Answer:
The real correct answer would be a.
Explanation:
Covalent bonding occurs between Carbon atoms allowing Carbon to form stable molecules.
Single, double, and triple covalent bonding occurs between carbon atom, allowing carbon to form stable molecules. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Covalent bonding?A covalent bond is the bond which consists of the mutual sharing of one or more pairs of electrons between two atoms of same element or different element. These electrons are simultaneously attracted by the two atomic nuclei. A covalent bond forms between two atoms when the difference between the electronegativities of two atoms is too small for an electron transfer to take place to form ions.
Carbon can form up to four covalent bonds. Covalent bonds are the chemical bonds that form between nonmetal atoms. In a covalent bond, two atoms share a pair of electrons between them. By forming four covalent bonds, carbon shares four pairs of electrons with other atoms, thus filling its outer energy level and achieving stability.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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How many cusps are located on the right atrioventricular valve
Answer:
3
Explanation:
these are are located between the right upper atrium and lower right ventricle. These cusps are
1.Anterior
2. Septal
3. Posterior.
Anatomically, the base of each cusp is held firmly or anchored by fibrous structure called CHORDAE TENDINEAE.
Thier functions is to pevent regurgitation of the blood and the wall of the right ventricle into the atrium during ventricular systole; contraction of the ventricle.Therefore they blocked the passage and ensured blood flows into the pulmonary arteries to reach the lungs.
Check the attachments for pictures.
Which of the following researchers are correctly matched with their work?
A.Erwin Chargaff --- Demonstrated the assimilation of external DNA into a cell; mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form
B.Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase ---- Showed that the DNA, but not the protein, entered the bacterial cells, and was therefore concluded to be the genetic materialE.James Watson and Fredrick Crick --- Determined the structure of DNA, an elegant double-helical model
C.Frederick Griffith --- X-ray diffraction of crystallized DNA, suggested helical structure and diameter
D.Rosalind Franklin --- Analysis of the relative base composition of DNA
Answer:
The answer is letter B
Explanation:
B.Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase ---- Showed that the DNA, but not the protein, entered the bacterial cells, and was therefore concluded to be the genetic materialE.James Watson and Fredrick Crick --- Determined the structure of DNA, an elegant double-helical model
Rosalin Franklin - Xray diffraction of crystallized DNA, that is why letter C is incorrect.
Frederic Griffith- Demonstrated the assimilation of external DNA into a cell; mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form, that is why letters A and C are incorrect.
Fatty acids usually have an even number of carbons in their structures. They are catabolized by a process called beta-oxidation. The end products of the metabolic pathway are acetyl groups of acetyl CoA molecules. These acetyl groups _____.
A) directly enter the electron transport chain
B) directly enter the energy-yielding stages of glycolysis
C) are directly decarboxylated by pyruvate dehydrogenase
D) directly enter the citric acid cycle
Answer:
D. Directly enter the citric acid cycle
Explanation:
In biochemistry and metabolism, beta-oxidation is the catabolic process by which fatty acid molecules are broken down in the cytosol in prokaryotes and in the mitochondria in eukaryotes to generate acetyl-CoA, which enters the citric acid cycle, and NADH and FADH2, which are co-enzymes used in the electron transport chain. The NADH and FADH2 produced by both beta oxidation and the TCA cycle are used by the mitochondrial electron transport chain to produce ATP. Complete oxidation of one palmitate molecule (fatty acid containing 16 carbons) generates 129 ATP molecules.
The acetyl groups from the catabolization of fatty acids via beta-oxidation directly enter the citric acid cycle. This is where the acetyl-CoA is further metabolized, contributing to the production of ATP, NADH, and FADH2.
The end products of the metabolic pathway of beta-oxidation in which fatty acids are broken down are acetyl groups of acetyl-CoA molecules. These acetyl groups directly enter the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle). The citric acid cycle is a series of chemical reactions used by all aerobic organisms to generate energy. The acetyl-CoA combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate, which then undergoes a series of reactions releasing energy and producing carbon dioxide, NADH, and FADH2, which are utilized by the electron transport chain.
