Answer:
The correct answer will be:
1. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the motor end plate
2. Chemically-regulated ion channels open, causing depolarization
3 End plate potentials trigger action potential(s).
4. Transverse tubules convey potentials into the interior of the cell
5. Ca++ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
6. Ca++ binds to troponin, pulling on tropomyosin
7. Binding sites on actin are uncovered, allowing myosin to bind and carry out power strokes
8. Force increases.
9. Ca++ is pumped (re-sequestered) into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
10. Force decreases.
Explanation:
The muscle contraction is a highly controlled mechanism which begins at the neuromuscular junction with the release of the acetylcholine neurotransmitter. This neurotransmitter causes the depolarization of the membrane by binding to the receptors of the motor end plate which generates an action potential. This action potential is transmitted via T-tubules from sarcolemma to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions which binds to the troponin protein. This troponin removes the protein tropomyosin from the actin causing the rotation of the tropomyosin exposing the binding sites for myosin. The myosin binds to the actin using energy from the ATP which pulls the actin causing contraction. Another ATP binds the myosin head which weakens the bond between myosin and actin which releases the myosin which decreases the force between them decreases and the muscles relax.
The higher the coefficient of friction, the greater the tendency to slide. (higher coefficient of friction indicates less friction)
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Friction may be defined as the force that oppose the motion of the one object moving relative to the another object. Friction is a type of non conservative force.
Higher coefficient of friction means that friction is less. Less friction has the higher tendency to slide. Oiling and greasing reduces the friction of object and makes it more slippery.
Thus, the answer is true.
The exchange of nutrients and respiratory gases occurs between these small, one-cell wide vessels, ______, and the blood and tissue fluid around the cells.
a. arteries
b. veins
c. capillaries
d. arterioles
Answer:
( C ) Capillaries
Explanation:
Capillary is the smallest blood vessels of the body , of 5 to 10 micrometres diameter.
These blood vessels forms a large network in the body.
The function of the capillaries is to exchange nutrients , oxygen , waste in between the blood and the tissues.
The blood flow in the body is as follows-
The blood flows from the heart via arteries , which further branches into arteriols , which further branches into capillaries , where the nutrients get exchanged .
After the exchange process is done , then the capillaries merge to become wide, venules , these venules further widen to become veins , and the blood is returned back to the heart by the vein , venae cavae.
What is electrical firing mechanism of the heart?
Answer:
The process of contraction and relaxation to pump blood to heart by atria and ventricles together is called electrical firing mechanism of the heart.
The electrical system regulates the timing of heartbeat through sending electrical signal.
The electrical signal originates in a group of cells at the top of heart known as sinoatrial (SA) node and send the signal to right and left atria that triggers the atria muscles to get contract. after atria contraction the blood transfer to left and right ventricles and electrical signal arrives at atrioventricular node (AV node) that slows down the electrical signal and provide time to receive blood from atria to ventricles. electrical signal then move to ventricle muscles and allow them to contract. The left ventricle pumps blood to all body parts and right ventricle pumps blood to lungs.
After contraction of both atria and ventricles the electrical mechanism resets itself and follows the same process again.
The electrical firing mechanism of the heart coordinates the rhythmic contractions of the heart muscles and is responsible for pumping blood. It starts with the sinoatrial (SA) node and involves the atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers. The resulting electrical currents can be measured as an electrocardiogram (ECG).
Explanation:The electrical firing mechanism of the heart is responsible for coordinating the rhythmic contractions of the heart muscles, allowing it to pump blood through the circulatory system. The process starts with the heart's natural pacemaker, called the sinoatrial (SA) node, which sends out electrical impulses that cause the atria to contract. From there, the impulses travel to the atrioventricular (AV) node, the bundle of His, the bundle branches, and finally the Purkinje fibers, which stimulate the ventricles to contract. This coordinated electrical activity produces the characteristic electrical currents that flow through the body and can be measured as an electrocardiogram (ECG).
In the conversion of deoxyhemoglobin to oxyhemoglobin, O2 binds specifically to:
A. globin
B. iron
C. hydrogen ion
D. heme
E. ferritin
Answer: Option D. "Heme"
Explanation:
Deoxyhemoglobin can be defined as a form of which has no oxygen binded to the hemoglobin.
When deoxyhemoglobin is replaced with oxyhemoglobin then the oxygen binds to the heme component of the hemoglobin protein in red blood cells.
