Answer:
A positive result shows that the person is having the particular disease which he was tested for and negative result shows that the person does not have the disease for which he was tested.
If a test for the disease is 99% accurate that means that a person who has the disease has a 99% chance of testing positive for the disease, while a person who doesn't have the disease has a 99% chance of testing negative for the disease.
Therefore if a person tests positive for the disease than there is 99% chance that the person has that disease because the test is 99% accurate.
To find the probability that someone actually has a disease given a positive test, we apply Bayes' theorem considering the disease prevalence and test accuracy. With a disease prevalence of 1% and a test accuracy of 99%, the chance that someone has the disease given a positive test result is 50%.
To calculate the probability that a person actually has a disease given a positive test result, we must consider both the accuracy of the test and the base rate of the disease in the population. This is often referred to as Bayes' theorem. We are given a disease prevalence of 1%, and a test accuracy of 99%. We will use a hypothetical population of 10,000 people for this example.
100 people actually have the disease (1% of 10,000).9,900 people do not have the disease (99% of 10,000).The test will correctly identify 99 of the 100 diseased individuals (99% of 100).However, the test will also incorrectly identify 99 of the healthy individuals as diseased (1% of 9,900).So now, we have a total of 99 true positives and 99 false positives, giving us 198 positive tests. To find the probability that a person with a positive test actually has the disease, we divide the number of true positives by the total number of positive tests:
Probability = True Positives / (True Positives + False Positives) = 99 /(99 + 99) = 0.50
Therefore, even with a test that is 99% accurate, if a person tests positive, there is only a 50% chance that they actually have the disease, when the disease prevalence is 1%.
What condition would cause a person to have ketones in the urine? Why?
Answer:
Ketonuria is a serious condition characterized by the presence of ketones in the urine. This is caused due to dietary conditions such as starvation, vomiting, anorexia; and diabetes.
When the body is unable to use carbohydrates as the energy source or due to lack of carbohydrates, the body uses fats as the source of energy, thereby producing excessive ketones, which can be detected in the urine.
Which of the following statements correctly compares water-soluble and lipid-soluble hormones?
Select one:
a. Only lipid-soluble hormones require a receptor.
b. Both types of hormone almost always stimulate increases in mRNA transcription.
c. Lipid-soluble hormones usually activate g-protein coupled receptors
d. Both types of hormone are carried in the blood attached to a carrier protein.
e. Only water-soluble hormones use second messengers.
Answer:
The correct answer is option E. only water-soluble hormones use second messengers.
Explanation:
Water soluble hormones can not diffuse through cell membranes as only lipid soluble molecules can pass through the cell membranes and these hormons are not lipid soluble molecules,
These water hormones are usually glycoproteins, peptide and catecholamnies such as TSH, FSH, LH and insulin. these hormones need second messengers because there receptors are present on the plasma membrane.
Thus, the correct answer is option - e. only water-soluble hormones use second messengers.
The key distinction between water and lipid-soluble hormones is that only water-soluble ones use second messengers. These messengers are needed because water-soluble hormones cannot pass through the cell membrane. Lipid-soluble hormones do not need this because they can directly interact with receptors within the cell.
Explanation:The correct statement that compares water-soluble and lipid-soluble hormones is option e: 'Only water-soluble hormones use second messengers.'
Water-soluble hormones can't cross the lipid bilayer of cells and hence need to bind to receptor molecules on the surface of cells. This interaction generates a so-called second messenger inside the cell, which amplifies the signal and leads to the required response.
On the other hand, lipid-soluble hormones can easily cross cell membranes and interact directly with nuclear receptors in cells. Their signal does not need to be amplified with a second messenger because they can directly influence the cell's operations by affecting gene transcription.
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Which physiological response is due to a "positive feedback loop"?
A. Body temperature regulation
B. Blood pressure regulation
C. Blood sugar regulation
D. Blood loss regulation
Answer: Blood loss regulation
Explanation:
Positive feed back is response of body in which there is an increase in the effect of small disturbance and the effect is intensified on a system. The magnitude of the effect increases.
In case of blood loss the body releases clotting factors that helps in preventing the body from severe blood loss.
The body releases clotting factors and these clotting factors tend to release more and more clotting factors that begins the process of blood clotting in vessels.