The process of beta-oxidation of fatty acids takes place within the mitochondria and is a significant contributor to the production of ATP when glucose levels are low. After being catabolized to acetyl-CoA, these molecules can't directly enter the electron transport chain or glycolysis, nor are they immediately decarboxylated by pyruvate dehydrogenase; rather, they proceed to the citric acid cycle for further metabolism.
Which component is missing from the process of cellular respiration? ________ + Oxygen → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy Sunlight Sugar Oxygen Carbon
Answer:
Glucose
Explanation:
Cellular respiration can be defined as the process in which cells convert sugar into energy
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ -------------------> 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + ~38 ATP
Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy Sunlight Sugar Oxygen Carbon
Answer:
Sugar
Explanation:
The range of cattle egrets has expanded between 1937 and today. How would an ecologist likely explain the expansion of the cattle egret?
A) the first egrets to colonize South America evolved into a new species capable of competing with the native species of herons and egrets
B) A habitat left unoccupied by native herons and egrets met the biotic and abiotic requirements of the cattle egret transplants and their descendants
C) There are no predators for cattle egrets in the New World, so they continue to expand their range
A habitat left unoccupied by native herons and egrets met the biotic and abiotic requirements of the cattle egret transplants and their descendants
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The cattle egret was a species of Heron to be first seen in Greater Caribbean Basin. They acquired their name “Cattle egret” as they were found to be co-existing with the grazing cattle and feeding on the insects that come out during grazing and also feed on the ticks present on the cattle’s body.
The cattle egret within a span of few years showed a dramatic increase in its population. This was attributed by their high reproduction rate leading to their extensive population growth. They also do not have any predators devouring them. They also feed on anything and everything to survive be it insects, rodents or small reptiles. They were good flyers and they were also able to get accustomed to their surroundings and reproduce.
Final answer:
An ecologist would attribute the cattle egret's range expansion to the species finding suitable biotic and abiotic conditions in new habitats, the role of human activities in their spread, and possibly the introduction of new genotypes that thrive in different conditions. (Option B)
Explanation:
An ecologist would likely explain the expansion of the cattle egret's range by considering factors such as habitat suitability and the role of human activities in spreading species. Option B describes a situation in which cattle egrets found suitable biotic and abiotic conditions in new areas unoccupied by native herons and egrets, enabling them to establish and expand their population. Human transportation of goods and intentional organism trade have facilitated species introduction into new ecosystems, often providing them with environments lacking natural predators, allowing these species to thrive and spread further.
Moreover, the introduction of new genotypes to an existing population of a species can result in a sudden range expansion if these genotypes are better adapted to the local conditions. This has been seen in cases like the brown anole in Florida or the European green crab, where new genotypes introduced into the population contributed to their successful spread.
Fats in foods a. add taste and contribute to "mouth feel" b. are digested and absorbed in the stomach c. carry water-soluble nutrients d. need to be eliminated to have a healthful diet
Answer:
The correct answer is a. add taste and contribute to "mouth feel".
Explanation:
Fats in foods contribute to mouthfeel, meaning that the mouth literally feels the food coming in. It differs from the taste, but generally has similar effects on the brain.
A viewer closely focused on a complex task, such as being asked to count how many times a group of people threw a ball back and forth, may miss other nonattended stimuli like dancers moving through the group of people due to an attentional phenomenon called____________
Answer:
Inattentional blindness
Explanation:
Inattentional blindness is a phenomenon which occurs as a failure of an individual to take notice of an object or event that is very obvious due to the fact that such objects or event were not expected, rather attention was fully focused elsewhere on another object, task or event. This type of blindness occurs simply as a result of lack of attention of an individual on events, objects or tasks that are not expected, while attention is focused on expected stimuli. It is not as a result of defect in vision. One tends to miss an obvious and clear event, object or task, unless one focused one’s attention on such object.
The mitochondrial electron transport chain a. is the site of most of the reactions of the citric acid cycle. b. synthesizes ATP. c. pumps protons into the mitochondrial matrix during electron transport. d. oxidizes water to O2 and 2 H . e. oxidizes the intermediate electron carriers, NADH and FADH2.