Each heme group has iron atom that has the ability to bind to oxygen (02) molecule.
Four oxygen molecules bind to a single hemoglobin protein.
Hence, the correct answer is option D "Heme".
Answer:
Explanation:
B
Surfactant ______ surface tension in the alveoli, making the lung ______ compliant and thereby ________ the work required to inflate it.
A. Decrease, less, increasing
B. Increase, more, decreasing
C. increase, less, increasing
D. decrease, more, decreasing
Answer: Option D " decrease, more, decreasing"
Explanation:
Pulmonary surfactant can be defined as the surface-active proteins which is made of type II alveolar cells. These surfactant is made of protein and lipids which are both hydrophobic and hydrophillic in nature.
It greatly reduces the surface tension in the alveoli, which make the lungs more compliant (ability of the lungs to stretch and expand) and hence, decreases the work required to inflate it.
Thus the correct answer is option D
Bone is continually resorbed.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The answer is A True
Explanation:
Bone remodeling is a process that take places annually throughout the bone tissue to be able to renew, they are enzymes that adhere and destroy the old bone to give rise to osteoblasts forming new tissue, since the bone is a tissue in constant process of physiological resorption and remodeling. This process is positive until the third decade of life, then it could become pathological.
What is the only type of receptor on the effector tissue of the SNS?
a) Muscarinic
b) Adrenergic
c) Cholinergic
d) Nicotinic
e) Autonomic
Answer:
B. Adrenergic
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system uses noradrenaline as the main neurotransmitter. Noradrenaline acts in alfa and beta adrenergic receptors and has effects over smooth muscle, cardiac tissue, and secretory glands.
What happens to alveolar volume and intra-alveolar pressure during exhalation?
1. Decrease alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure
2. Increase alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure
3. Decrease alveolar volume causes a decrease alveolar pressure
4. Increase alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure
Answer:
The correct answer will be option A.
Explanation:
Exhalation is a mechanism of breathing which exhales out the gases from the lungs to the atmosphere.
During the exhalation process the thoracic volume decreases which decrease the lung volume. This decreases alveolar volume. Due to this decrease in alveolar volume the intra- alveolar pressure increases above atmospheric pressure up to +2 cm of H₂O which results in the release of the gas or air out of the lungs.
Thus, option A is the correct answer.
Final answer:
During exhalation, the alveolar volume decreases, resulting in increased intra-alveolar pressure, leading to air being expelled from the lungs.
Explanation:
The relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas in the context of alveolar function during respiration can be explained by Boyle's Law, which states that pressure and volume have an inverse relationship. When a person exhales, the muscles of the lungs and chest wall contract, causing alveolar volume to decrease. This decrease in volume leads to an increase in intra-alveolar pressure because the same amount of gas is confined to a smaller space. Consequently, intra-alveolar pressure becomes higher than atmospheric pressure, causing air to flow out of the lungs.
All of the following characteristics are found in all herpes viruses, except?
a) They are chronic
b) They are enveloped
c) They are all DNA based
d) They are all primarily acquired in childhood
e) All of the above are true
Answer:
D. they are all primarily acquired in childhood
Why can we use colon to administer drugs in case of an emergency?
Answer and Explanation :
When the patient is unconscious and not able to take medicine in form of tablets or capsule then colon comes into action, colon is a good way of administration of drugs when the patient is ill and can not take the medicine.
the colon is present bellow the liver so the drugs can effect more easily before the metabolism.lymphatic circulation is used for draining of colonwhen colon is present there is a less chance of degradation of drugsAmber has a kidney disease that causes a decrease in the effectiveness of ADH in the kidney.
a. What is the role of ADH in the body?
b. What are precautionary measure that Amber needs to take to prevent serious side effects?
c. What are the first signs of dehydration?
d. As a result of a decrease in ADH, what would you predict would happen to other hormonal mechanisms of the kidney to help create/maintain better fluid balance?
e. Why did you make that prediction?
Answer:
i need the answer
Explanation:
ADH regulates the body's water conservation process. Amber should stay hydrated to prevent dehydration, while other hormonal mechanisms may step in to compensate the decreased ADH. First signs of dehydration include thirst, dark urine, dry mouth, fatigue, lightheadedness.
Explanation:ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's water balance. Released by the pituitary gland, it increases the water permeability of kidney's collecting ducts, promoting water reabsorption back into the bloodstream and thus limiting its loss in urine.