This is an example of positive feedback which acts as a life saving cascade.
A "positive feedback loop" causes an increase in the physiological process rather than maintaining stability like a negative feedback loop. Blood loss regulation is an example of a positive feedback loop where the body causes blood to clot more to prevent further loss.
Explanation:The physiological response due to a "positive feedback loop" is blood loss regulation (D). In Biology, a positive feedback loop is a process in which the end products of an action cause more of that action to occur. In case of a significant blood loss, the body tries to clot the blood to prevent further blood loss, which is an example of a positive feedback loop. Unlike negative feedback loops like body temperature, blood pressure, and blood sugar regulation which work towards maintaining stability or homeostasis, positive feedback mechanisms amplify or increase the occurrence of events.
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The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the
A) trachea.
B) glottis.
C) pharynx.
D) larynx.
E) vestibule.
Answer: Pharynx
Explanation:
The structure that is shared by both respiratory system and digestive system is the oral pharynx.
On the other side of the opening between the oral pharynx and mouth cavity is a palatine tonsil. This is called palatine tonsil because of its proximity to palate.
This structure lies behind mouth and nasal cavity and above the esophagus and larynx.
The more common name for the pharynx is the:
a. throat.
b. windpipe.
c. voice box.
d. nasal cavity.
Answer: Throat
Explanation:
The common name of pharynx is throat.This a ring like muscular tube that runs from the back of the nose and goes down to the neck.
It has three main sections: The nasopharynx, laryngopharynx and oropharynx. The laryngopharynx is also called as hypophaynx.
The main function of throat is to provide a passage to the food, fluid and air entering the mouth.
hence, the correct answer is option A
The more common name for the pharynx is the throat. The pharynx is a key part of the body's digestive and respiratory systems, while the windpipe, voice box, and nasal cavity have other distinct roles.
Explanation:The more common name for the pharynx is the throat. The pharynx is a part of the body that serves as a passage for both food (leading to the esophagus) and air (leading to the larynx or voice box). The windpipe, voice box, and nasal cavity are each different parts of the body with distinct functions. The windpipe, or trachea, connects the larynx to the lungs, facilitating breathing. The voice box, or larynx, is responsible for voice production. The nasal cavity is involved in respiration and olfaction, or the sense of smell.
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Which of the following is not a part of adaptive immunity?
a. Inflammation and fever.
b. Antibodies.
c. Cell-mediated immunity.
d. B lymphocytes.
e. Humoral immunity
Answer:
The correct answer is a. Inflammation and fever.
Explanation:
Adaptive immunity is the memory based and specific immunity immunity which is also called acquired immunity. Antibodies, cell-mediated immunity, B lymphocytes and humoral immunity are the part of adaptive immune response.
Inflammation is not a part of adaptive immunity because it is not specific and is the part of innate immunity. When any injury or infection happens in the body innate immune cells like macrophages, mast cells, neutrophills reaches there to kills the pathogen.
Inflammation is primary and rapid response towards any injury and it's consequences include heat, pain, redness and swelling.
What are some important applications of epidemiology for
assessing the delivery of health services? Present at least two
such important applications.
Your response must be at least 200-400 words in length.
Answer:
In order to establish two of the many important applications that epidemiology has when assessing the delivery of health services, we must first know what epidemiology is. Epidemiology is the field of publich health that dedicates to the analysis and study of patterns, determinant factors, and ways of distribution of both disease and health in populations. As such it gives us the how, the when, the where and the who, of both diseases and health conditions. Without it, most healtchare systems in the world would be clueless as to how to intervene to ensure better health conditions for their populations.
As such, in total, there are seven important uses for epidemiology, but we will focus on two: studying the history of health and disease in populations, and examine the functioning of the available health services in nations, in order to assess if they meet the needs of the people.
In the first case, learning about the history of disease, and also health, will allow policy makers, both in the health fields and governmental areas, to make the best choices as to how to meet the health demands o their people, depending on their own history. Knowing what happened in the past regarding a certain health issue, such as HIV, or Ebola, can help policy makers see the rights and wrongs done in the past, the best and worst practices, and thus choose the best course of action to take if such a situation where to arise again. It most helps with preparedness.
