones.
Explanation:
As the largest gland in the body, the liver assumes a pivotal role in maintaining overall metabolic equilibrium. Beyond its sheer size, this vital organ serves a multitude of functions crucial for bodily functions. In the realm of carbohydrate metabolism, the liver orchestrates intricate processes such as gluconeogenesis, the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources; glycogenolysis, the breakdown of glycogen into glucose for immediate energy needs; and glycogenesis, the storage of excess glucose as glycogen for future use.
Moreover, the liver plays a key role in hormonal regulation by breaking down insulin and various other hormones, contributing to the finely tuned orchestration of metabolic activities. This multifaceted involvement in metabolic processes underscores the liver's significance as a dynamic organ essential for maintaining homeostasis and ensuring the seamless functioning of the body's diverse physiological pathways.
Where does most of the water vapor in the atmosphere originate?
Answer:
Most of it comes from the ocean.
Explanation:
the role of a "leader sequence" is to A. directly control transcription. B. determine whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon. C. determine whether RNA polymerase can bind. D. terminate transcription. E. direct the looping of the DNA that prevents transcription initiation.
Answer:
The role of a "leader sequence" is to B. determine whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon.
Explanation:
The "leader sequence" is the 5′ untranslated region (5′ UTR). Its main function is the regulation of translation of a transcript using different mechanisms. They differ depending we are talking about eukaryotes or prokaryotes (more complex). It determines whether transcription can proceed through the genes in the operon. The operon is is a functioning unit of DNA that is made of a cluster of genes under the control of a single promoter.
How does comparing fossils from different areas help scientists?
Answer:
It helps them figure out what was in the area thousands of years ago
1. You are studying an integral membrane protein of the plasma membrane. It has a single transmembrane domain and the N-terminal portion of this protein is extracellular. You decide to perform mutagenesis studies of the stop-transfer sequence, and you mutate all of the valine and isoleucine residues within this sequence to lysine and arginine residues. What do you predict will happen to the transport of this protein and explain why
Answer:
A 22 to 25 amino acid sequence present in the central section of the protein, which gives rise to an alpha helix in the membrane is known as the stop-transfer anchor sequence. The sequence plays an essential function in targeting the protein towards the plasma membrane. On the other hand, it also ceases targeting of the protein towards the endoplasmic reticulum, which was started by the signal peptide.
Thus, the process of translation of the remaining of the protein occurs within the cytosol due to the tethering of the transmembrane domain. In the stop-transfer anchor sequence, the hydrophobic amino acids present are isoleucine and valine. After mutation, these amino acids get converted into arginine and lysine, thus, hydrophilic amino acids replace hydrophobic amino acids in the sequence.
Due to this, the transmembrane domain cannot be targeted towards an integral part of the plasma membrane by the short transfer anchor sequence, and therefore, now the translocation of the protein will take place towards the endoplasmic reticulum as initiated by the signal peptide at the beginning.
Suppose the phloem of a seed plant is damaged and does not function properly.
How will this most directly affect the plant?
a) Water will be released from the leaves.
b) The plant will become rigid.
c) Water will not be taken up by the roots.
d) Food will not be carried away from the leaves.
Answer:
D, Food will not be carried away from the leaves
Answer:
D. Food will not be carried away from the leaves.
Explanation:
The absence of xylem and phloem the water and food transport is very difficult. If by any way the transport is done through its stem then the water and food will get mixed up which obstructs the process as transport of water is in upward direction.
How are mitosis and binary fission similar?
Answer:
The similarity they have is that they both produce two identical cells to each other and to the mother cell, but the mechanism is totally different as binary fission takes place in prokaryotic cells while mitosis takes place in eukaryotic ones
Explanation:
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