Amber, with decreased ADH effectiveness, would likely produce larger amounts of urine, possibly leading to dehydration. To prevent serious side effects, Amber must stay adequately hydrated, monitor her urine output and consistency, and seek medical help if signs of dehydration occur. First signs of dehydration often include thirst, darker than normal urine, dry mouth, fatigue, and lightheadedness.
With decreased ADH function, other hormonal mechanisms in the kidney, like the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, may be stimulated to maintain fluid balance. This system can conserve sodium, which in turn retains water, decreasing the likelihood of dehydration.
This prediction was made because the body has numerous systems in place to maintain homeostasis, if one fails, others often step in to compensate.
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What is the purpose of the Tenth Amendment?
a. to establish the electoral college
b. to give each state constitution the same protection as the federal constitution
c. to grant to the citizens of each state access to the federal court system powers
d. to limit the power of the central government by establishing reserved powers for states and individuals
Answer:
Choice D
Explanation:
The tenth amendment states that "the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people."
Answer choice D best summarizes that powers not given to the federal government, is given to the states or the people.
Chronic obstructive pulomonary diseases (COPD), include:
a. chronic bronchitis
b. emplysema
c. pneumonia
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary diseases (COPD), include:____, would be, D: a and b are correct.
Explanation:
COPD, or best known as Chronic Obstructive Pulmonay Disorder, is the general name given to a disease in which the lungs are incapable of performing their task of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange, because of an obstruction either of the airways, or the alveoli, which are the sacks in which the actual exchange takes place. This obstruction can happen either because of an overproduction of mucus, or because the airways become fibrous, and therefore, oxygen cannot be exchanged. The other reason is when the alveoli are damaged and destroyed and air sacks form in the lungs. In COPD, we have two types: Chronic Bronchitis, in which due to continuous coughing, and mucus production, the bronchi become inflamed and fibrous and therefore exchange is much more difficult. In the second form, we have emphysema, in which the constant coughing starts affecting the lining of the alveoli, until it can literally be destroyed and pockets of air can form inside the actual lung tissue.
Which statement about CO2 is incorrect?
a. CO2 concentrations are greater in venous blood than arterial blood
b. More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs.
c. Its accumulation in the blood is associated with a decrease in pH.
d. Its concentration in the blood is decreased by hyperventilation.
Answer:
The option which is incorrect is B) more CO 2 dissolves in blood plasma than is carried in the red blood cells.
Explanation:
All the options here except B) are correct, as CO 2 which is also know as carbon dioxide, it is know to be more soluble than oxygen in the blood as it is said that almost 5% - 7% of CO 2 gets dissolved in the plasma . Carbon dioxide is found in greater concentrations in venous blood than the arterial blood. Through the bicarbonate buffer system, which allows a less change to the pH of the body system ,and through this it allows a person to live at high altitude places by regulating the amount of carbon dioxide. So we can say that its accumulation in the blood is linked with a decrease in pH. But more of the CO 2 doesn't dissolve in the plasma than is carried in the plasma as only 5-7 % of CO 2 is dissolved in plasma.
The correct answer is option b. The incorrect statement about CO₂ is that more CO₂ dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs.
- CO₂ is transported in the blood in three forms: dissolved in plasma (about 5-7%), bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells (RBCs) (about 20-30%), and as bicarbonate ions [tex](HCO_3^-)[/tex] (about 60-70%).
- When CO₂ diffuses into the RBCs, it reacts with water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO3), which quickly dissociates into bicarbonate ions [tex](HCO_3^-)[/tex] and protons [tex](H^+)[/tex]. This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is present in high concentrations in RBCs.
- The bicarbonate ions then move out of the RBCs into the plasma in exchange for chloride ions [tex](Cl^-)[/tex], a process known as the chloride shift. This means that the majority of CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate ions in the plasma, not dissolved in the plasma.
- The hemoglobin in RBCs also binds to CO₂, forming carbaminohemoglobin, which is another form of CO₂ transport within RBCs.
Now, let's address the other options:
a. CO₂ concentrations are greater in venous blood than arterial blood - This is correct. Venous blood has a higher concentration of CO₂ because it has picked up CO₂ from the tissues, which is then transported to the lungs for exhalation.
c. Its accumulation in the blood is associated with a decrease in pH - This is correct. As CO₂ levels increase in the blood, it leads to the formation of more carbonic acid, which dissociates into bicarbonate and protons ([tex]H^+[/tex]), thus decreasing the blood pH, leading to acidosis.
d. Its concentration in the blood is decreased by hyperventilation - This is correct. Hyperventilation increases the rate of respiration, leading to more CO₂ being exhaled than normal. This results in a decrease in the concentration of CO₂ in the blood.