Answer: c pump protons into the mitochondrial matrix during electron transport
Explanation: the movement of electrons from one protein carrier to another of different energy
Levels generated ENERGY. This is the quantity of energy needed to pump protons from the matix of the mitochondrial ithrough the inner intramembrane to the cystosol,to returm back to the matrix for ATP synthsis. Therefore protons concentration gradients build up
Hydrogen ions/protons move down the gradients through the proton channels of rhe ATPase synthase .
The latter extracted energy from the protons as it pass through it to phosphorylate ADP to form ATP.
ADP + Pi === ATP.
Therefore ,the electron transport chain generated energy for proton
Explanation:
Which human body systems are involved in thermoregulation
Final answer:
The integumentary, nervous, and cardiovascular systems collaborate in thermoregulation, with the hypothalamus acting as a body temperature thermostat that initiates responses like sweating and shivering.
Explanation:
The human body systems involved in thermoregulation include the integumentary system, the nervous system, and the cardiovascular system. The integumentary system, which includes the skin, works closely with the sympathetic nervous system to monitor body temperature and initiate motor responses such as sweating. The sweat glands secrete water, salt, and other substances to cool the body when it becomes too warm. The nervous system, particularly the hypothalamus in the brain, acts as a thermostat to regulate body temperature by initiating reflexes for vasodilation, vasoconstriction, shivering, and sweating. The cardiovascular system collaborates with the skin to either lose or conserve body heat through these mechanisms. Additionally, during an infection, pyrogens reset the hypothalamus to a higher temperature to help the body fight off the infection through a fever.
Thermoregulation, the process of maintaining a stable body temperature, involves several human body systems. The integumentary system, which includes the skin and its accessory structures, plays a crucial role in thermoregulation. Through sweat glands, the integumentary system helps to cool the body by secreting sweat that evaporates and dissipates body heat. The nervous system, specifically the hypothalamus, acts as the master switch to regulate body temperature by initiating processes like vasodilation or vasoconstriction, shivering, or sweating. Lastly, the cardiovascular system works with the skin to either lose or conserve body heat through vasodilation or vasoconstriction.
Final answer:
Thermoregulation involves the integumentary system, sympathetic nervous system, and circulatory system. The integumentary system regulates body temperature through sweat production, while the sympathetic nervous system monitors body temperature. The circulatory system helps dissipate heat through blood flow to the skin.
Explanation:
Thermoregulation involves multiple human body systems, including the integumentary system, sympathetic nervous system, and circulatory system. The integumentary system, which consists of the skin, helps regulate body temperature through its association with the sympathetic nervous system. When the body becomes warm, sweat glands are stimulated to produce sweat, which cools the body when it evaporates from the skin surface. The circulatory system also plays a role in thermoregulation by regulating blood flow to the skin, allowing for the dissipation of heat.
During the major response stages of acute radiation syndrome after the prodromal stage, the period when symptoms that affect the hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and cerebrovascular systems become visible, is called
Manifest illness stage is the period when symptoms that affect the hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and cerebrovascular systems become visible during the major response stages of acute radiation syndrome after the prodromal stage.
Explanation:
Acute radiation syndrome (ARS) due to radiation toxicity affects the parenchymal cells of specific tissues. According to the tissue system affected, the ARS typically presents either as bone marrow (hematopoietic), gastrointestinal, or cardiovascular syndrome.
The four major response stages of acute radiation syndrome are – Prodromal, latent, manifest illness, recovery or death.
Although the stage next to prodromal stage is latent stage, the symptoms manifests itself during the manifest illness stage. The manifestation, severity and recovery of symptoms vary with each syndrome.
Symptom manifestation during manifest illness stage
Hematopoeitic ARS – drop in blood cell count, hemorrhage, anorexia, malaise
Gastrointestinal ARS – anorexia, diarrhea, dehydration, fever, electrolyte imbalance
Cardiovascular/central nervous system ARS – convulsions, coma
A 28-year-old presets to the ER reporting severe chest pain that worsens with respirations or lying down. Other signs include a fever, tachycardia, and a friction rub. Assessment findings support which medical diagnosis?A. Acute pericarditis.B. Myocardial infarction (MI).C. Stable angina.D. Pericardial effusion.