In the second case, it is even more important because the process of examining health services offered worldwide, and in specific countries, will allow to establish policies of improvement, and make the correct choices as to how best to proceed to ensure not just immediate answers, but long-term solutions to a problem.
As said before, these are only two of the seven important impacts that epidemiology has on the correct application of health services.
A 17-year-old male develops pneumonia, diabetic ketoacidosis, and metabolic acidosis. Respiratory compensation to a metabolic acidosis consists of hyperventilation to lower the arterial PC02. The cause of the hyperventilation is described by which of the following statement?
A. CO2 produced from the reaction of the acid with bicarbonate stimulates central chemoreceptors
B. A decrease in the bicarbonate concentration stimulates ventillation
C. H+ stimulates central chemoreceptors
D. H+ stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors
Answer:
The best answer from the choices, to the question: The cause of the hyperventilation is described by which of the following statement:___, would be, B: A decrease in the bicarbonate concentration stimulates ventilation.
Explanation:
The acid-base balance in the human body, is a very restrictive one. Normal ranges in this base are: 7.35 to 7.45. Whenever the values go either below 7.35 or above 7.45, we are talking about a person going into acidosis or alkalosis. Both situations are pretty serious and they have to do with the balance between the amounts of bicarbonate, and CO2 in the form of carbonic acid, in the blood. The normal ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid, is usually 20:1. Chemoreceptors, especially central ones in the neck, measure constantly that the balance is kept and if this is not the case, then several mechanisms will be put into place to recover it. One such measure is respiratory, and the other is metabolic. In the case of this 17-year-old, he has a pneumonia, which means that from the start, one of his recovery mechanisms is impeded, which is the respiratory mechanism of balance. He is also having metabolic problems with his system of compensation because his body is already producing high levels of H+ ions and not enough bicarbonate. Hyperventilation in this person is attempting to expel as much CO2 as possible, to try and restore the balance. The first thing that is sensed by the receptors is the changing in the 20:1 ratio, the increase in pH due to too much carbonic acid, and thus the body initiates the use of CO2 expulsion by the lungs, while metabolic mechanisms come into play.
BUN measures ________________.
Answer:
Explanation:
The BUN test or blood urea nitrogen test measures the concentration of urea and nitrogen present in the blood. This describes how well the two kidneys in the body are functioning. Urea and nitrogen are the two waste products produced by the liver that travels through the blood to the kidneys. The test is done by drawing blood out of your body through a vein of the arm. The small amount of urea and nitrogen in the blood can be considered as normal the excess urea and nitrogen in the blood indicate s that it is not filtered by the kidneys.
The chordae tendinae
a. connect the atria to the ventricles
b. are founf in the interventricular septum
c. are part of the conducting system of the heart
d. connect the flaps of the AV valves to the papillary muscles
e. are a part of the myocardium
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: The chordae tendinae:____, would be, D: connect the flaps of the AV valves to the papillary muscles.
Explanation:
The atrial chambers and ventricular chambers of the heart, are not simply freeway connected without any limitations between them. If this were so, the heart would burst. Instead, on the division between the two atria, and the two ventricles, stand the AV valves, or atrioventricular valves: the tricuspid, or atrioventricular valve, and the bicuspid, or mitral valve. These two valves are the ones responsible for ensuring the correct passage of blood from the atria to the ventricles, and prevents blood from regurgitating to the atria once the ventricles are full. In order to do this, these valves have fibrous tissue connectors that link their flaps to the papillary muscles. These connective tissue links are known as the chordae tendinae.
What toxin can interfere with causing skeletal muscles to contract?
Answer:
Botulinum Toxin
Explanation:
Botulinum Toxin is a neurotoxin (meaning that its target is the nervous system) produced by a bacteria known as Clostridium Botulinum. The Botulinum Toxin inhibits the transmission of acetylcholine (principal neurotransmitter that participates in muscle contraction). The acetylcholine travels from presynaptic motor neurons (the neurons that control the movement) to the muscle at the neuromuscular junction (the place where the nerve gets in contact with the muscle) interfering with neural transmission and inhibiting the stimulation of the muscle fiber, thus causing muscle paralysis.
In a negative feedback system, what is component that causes a change to reverse the situation and return to the value in the normal range?
Answer:
The correct answer is - effector.