Factors which thicken the respiratory membrane may result in __________
a. oxygen deprivation
b. reduced pulmonary circulation
c. bronchiole constriction
d. none of the above
Answer: d. none of the above
Explanation:
The respiratory membrane is the membrane which separates the air inside the alveoli from the pulmonary capillaries. The types of respiratory membranes includes the alveoli membrane, the capillary membrane and the basement membrane. The respiratory membrane is usually very thin. But it becomes thick due to the increase in the fluid content, which actually forces the gases to diffuse through the membrane and the fluid. Also the pulmonary diseases can also cause the membrane to become thick.
Answer: Oxygen Deprivation
Explanation:
The thickening of the respiratory membranes may result in the oxygen deprivation. The function of membrane is to help in gaseous exchange.
The carbon dioxide is removed out of the body and oxygen is inhaled inside. Thickening of the membrane will reduce the ability to exchange gas which will make the body deprive of oxygen.
There are may diseases in which the thickening of the respiratory membranes takes place.Example: pulmonary fibrosis.
Describe the types of sympathetic and parasympathetic receptors and their associated neurotransmitters.
Answer:
Describe the types of sympathetic and parasympathetic receptors and their associated neurotransmitters.
Explanation:
1. Sympathetic or Adrenergic System. Preganglionic fibers emerge from the thoracic and lumbar areas of the spinal cord. The type function is to put the organism in an alert attitude.
2. Parasympathetic or Cholinergic System. Preganglionic fibers emerge from the cranial and sacral areas of the spinal cord. The type function is to establish a rest and recovery behavior. It links each of the body systems and organs with the brain, which interprets and activates responses.
3. Neurotransmission systems: all sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic fibers have as specific or primary neurotransmitter Acetylcholine, which executes the transition by interaction with nicotic cholinergic receptors.
4. Norepinephrine or norepinephrine is a substance used primarily by the sympathetic or ortho sympathetic nervous system. It is part of the neurotransmitters: its function is to transmit messages through the nerves to the different components of the body through numerous physiological processes.
5. Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is one of those polyvalent substances that our body uses to regulate different body processes. It is a hormone, but it is also a neurotransmitter, which means that it acts as an intermediary in the communication between neurons that is established in synaptic spaces.
6. Dopamine is the most important catecholaminergic neurotransmitter of the Central Nervous System of mammals and participates in the regulation of various functions such as motor behavior, emotionality and affectivity as well as in neuroendocrine communication.
A neurotransmitter of the sympathetic division of the nervous system that increases the heart rate and constricts smooth muscle in blood vessels to raise blood pressure in the "fight or flight" response is called:
a. epinephrine.
b. aldosterone.
c. melatonin.
d. prolactin.
Answer:
a. epinephrine.
Explanation:
Discovered in 1895, epinephrine, the hormone of "fight or flight" is a key neurotransmitter as man evolved.
Produced by the adrenal glands, it s main function is to trigger a quick response to potenital threats, seen an increased blood pressure to muscles, heart rate, pupils dilatation and increased metabolyizing of suger.
The incorrect levels of epinephrine will characterize a person suffering an anxiety disorder. If a situation requieres a stress response, epinephrine will help a living organism like mammals to answer quickly and surive.
The neurotransmitter that increases the heart rate and constricts blood vessels to raise blood pressure in the 'fight or flight' response is epinephrine (adrenaline).
Explanation:The neurotransmitter associated with the 'fight or flight' response within the sympathetic division of the nervous system is a. epinephrine. Also known as adrenaline, epinephrine is responsible for increasing heart rate and constricting smooth muscle in blood vessels, which elevates blood pressure. This neurological reaction prepares the body to react in stressful or potentially dangerous situations.
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The event which removes the regulatory proteins from the binding site of actin is which of the following?
A) action potential along the sarcolemma
B) binding of Ca2+ by the regulatory proteins
C) binding of neurotransmitter at the motor end-plate
D) depolarization of the T-tubules.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B.
Explanation:
The contraction of the muscle is caused by the slipping of thick filament myosin and thin filament called the action. The myosin is a motor element which causes the sliding by binding to the myosin-binding sites present in the actin.