Answer:
The answer is letter A
Explanation:
Acute pericarditis. Because this inflamation causes chest pain, pericardial friction rub, fever. It is often associated to viral infecctions , but it may also be caused by other diseases and drug use.
Mark's misuse of alcohol and other addictive drugs is influenced by genetic factors, by the ready availability of drugs in Mark's neighborhood, and by Mark's failure to accurately assess the risks associated with drug usage. An understanding of Mark's difficulties within the framework of multiple levels of analysis is most clearly provided bya. a dual-processing theory.b. the activation-synthesis perspective.c. a biopsychosocial approach.d. the neuroadaptation model.e. the cognitive-behavioral perspective.
Answer:
c. a biopsychosocial approach.
Explanation:
A psychosocial approach is a model of medicine and psychology that studies the cause and evolution of illness, addiction, and disorder considering biological, psychological, and social aspects. It is opposed to the biomedical model, which is centered on disease and restricted to biological factors.
From a biopsychosocial perspective, health and disease are understood as a result not only of the interaction of the biological factors of the individual's organism, but also of the environment in which they live and their social relationships. An example of this can be seen in the question above, where Mark's addiction is explained by the biological and social factors surrounding him.
We would expect the greatest difference in plant health between two groups of plants of the same species, one group with mycorrhizae and one group without mycorrhizae, in an environment _____.
The question is incomplete. The complete question is:
We would expect the greatest difference in plant health between two groups of plants of the same species, one group with mycorrhizae and one group without mycorrhizae, in an environment _____.
A) where nitrogen-fixing bacteria are abundant.
B) that has soil with poor drainage.
C) that has hot summers and cold winters.
D) in which the soil is relatively deficient in mineral nutrients.
E) that is near a body of water, such as a pond or river.
Answer:
D) in which the soil is relatively deficient in mineral nutrients.
Explanation:
Mycorrhizae are mutualistic associations between fungi and the roots of plants. The fungus grows around and into the root and into the surrounding soil. The fungus absorbs essential minerals, especially phosphorus, from the soil for the plant. The plant provides the organic nutrients produced by photosynthesis to the fungus. Therefore, the plants with mycorrhizae exhibit better growth in mineral deficient soil than the plants without mycorrhizae.
Which of the following animals indicated in the Antarctica Food Web folder utilizes the Crabeater Seal as a source of food? a. Humpback Whale b. Sharks c. Krill d. Leopard Seal e. Squid
The animal that uses the Crabeater Seal as a food source in the Antarctica Food Web is the Leopard Seal. Humpback whales, sharks, krill, and squid do not feed on crabeater seals. As for the effects of melting sea ice in Alaska, polar bears would be the most affected.
The correct answer to the question of which animal in the Antarctica Food Web utilizes the Crabeater Seal as a source of food is d. Leopard Seal. Leopard seals are top predators in the Antarctic ecosystem, known to prey on other marine mammals, including the crabeater seal. This information helps us understand the dynamics of Antarctic food webs and the importance of each species in maintaining ecological balance.
Humpback whales primarily feed on krill and small fish, not on crabeater seals.
Sharks are not typically part of the Antarctic food web where crabeater seals live.
Krill are a primary food source for many animals, but they do not consume crabeater seals.
Squid also do not feed on crabeater seals, as they have different dietary preferences.
Concerning the Arctic food web and the impact of sea ice melting in Alaska, polar bears would be most affected (option b) because they rely on sea ice to hunt for seals, their primary food source.
Which of these is NOT a reason that scientists do experiments? A. to test a hypothesis B. to design a procedure C. to compare one theory to another D. to confirm whether an experiment gives the same results if it is repeated
Answer:
B
Explanation:
The first step is to make a plan/procedure then the hypothesis then the the experiment then record the data so before you even do the experiment you have already planned a procedure
Answer:
B is the answer I don't have much to go off on but i know because i took the unit test on edge
Explanation:
Part A What is a telomere? What is a telomere? the mechanism that holds two sister chromatids together the ends of linear chromosomes the site of origin of DNA replication DNA replication during telophase
Answer: B the ends of linear chromosomes.