Explanation:
Negative feedback is one of the feedback of the homeostasis process which is a process that reverses the change occurred in the system from the set point. So, it is the mechanism that regulates the body parameter in the normal range.
Effector is one the component of other than stimulus, sensor, and control center. Effector is the component of negative feedback which causes a change to reverse the change occurred to the normal range.
Thus, the correct answer is - effector.
The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the right atrium.
A) pulmonic
B) semicaval
C) tricuspid
D) bicuspid
E) semilunar
Answer:
The correct answer is option 'c': Tricuspid valve.
Explanation:
The valves are structures in the heart that regulate the flow of blood into different chambers of the human heart. The values do this function by acting as regulator's of blood flow and act as switches. The tricuspid valve acts as a one way valve that regulates the blood flow during ventricular systole to prevent the back flow of blood from right ventricle into right atrium.
The valve that prevents backward flow into the right atrium is the tricuspid valve. Option C is correct.
The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle of the heart. It consists of three leaflets, or cusps, that open and close to regulate the flow of blood. When the right atrium contracts, the tricuspid valve opens, allowing blood to flow into the right ventricle. Once the right ventricle is filled, the tricuspid valve closes to prevent blood from flowing back into the atrium during ventricular contraction. This ensures that blood flows in one direction, from the atrium to the ventricle and then to the lungs for oxygenation.
The other options listed are not correct for this particular question:
- The pulmonic valve (A) is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery, preventing backward flow of blood from the pulmonary artery into the right ventricle.
- The semicaval valve (B) is not a known valve in the heart.
- The bicuspid valve (D) is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle, preventing backward flow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium.
- The semilunar valve (E) is a general term for the two valves located between the ventricles and the major arteries leaving the heart (the aorta and pulmonary artery). The semilunar valves prevent backward flow from the arteries into the ventricles.
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The substances that are not filtered through the glomerular epithelium into the renal corpuscle and tubules are directed into the _____________ vessels.
Answer:
The correct answer is - efferent arterioles or vessels.
Explanation:
The efferent arterioles are the vessels that take the substances that are not filtered from the blood in the glomerulus, to the capillaries known as peritubular capillaries to Vesa-recta and finally reaches to the vena Ceva to transfer to the different parts of the body.
The blood is brought to the glomerular where it is filtered into the renal corpuscles and tubules. The efferent and efferent has antagonist role in the body as one carries the blood to the glomerulus and the other takes blood from it.
Thus, the correct answer is - efferent arterioles or vessels.
Tooth whitening or bleaching can be accomplished through which of the following method(s)?
a. at home whitening strips
b. at home bleaching trays and gel
c. in office bleaching with lights or lasers
d. all of the above
Answer:
The correct option is: d. all of the above
Explanation:
Teeth whitening is the method or technique used to lighten the color of the discolored or the stained teeth.
There are various in-office and at home teeth whitening methods that can be used. The in-office methods include various light-accelerated bleaching, and at home teeth whitening methods includes various strips and gels, whitening toothpastes, whitening rinses, and tray based tooth whiteners.
All of the following endocrine disorders are correctly matched with malfunctioning gland except
A. Diabetes and pancreas
B. Tetany and parathyroid
C. Dwarfism and pituitary
D. Cretinism and adrenal medulla
E. Gigantism and pituitary
Answer:
B.
Explanation:
Tetany is a bacterial infection caused by a neurotoxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium Tetani which curses with generalized muscle contractions and painful muscle spasms.
Parathyroid gland regulates the calcium and fosfate metabolism, and therefore any alteration leading to low or high levels of this hormone will affect the equilibrium of these two minerals generating symptoms as cramps, fatigue, pain, palpitations and others. The main cause maybe a tumor and it is not related to tetany.
The placenta not only serves as an organ of exchange but also secretes all of the following hormones, EXCEPT
A. Prolactin.
B. Chorionic gonadotropin
C. Placental lactogen
D. Progesterone
E. Estrogen
Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:
The placenta is an endocrine gland that is present in the women's body during the time of pregnancy.
When a women is pregnant there is a connecting link in between the child and mother that transfers nutrients to the fetus and carries waste materials from the body of the fetus to mother's body.
Placenta also releases some hormones which includes Chorionic gonadotropin, estrogen, placental lactogen, progestrone.
Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative except
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Thyroid hormone
D. Thyroid stimulating hormone
E. Melatonin.
Final answer:
Amino acid-derived hormones are hormones derived from the amino acids tyrosine and tryptophan. Examples include epinephrine, norepinephrine, thyroid hormone, and melatonin.
Explanation:
Amino acid-derived hormones are hormones that are derived from the amino acids tyrosine and tryptophan. If a hormone is amino acid-derived, its chemical name will end in ". Examples of amino acid-derived hormones include epinephrine, norepinephrine, thyroid hormone, and melatonin. However, thyroid stimulating hormone is not an amino acid-derived hormone.
Which of these structures is not a part of the glottis?
a. True vocal cords
b. Rima glottidis
c. False vocal cords
d. Both B and C
Answer:
The correct option is: c. False vocal cords
Explanation:
The glottis is a part of larynx, also known as the voice box, located in the anterior aspect of the neck. The glottis consists of the vocal folds and rima glottidis.
The vocal folds, also known as true vocal folds, are the folds of tissues present in the larynx that are responsible for producing sounds.
The slitlike space present between the right and left vocal folds is called the rima glottidis.
Therefore, False vocal cords are not a part of the glottis.
As the air enter the nasal cavity, these structures located on the lateral surface help to increase the tubulence of the air that the air may be warmed, filtered and moistened more effectively ____________
Answer:
The answer is: nasal conchae
Explanation:
The nasal conchae, also known as turbinates, are the elongated curled shelf of bone that protrudes into the nasal cavity. It is present on the lateral surface of the nasal cavity.
It is responsible for the directing the airflow direction, heating, filtering and humidification, of the air inhaled through the nose.
Periodontal disease is irreversible and involves bone loss around the tooth.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
The answer to the question: Periodontal disease is irreversible and involves bone loss around the tooth, would be, A: true.
Explanation:
Periodontitis and gingivitis are two conditions of the mouth that are pretty severe. To reach these levels, a person´s exposure to plaque, tartar, and bacteria in the mouth must have been pretty long. Gingivitis is an inflammation of the gums of the mouth, and if taken proper care of, it can be reversed. In this case, professional care is needed, but the problem can be reversed. However, when we move on to periodotitis, we have a further problem because in this case, the damage is not just to soft tissue, but also to the bone itself, and there is a destruction of the periodontal ligaments as well as destruction and absorption of parts of the alveolar bone. Periodontitis is almost totally irreversible.
Do you believe it is safer for healthcare facilities to use the metric system or US customary system for measurements?
Answer:
Yes it is safer.
Explanation:
It will be safer to calculate all the measurement in SI or us contemporary for the doctor and patient. All the medicines and exercise should be decided according to the measurements.
The weight of the patient should be measured in in a proper unit which could be analyzed by the doctor in an easy way. Also the conversion of weight from kilogram to lbs. or from pounds to kilogram should be done carefully as it could alter the result and his treatment.
Which tooth surface of the anterior teeth in nearest the lips?
a. mesial
b. labial
c. proximal
d. buccal
Answer:
b. labial
Explanation:
labial -
Labial is the surface of the anterior tooth , which faces towards the lips .
The side of tooth , which is just adjacent to the inside of the lip .
This surface is nearest to the lips .
The face of these tooth , i.e. , labial tooth is towards , the lips or cheek , in the human body .
Hence , from the given options the correct answer is b. labial .
Oral Communications class:
There are three types of speeches: informational speech,
persuasive speech and special occasion speech.
True or false?
Answer:
The best answer to the question: There are three types of speeches: informational speech, persuasive speech and special occasion speech, woud be: True.
Explanation:
Communication is a vital part of human activities. But it is even more important when we are interacting with other people, especially if we are talking about large groups of people, and not just two. In speech giving, particularly, oral skills must be put to the test as these are meant to convey a message through words and gestures and the effectiveness of this goal will depend on whether the speech has been well written, and well chosen for a specific ocassion. As such, in oral communication, there are three general types of speeches, each with a particular objective. Informational, or informative, where the objective is precisely to inform about an even, a person, or a place, persuasive, which are probably the most used, and they include arguments, and finally, speeches for special occasion. Therefore the statement above is true.
Correct Answer: True
The pharynx is the common surgery passageway for food and air leads into these two inferior structures ______________ and ____________________.
Answer:
The answer to fill in the blanks, for this statement: The pharynx is the common passageway for food and air that leads into these two inferior structures: the esophagus and the larynx.
Explanation:
The pharynx, even though being a pretty simple structure of a tube that runs from both nose and mouth towards the throat and bifurcates into the esophagus and also the larynx, is one of the few organs that works both for feeding and also breathing. The pharynx is divided into three portions: the nasopharynx (the back of the nasal cavity), oropharynx (the back of the mouth) and the laryngopharynx. Because it is the only tube-like structure that leads both from the nose and from the mouth, it serves as the conducting system for both food and fluids, and air. When it reaches the neck, around the epiglotis, the pharynx transforms into the larynx, through which air passes towards the lungs. On the other side, the pharynx gives way to the esophagus, which is the main conducting system for food and fluids.
Blood vessels enter and exit from the
A. apex
B. base
C. auricles of the heart.
D. trigone
E. inferior aspect
Answer:
The best answer to the statement: Blood vessles enter and exit from the:___, would be, B: Base.
Explanation:
The number of major vessels, between arteries and veins, that enter the heart to either deposit blood, or take out blood, is five: the aorta, the pulmonary arteries, the pulmonary veins, the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava. All of these vessels enter the heart and join one of the four chambers to fulfill their task. The entering point for all of these vessels, into the heart, is the base of the organ.
In the human body, blood vessels enter and leave the auricles of the heart.
What are blood vessels?Blood vessels, responsible for transporting blood in the body, can be divided, according to their structure and function, into three types: ArteriesVeins and capillaries.With this information, we can conclude that in the human body, blood vessels enter and leave the auricles of the heart.
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What are large lymphoid nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx?
Answer:
The answer is: tonsils or palatine tonsils
Explanation:
Tonsils are the small lymphoid organs. They are of four types: pharyngeal or adenoid tonsil, tubal tonsils, palatine tonsils, and lingual tonsils.
The palatine tonsils, commonly referred to as tonsils, are the pinkish lumps that are found on the left and the right walls of the pharynx in the human throat.
The vocal folds are located within the
A) oropharynx.
B) larynx.
C) trachea.
D) nasopharynx.
E) bronchi.
Answer:
The best answer to the question: The vocal folds are located within the:___, would be, B: Larynx.
Explanation:
The larynx is the structure that is responsible for conducting air from the upper airway passages towards the lungs, and protecting the trachea and lower airway passages from being contaminated by food and fluids. In order to do this, this tube counts with motility and a series of cartilaginous structures that support it and aid it in its function. At the very end of the larynx, and at the opening of the trachea, we can find the vocal folds, which is where the vocal cords are located. These folds have a double function: they produce sound when air moves in a certain way from lungs to upper air passageways, through vibration. And most important of all, they produce the coughing reflex if any particle, especially food, touches them. They will close if constant contact with the particle persists, and will continue producing the reflex until the particle has been dislodged and expelled.
Diastole is the
a. pacemaker function
b. when the heart is working
c. contracting phase
d. resting phase
Answer:
The correct answer is D. resting phase
Explanation:
Diastole is the resting phase when relaxation of heart muscles takes after contraction(systole). In this phase blood from veins and coronary sinus comes into the auricles and ventricles because of the pressure in the heart is less than veins and opening of A-V valve.
When both auricles and ventricles are relaxed it is called joint diastole. Joint diastole is called complete cardiac diastole and is 0.4 sec long. After the joint diastole auricular systole occurs in which auricles are contracted and ventricles are still relaxed called ventricular diastole.
After the end of auricular systole ventricles contraction starts and auricular relaxation occurs called auricular diastole.
As a healthcare professional, what are the possible consequences for failing to master metric system conversion skills?
In the master metric system conversion skill, if it is not done in a proper way it could create confusion in the medicine, diet, exercises etc to the patient. If the total things are done in SI unit it would create less confusion.
There are a lot of unit system followed all over the world. Some of them are SI, CGS, etc. The units of weight are kilogram, lbs. For the time it is minute and second. For distance it is cm, meter and kilometer.
All of these units are integrated with each other and should be converted carefully. All the diet medicine and exercises depend upon this conversion.