The binding site is covered by the regulatory protein called tropomyosin and troponin. The Ca⁺² ions produced by the sarcolemma binds to the troponin which shifts the tropomyosin to another side from myosin binding site. This shift allows the myosin to bind at the actin.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for a daily dose of lovastatin extended release. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Report to the clinic for quarterly monitoring of kidney function while taking this medication.
b. Mix with applesauce after crushing if the medication is difficult to swallow.
c. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
d. Take the medication with the evening meal.
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching, would be: D: Take the medication wiht the evening meal.
Explanation:
Lovastatin is a medication that is used to lower the production of cholesterol by the body, in order to reduce is depositing on the blood vessel walls. Given its form of action, and its effects, and since the medication given to the patient is the extended-release version, then the indications are to instruct the patient that he should be taking it once a day, and it needs to be during a meal, preferably the evening meal. He should never chew, split, or crush the tablet, no matter what. This is why the correct answer is D.
Which of the following is an irigation catheter used after transurethral prostatic surgery?
A. ureteral stent
B. three-way Foley
C. Robinson
D. Malecot
Answer: B. Three-way Foley
Explanation:
In the case of this postoperative, the catheter that is used is a Three-way Foley.
After the surgery, the physician needs to know who much blood and how much urine is going out by the urethra; and how much of those are produced after the surgery. It helps to know if the tissue is healing, I mean, if there is less blood every day, then the outcome of the surgery could be better.
The Three-way Foley also has a bag at the end that allows to measure the quantity of the urine that is expected to produce every day.
The three-way Foley is also a catheter with a balloon that inflates inside the bladder in order to keep the catheter in position, until the physician tell the patient, it is time to pull out.
The structure that prevents food or water from entering the trachea.
Answer:
The answer is epiglottis
Explanation:
The epiglottis is a cartilaginous structure that is part of the larynx, which rises at the time of swallowing while closing the airway, thus preventing food and water from entering the trachea.
The epiglottis is the structure that prevents food or water from entering the trachea. It covers the glottis during swallowing, with assistance from the movement of the larynx and tongue, to protect the respiratory tract. A functional pharynx is essential for maintaining the processes of both digestion and respiration.
Explanation:The Structure Preventing Food or Water from Entering the TracheaThe structure that prevents food or water from entering the trachea is known as the epiglottis. During swallowing, the larynx is pulled upwards and the epiglottis folds down to cover the glottis, which is the opening to the trachea, thus blocking access to the respiratory tract. The backward motion of the tongue aids in this protective action. If material accidentally enters the larynx, it can stimulate a cough reflex, helping to expel the content back into the pharynx, away from the respiratory pathway. The trachea, which leads air to the bronchi and lungs, is protected by this mechanism from the aspiration of food and liquids.
The pharynx simultaneously plays a role in both digestion and respiration. It guides air from the nasal cavity to the larynx and food from the oral cavity to the esophagus. Its function in protecting the airway during swallowing ensures that inhaled air is second in priority to swallowed material. The coordination of these mechanisms is essential for safe eating and breathing.
Deprived of nutrition, osteocytes at the fracture site die.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Any living thing will die if it is lacking the proper nutrition.
Peripheral resistance (PR) to the blood flow is the resistance of:
a. Capillary system
b. Venous system
c. Arterial system
Answer: C) Arterial system
Explanation:
Peripheral resistance to the blood flow is the resistance of arterial system as, peripheral resistance is exerted by the artery to the flow of blood . Among all vascular bed artery, capillary and vein, arteries are the vessel which has the property of recoiling due to smooth muscles to exert resistance. As, increase in peripheral resistance and blood volume result in higher blood pressure. It is the resistance of the arteries to the blood flow.
Which classification best suits the pancreas?
a) Exocrine
b) Endocrine
c) Exocrine and endocrine
d) Holocrine
Answer:
c) Exocrine and endocrine
Explanation:
The pancreas has both function exocrine and endocrine. The exocrine function is developed by the acinar cells that synthesize digestive enzimes.
The endocrine is developed by differents cells producing hormones, the alpha cells (glucagon), beta cells (insuline), delta cells (somatostatine), epsilon (ghrelin) and PP cells (pancreatic polypeptide).
Explain how atherosclerotic plaques are formed and why they are unhealthy.