Explanation:
Based on structure, telomeres are located at the end of chromosomes; they are protective caps that bind the genes at the end of the chromosomes in order to prevent it from interchromosomal fusion (clumping) and degradation (broken down). Simply, they serve the same role as plastic caps to the tip of shoe laces; preventing it from unraveling.
.
Generally, telomeres becomes short in length with time. At this stage they become weaken, and breaks down. The affected the cells basic replication activites, and therefore the functions. These non-functioning cells accumulated in body organs, and made them to degenerate .This reduced longevity, leading to death of cells. However the shortening of the length is an advantage to prevent the spread of cancer in cells because I naturally stops the uncontrivable growth of cells
Therefore the longer the length of telomeres at the genome end of chromosomes, the higher the rate of replication of the concerned cells, and hence the increase in the age of the cell
__________ is a progressive degenerative disease of the basal nuclei that affects the dopamine-secreting pathways.
a.Parkinson's disease
b.mad cow disease
c.Huntington's disease
d.Alzheimer's disease
Answer:
a.Parkinson's disease
Explanation:
Dopamine is a neurotransmitter who's function is to be the body's reward center "happy hormone" and it is also involved in motor control.
For unknown reasons in the elderly, dopamine is lost when the dopamine-producing nerve cells die in the basal ganglia and substanta nigra which results in movement problems such as, tremor, slowness of movement, stiffness, and balance problems.
This disease is called Parkinsons disease which is a progressive and degenerative disorder
During filtration, anything that is small enough to pass through all three layers of the filtration membrane will become part of the filtrate. Sometimes, the least porous layer of this membrane becomes clogged and then glomerulonephritis may occur. What is the name of the most porous layer of the filtration membrane?A. fenestrated endotheliumfB. iltration slitsC. capsular epitheliumD. visceral epithelium
Answer:
The correct answer is B filtration slits.
Explanation:
The glomerulus part of the nephron of kidney play a significant role in the filtration of urine.
Glomerulus contain basement membrane that consist of filtration slits between specific cells known as podocyte cells that carry out the filtration function of the glomerulus.
Which example describes biological evolution?
a.Over time, a caterpillar species becomes as green as the leaves it eats.
b.The average woman's dress size has increased over the last 50 years.
c.You are vaccinated against polio and are protected against the disease.
d.A tree branch is broken off and another grows in its place.
Answer:
a.Over time, a caterpillar species becomes as green as the leaves it eats.
Explanation:
Evolution means the gradual formation of complex organisms from simple types, a process that usually take several years (geological time).
The gradual change happens as a result of continuous adaptation by organisms to ever changing environment.
Option b could have been considered along with option a, but evolution process takes much more than 50 years.
Hence, the correct option is a.
Vectors such as pUC18 and others of the pUC series contain a large number of restriction enzyme sites clustered in one region. Which term describes this advantageous arrangement of restriction sites?
Answer:
multiple cloning site
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the term being described is a multiple cloning site or MCS for short. Like mentioned in the question this refers to a region of DNA located inside a Plasmid, which holds various Restriction enzyme sites clustered in one reagion, each of which are unique.
A primigravid client at 24 weeks’ gestation has received permission from the primary care provider to make a 6-hour automobile trip to visit her parents. After the nurse teaches the client about precautions to take during the trip, which client statement indicates the need for further instruction?
The importance of a pregnant woman taking frequent breaks to walk around on a long trip is to reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). A statement indicating misunderstanding of this precaution would show the need for further instruction on travel safety for pregnant women.
Explanation:The question pertains to a primigravid client at 24 weeks’ gestation who has planned a 6-hour automobile trip and needs to know the precautions to take. During long trips, pregnant women are advised to take several precautions to maintain their health and safety as well as that of their unborn child. Key advice includes taking frequent breaks to walk around and reduce the risk of blood clots, staying hydrated, wearing a seat belt properly, and avoiding driving for long periods without rest.
A statement indicating the need for further instruction would be if the client said, "I won't need to stop for breaks; I can sit still the whole trip." This statement shows a misunderstanding of the need to reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by moving around periodically. The proper use of a seat belt, positioned under the belly and across the chest, is also vital for safety during pregnancy.
The correct option indicating the need for further instruction is B) "I will sleep for 1 hour at the halfway point of the trip." Sleeping for a prolonged period during a car trip poses risks of blood clots and accidents. The other options emphasize appropriate precautions such as wearing a seat belt, staying hydrated, and taking regular breaks.
The correct answer indicating the need for further instruction is B) "I will sleep for 1 hour at the halfway point of the trip." While rest is important during a long journey, especially for a pregnant woman, sleeping for a prolonged period, especially during a car trip, poses risks. This statement raises concerns about the safety of the mother and the unborn baby.
Firstly, prolonged periods of sitting, especially in a sedentary position like driving, can increase the risk of blood clots, particularly in pregnant women who already have an increased risk due to changes in blood circulation during pregnancy. Secondly, falling asleep while driving is extremely dangerous and can lead to accidents, endangering not only the mother and her unborn child but also other passengers and drivers on the road.
The other options demonstrate appropriate precautions:
A) "I will be sure to wear the car seat belt while traveling." - This is a crucial safety measure to protect both the mother and the baby in case of an accident. However, the seat belt should be worn properly, with the lap belt positioned under the abdomen and the shoulder belt between the breasts and to the side of the belly.
C) "I will drink plenty of fluids to avoid dehydration." - Staying hydrated is important during pregnancy, especially during long trips, to prevent dehydration and maintain overall health.
D) "I will take frequent rest breaks every 2 hours." - Taking regular breaks during long car trips is essential to stretch the legs, improve circulation, and reduce the risk of blood clots. It also allows the pregnant woman to walk around and relieve pressure on her back and legs, which can become uncomfortable during extended periods of sitting.
While rest is important during a long journey, advising the pregnant woman to sleep for a prolonged period during a car trip poses significant risks to her and her unborn child. Instead, emphasis should be placed on taking regular breaks, staying hydrated, and wearing the seat belt correctly to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Complete Question:- A primigravid client at 24 weeks’ gestation has received permission from the primary care provider to make a 6-hour automobile trip to visit her parents. After the nurse teaches the client about precautions to take during the trip, which client statement indicates the need for further instruction?
A) "I will be sure to wear the car seat belt while traveling."
B) "I will sleep for 1 hour at the halfway point of the trip."
C) "I will drink plenty of fluids to avoid dehydration."
D) "I will take frequent rest breaks every 2 hours."
The pectoral girdle is formed by the articulation of the hip bones and the sacrum. True or False
Answer:
False (The statement is true for pelvic girdle)
Explanation:
The pectoral or shoulder girdle is the set of bones in the appendicular skeleton (a portion of the skeleton that supports appendages) which connects to the arm on each side i.e. it connects upper limbs (arms) to the bones along the axis of the body.
In humans, the pectoral girdle is made up of two major bones viz: clavicle/collar bone and scapula/shoulder blade. These two bones which attaches the upper limbs to axial skeleton forms the pectoral girdle. Although, in species with three bones, coracoid bone is included in its formation.
The pelvic girdle is formed by the hip bone, which is the point of attachment for each lower limb (legs). The hip bone attaches the lower limb to the axial skeleton via its articulation with the sacrum. The sacrum is a triangular bone formed by the fusion of vertebrae and located in between the right and left hip bones. The association of the right and left hip bones, sacrum and coccyx forms the pelvis.
Levels of total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol are directly related to the frequency of coronary heart disease.a) true b) false
Answer:
a) true
Explanation:
Blood conducts cholesterol from the intestine or liver to the organs that need it and does so by binding to particles called lipoproteins. There are two types of lipoproteins:
Low density (LDL): they are responsible for transporting new cholesterol from the liver to all the cells of our body.
High density (HDL): collect unused cholesterol and return it to the liver for storage or excretion abroad through bile.
According to this interaction we can talk about two types of cholesterol:
Bad cholesterol: Cholesterol when attached to the LDL particle is deposited in the wall of the arteries and forms atheroma plaques.
Good cholesterol: Cholesterol when attached to the HDL particle transports excess cholesterol back to the liver for destruction.
- If their blood levels rise they produce hypercholesterolemia. It is shown that people with blood cholesterol levels of 240 have twice the risk of having a myocardial infarction than those with figures of 200.
- When the cells are unable to absorb all the cholesterol that circulates in the blood, the excess is deposited in the wall of the artery and contributes to its progressive narrowing causing atherosclerosis.
- If an atheromatosis patient keeps his blood cholesterol levels very low, he can get that cholesterol from the arterial wall back to the blood and be eliminated there. Therefore, patients who have suffered myocardial infarction or brain accident are recommended to maintain very low cholesterol levels to try to clean their arteries.
Hypercholesterolemia has no symptoms or physical signs, so its diagnosis can only be made by a blood test that determines cholesterol levels and also triglycerides. It is convenient that people at risk of having a dyslipidemia (alteration of the normal levels of these fats), who have relatives with ischemic heart disease and other cardiovascular diseases, undergo this test from an early age.
It is true that high levels of total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol are directly related to an increased risk of coronary heart disease. LDL, or 'bad' cholesterol, contributes to the buildup of plaque in arteries, leading to atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease, while HDL, the 'good' cholesterol, helps reduce heart disease risk.
Explanation:Levels of total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol being directly related to the frequency of coronary heart disease is indeed true. Research shows that low-density lipoproteins (LDL cholesterol), often termed as “bad” cholesterol, facilitate the build-up of plaque in the arteries—a process known as atherosclerosis. This can lead to coronary artery disease, where the coronary arteries become narrowed or blocked, potentially resulting in heart attacks. Conversely, high-density lipoproteins (HDL cholesterol), or “good” cholesterol, help in reducing the risk of heart disease by transporting surplus cholesterol back to the liver.
Furthermore, lifestyle factors such as unhealthy eating habits, lack of physical activity, and smoking can exacerbate the increase in LDL cholesterol and decrease in HDL cholesterol. To maintain heart health, it is advised to keep the LDL levels under 100 mg/dL and the HDL levels above 40 mg/dL for men and 50 mg/dL for women. Regular exercise, a healthy diet, and maintaining a healthy weight are essential in controlling cholesterol levels and reducing the risk of cardiovascular diseases.
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A human baby performs a sucking behavior perfectly when it is put in the presence of the nipple of its mother's breast. This is an example of____________.
Answer:
The answer is innate behavior.
Explanation:
A human baby performs a sucking behavior perfectly when it is put in the presence of the nipple of its mother's breast. This is an example of__innate behavior__________.
List the order in the redox strength of these molecules from smallest to largest. Complex I; coenzyme Q; complex IV; final electron acceptor Complex I; complex IV; final electron acceptor; coenzyme Q Final electron acceptor; complex IV; coenzyme Q; complex I Complex IV; coenzyme Q; complex I; final electron acceptor
Answer:
The answer is Complex I; coenzyme Q, complex IV; final electron acceptor.
Explanation:
The order in the redox strength of these molecules from smallest to largest is Complex I; coenzyme Q, complex IV; final electron acceptor.
Assume that you are working with a mutant, nutritionally deficient strain of Escherichia coli and that you isolate "revertants," which are nutritional-normal. Describe, at the molecular level, two possible causes for the "reversion to wild type."
Answer:
Mutation may be defined as the sudden heritable change in the genetic sequence of the organism. The mutation can cause the characteristics phenotype in the individual.
Two ways by which the reversion to wild type occur are true reversion and suppression mutation. The true reversion process involves the precision of the correction of the original mutation. The suppression intragenic or intergenic mutation introduce the changes in the mutant gene and compensate for the wild type product.
At the molecular level, reversion to wild-type in nutritionally deficient E. coli can occur through a back mutation, restoring the ability to produce a necessary nutrient, or a suppressor mutation, which bypasses the block caused by the original mutation.
Explanation:When working with a mutant, nutritionally deficient strain of Escherichia coli and isolating revertants that are nutritionally normal, two possible molecular causes for the reversion to wild-type are back mutation or suppressor mutation.
Firstly, a back mutation could occur, which is a second mutation that restores the original DNA sequence or results in a new sequence that somehow compensates for the effect of the original mutation, allowing the E. coli to revert to being able to synthesize the nutrient it was previously unable to produce.
Secondly, a suppressor mutation may arise in a different location within the genome that counteracts the original mutation's effect. This does not reverse the original mutation but provides a new pathway or enzymatic function that bypasses the block created by the original mutation, allowing the cell to grow without the required nutrient supplement.
What biomes spans the largest annual mean temperature range
Answer: Desert spans the annual mean temperature range.
Explanation:
Biomes are large ecological community of plant and animal on the earth surface that have characteristics for the environment they live in. A desert is an example of biomes. It is a barren area of land where there is high temperature and low precipitation (rainfall). It is a place where living conditions is difficult. Lact of vegetation exposed the areato direct sunlight and there is increased temperature. Desert are formed by weathering process I.e the breakdown of rocks into smaller particles through the activities of some agent like water or wind.
The trees below present a hypothetical situation where "T" represents the evolution of a male trait that is attractive to females and "P" represents where the preference in females evolved. Which tree below is consistent with the sensory bias hypothesis?
Answer:
P
Explanation:
The main conclusions of sensory bias are that natural selection is the major evolutionary mechanism that affects preference and that sexual selection on preferences is quantitatively negligible. this explain why females exhibit preference.
Which of the following actual (i.e., real) products of biological activity is not likely to be a source of the increases in greenhouse gases observed in recent history? A. carbon dioxide produced as a result of aerobic cellular respiration in living organisms B. carbon dioxide produced by use of fossil fuels in automobiles, heating and cooling, and industry C. increases in the amount of water vapor the atmosphere can hold (or relative humidity) at higher global temperatures
Answer:
A)
Explanation:
Carbon dioxide produced as a result of aerobic cellular respiration in living organisms.
Is not B, because the carbon dioxide produced by the use of fossil fuels is not use inside a greenhouse.
And the amount of water vapor is not a source for CO2
According to the "wobble hypothesis," what is the identity of the tRNA that can recognize the following codons: CAU, CAC, and CAA? According to the "wobble hypothesis," what is the identity of the tRNA that can recognize the following codons: CAU, CAC, and CAA? 3'-IUG-5' 3'-GTI-5' 3'-GUI-5' 3'-III-5'
Explanation:
The wobble hypothesis states that the first two bases within a codon for an amino acid have an exact pairing with anticodons of tRNA. However, the pairing of the third bases may vary or wobble- thus a tRNA can recognise multiple codons.
3'-GUI-5' can recognise CAU, CAC, and CAA
wobbling occurs at the 5' end I represents the wobble anticodonpurines pair up with pyrimidines in base pairsFurther Explanation:
The nucleic acids are comprised of smaller units called nucleotides and function as storage for the body’s genetic information. These monomers include ribonucleic acid (RNA) or deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). They differ from other macromolecules since they don’t provide the body with energy. They exist solely to encode and protein synthesis.
Basic makeup: C, H, O, P; they contain phosphate group 5 carbon sugar does nitrogen bases which may contain single to double bond ring.
Codons are three nucleotide bases encoding coding and amino acid or signal at the beginning or end of protein synthesis.
RNA codons determine certain amino acids so the order in which the bases occur within in the codon sequence designates which amino acid is to be made bus with the four RNA nucleotides (Adenine, Cysteine and Uracil) Up to 64 codons (with 3 as stop codons) determine amino acid synthesis. The stop codons ( UAG UGA UAA) terminate amino acid/ protein synthesis while the start codon AUG begins protein synthesis.
Learn more about transcription at https://brainly.com/question/11339456
Learn more about DNA and RNA https://brainly.com/question/2416343?source=aid8411316
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