Answer:
Arteriosclerosis are plaques that form within the arteries, producing a decrease in arterial lumen. These plaques are usually made up of fatty tissue, calcium, cholesterol, fats found in the blood.
They are not healthy because they reduce the flow of oxygenated blood to the tissues, producing ischemia or cellular necrosis, for example acute myocardial infarction (when it comes to coronary artery obstruction) or vascular brain disease when the aortic artery is clogged.
Of the four main classes of connective tissue, which has the least solid ground substance?
a) Connective tissue proper
b) Cartilage
c) Bone tissue
d) Blood
Answer:
The answer is D: Blood
Explanation:
The fundamental substance is part of the extracellular matrix and comprises a set of proteins on which mineral salts are fixed to form the connective tissue. They are always attached to the fibers (collagen, elastin, reticulin). The fundamental substance of the blood is going to be found in the blood plasma, being therefore the least solid.
Answer: Blood
Explanation:
In the fluid connective tissue the least solid ground substance is found in blood. Blood is one of the four main connective tissue which transports various materials from one place to another.
It is a fluid containing salts, nutrients and dissolved proteins. The watery fluid carrying oxygen from heart to the vital organs and then carrying carbon dioxide from vital organs to the heart.
Hence, the correct answer is blood.
Arrange these structures in decreasing order of size:
a. sarcomere
b. fibril
c. filaments
d. fiber
Answer:
The correct answer will be Fiber → fibril → sarcomere → filaments.
Explanation:
Skeletal muscle is made up of long and cylindrical skeletal cell with a diameter up to 100 μm which are known as muscle fibres.
These muscle fibre encloses the smaller fibrils of 1.2 μm diameter which runs along the length of a muscle fiber.
Within each myofibril is enclosed the functional unit of muscle called sarcomere which is composed of contractile myofilaments- actin (thin filament) and myosin (thick filament).
Thus, Fiber → fibril → sarcomere → filaments are the correct answer.
Masseter:
a. originates on the zygomatic arch and the maxilla
b. inserts on the angle and ramus of the mandible
c. is innervated by the trigeminal (V) nerve
d. all of the above statements are true
Answer:
The correct option is : d. all of the above statements are true
Explanation:
The masseter is a quadrilateral-shaped thick muscle, found only in the mammals. It is one of the muscles of mastication and is particularly very strong in the herbivores, as it used to facilitate chewing plant matter.
This muscle is composed of- superficial head and deep head.
The masseter muscle arises on the zygomatic arch and on the maxillary process of the zygomatic bone.
Whereas, the muscle inserts on the angle and ramus of the mandible.
The anterior division of mandibular division (V3) of the trigeminal nerve innervates the masseter muscle.
Therefore, all of the statements given are true.
The Masseter originates on the zygomatic arch and the maxilla, inserts on the angle and ramus of the mandible and is innervated by the trigeminal (V) nerve. Therefore, all of the statements are true.
Explanation:The Masseter is a facial muscle that plays a crucial role in the movement of the jaw. Options a, b, and c are all correct. The Masseter originates on the zygomatic arch and the maxilla, as stated in option a. It inserts on the angle and ramus of the mandible, as stated in option b. Finally, it is innervated by the trigeminal (V) nerve, as stated in option c. Therefore, the correct answer is d: all of the statements are true.
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The pancreas releases alkaline, enzyme-rich pancreatic juice into the ____________ of the small intestine. What is the function of this juice?
Answer:
The correct answer is the duodenum.
Explanation:
Pancreatic juice is an alkaline fluid which contains important enzymes for the digestion of proteins, carbohydrates and fats.
Pancreatic juice is secreted by the pancreas when food enters the stomach which is released into the "duodenum" of the small intestine. The pancreatic juice enters duodenum through a pancreatic duct which joins with the bile duct coming from the liver and form "ampulla of Vater" in the duodenum.
Pancreatic juice helps in digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats as it contains pro-enzymes and enzymes like trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, lipase and many more. It also makes the acidic stomach solution alkaline due to the presence of HCO₃.
Thus, the duodenum is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements is FALSE about nutrition?
(a) Someone in positive nitrogen balance should be expected to gain muscle mass due to increased protein intake
(b) Excess acetyl CoA molecules react to form compounds called ketone
(c) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) has a higher density of lipids than
(d) Essential amino acids are those that the body must ingest from the bodies which usually are a sign that a person may be starving proteins environment
Answer:
d sounds absurd!
Explanation: